PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE (PSM)
1. The time period between entry of infective agent in a host and maximal infectivity of that host is:
(a) Incubation period (b) Serial interval (c) Generation time (d) Period of communicability
Ans: C
2. Consider the following statements: Symposium is a method of health education characterized by
1. a series of speeches on a selected topic
2. presentation of different aspects of a topic by 3 or 4 experts.
3. a discussion among the symposium members
4. the chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Major Group of Insecticides) List-II (Name of Insecticide)
A. Stomach poison 1. Temephos
B. Organo-chlorine compound 2. Propoxur
C. Organo-phosphorous compound 3. Sodium fluoride
D. Carbamates 4. Dieldrin
Code: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: C
4. Consider the following diseases:
1. Rift valley fever 2. Yellow Fever 3. Chickungunya fever 4. West Nile fever
Which of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: A
5. Consider the following statements: Prophylactic disinfection includes
1. disinfection of urine specimen of patient with enteric fever
2. pasteurization of milk
3. disinfection of contaminated linen
4. disinfection of water by chlorine
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: B
6. Consider the following vectors:
1. Aedes mosquito 2. Flea 3. Ticks 4. Itchmite
Transovarian transmission is demonstrated in
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: C
7. The most sensitive indicator of the health status of a community is the:
(a) Crude death rate (b) Maternal mortality rate
(c) Infant mortality rate (d) Child mortality rate
Ans: C
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Registration of birth, even if the child is born in a hospital, is essentially the responsibility of parents only.
2. At present, the registration of birth has to be done not more than 15 days after the birth.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
9. Sullivan Index is the measure of which of the following?
(a) Disability rate (b) Pregnancy rate (c) Literacy rate (d) Quality of life
Ans: A
10. Consider the following statements: The strategy to eradicate poliomyelitis in India comprised of
1. conducting national immunisation days
2. mopping up rounds with OPV
3. acute flaccid paralysis surveillance
4. public awareness through multimedia
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
11. Chemoprophylaxis is an example of:
(a) Specific protection (b) Health promotion (c) Early detection (d) Rehabilitation
Ans: A
12. Which of the following statements is true about hydatid disease?
(a) It is a zoonosis (b) It is rare in sheep rearing countries (c) It is a protozoal disease (d) Man is the definitive host
Ans: A
13. Which of the following statements is true about direct age standardization?
(a) Standardized mortality ratio is used (b) A standard population is used
(c) Age specific death rates are not known (d) Number of people in each age group is not known
Ans: B
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Disease) List II (Example)
A. Nosocomial 1. Cytomegaloviral infection
B. Opportunistic 2. Hepatitis B viral infection
C. Iatrogenic 3. Aplastic anemia
D. Epornithic 4. Influenza
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A
15. With reference to International Certificate of Vaccination for Yellow Fever, the validity of the certificate begins how many days after the vaccination?
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 14 days (d) 20 days
Ans: B
16. With reference to dengue virus, consider the following statements:
1. In India, all the four serotypes are found.
2. The reservoir of infection is both man and mosquito.
3. Adults usually have a milder disease than children.
4. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by infection with more than one dengue virus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
17. What is the window period for HIV infection?
(a) 3 – 15 days (b) 6 – 24 weeks (c) 6 – 8 months (d) None of these
Ans: B
18 Among the following foodstuffs, which one has the highest protein content per 100 gm?
(a) Black gram (b) Egg (c) Ragi (d) Wheat
Ans: A
19. Smoking is associated with all the following diseases except:
(a) Emphysema (b) Cardiovascular disease (c) Sarcoidosis (d) Lung cancer
Ans: C
20. Consider the following: 1. Skin 2. Water 3. Faeces 4. Urine Bleaching powder can be used for disinfection of which of the above?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
21. Consider the following definitions: ‘Effectiveness measures the extent to which predetermined objectives are achieved. Efficiency measures how well the resources are utilized.’ In view of these definitions, which of the following assertions are true?
1. Percentage of bed occupancy measures effectiveness
2. Immunization coverage rate measures efficiency
3. Cost per patient treated measures efficiency
4. Reduction in mortality measures effectiveness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
22. With reference to the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, consider the following statements:
1. Active case finding is pursued under this Programme.
2. Microscopy centres are established in the districts for every one lakh population and in hilly and tribal areas for every 50,000 population.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
23. Districts are classified into different categories regarding neonatal tetanus risk. Which one of the following correctly describes ‘Neonatal Tetanus Elimination‘ status?
(a) Incidence rate more than 2/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine coverage less than 70%, attended deliveries between 60% and 70%
(b) Incidence rate between 1 to 2/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage 70%, attended deliveries more than 75%
(c) Incidence rate 0.5 to 1/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage between 70% and 80%, attended deliveries between 65% and 70%
(d) Incidence rate less than 0.1/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine coverage more than 90%, attended deliveries more than 75%
Ans: D
24. Influenza vaccine is recommended for:
1. Elderly
2. Persons with underlying chronic diseases
3. HIV infected
4. General population
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
25. With reference to mumps, consider the following statements:
1. The average age of incidence of mumps is higher than that of measles and chicken pox.
2. The mumps disease tends to be more severe in adults than in children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
26. Consider the following statements about content/yield of 100 gm of some foodstuffs:
1. Fat content of Bengal gram is less than that of maize
2. Protein content of maize is more than that of rice
3. Calorie yield of fish and egg is same
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: B
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Protein content of soyabean is more than that of meat (per 100 gm)
2. Fat content of fish is more than that of soyabean (per 100 gm)
3. Calorie yield for each 100 gm of fish is almost the same as for 100 gm of banana
4. Fat content of soyabean is more than that of eggs (per 100 gm)
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: D
28. Consider the following features of food poisoning: ‘Incubation period less than 24 hours, source of infection is milk products, and symptoms include diarrhoea and vomiting.’ To which of the following does the above description apply?
1. Staphylococcal food poisoning
2. Salmonella food poisoning
3. Botulism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans: B
29. For adolescents, what is the weekly iron and folic acid supplementation dose?
(a) 60 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid
(b) 100 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid
(c) 120 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid
(d) 150 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid
Ans: B
30. Which of the following statements is/are true about proportional case rate of malaria?
1. This indicator is used since morbidity rate is difficult to determine
2. This is defined as the number of cases of malaria for every 100 patients seen in hospital OPDs
3. It is a crude index since cases are not related to their time and space distribution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Type 2 poliovirus was eliminated in India in 2005.
2. Main cause of vaccine derived polioviruses (VDPV) is Type 2 component of OPV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
32. The denominator for calculating proportional mortality rate from a specific disease is:
(a) Mid-year population during that year (b) Population at risk in that particular area
(c) Total deaths in that year (d) Attributable deaths of a particular disease
Ans: C
33. Which one of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(a) Mean (b) Range (c) Mean deviation (d) Standard deviation
Ans: A
34. Analytical studies include the following methods of studies except:
(a) Case control studies (b) Randomised controlled trials (c) Cohort studies (d) Cross sectional studies
Ans: B
35. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Gestational diabetes can lead to Type-II diabetes after delivery.
(b) Gestational diabetes is always transient and cured after delivery.
(c) Gestational diabetes is a risk factor for diabetes in children born to mothers with GDM.
(d) Screening for gestational diabetes should be included in antenatal care.
Ans: B
36. Cu-T-380 A IUCD should be replaced in:
(a) 4 years (b) 6 years (c) 8 years (d) 10 years
Ans: D
37. Consider the following:
1. Coconut oil 2. Groundnut oil 3. Mustard oil
Which of the above is/are dietary sources of linoleic acid?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
(a) Incubation period (b) Serial interval (c) Generation time (d) Period of communicability
Ans: C
2. Consider the following statements: Symposium is a method of health education characterized by
1. a series of speeches on a selected topic
2. presentation of different aspects of a topic by 3 or 4 experts.
3. a discussion among the symposium members
4. the chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Major Group of Insecticides) List-II (Name of Insecticide)
A. Stomach poison 1. Temephos
B. Organo-chlorine compound 2. Propoxur
C. Organo-phosphorous compound 3. Sodium fluoride
D. Carbamates 4. Dieldrin
Code: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: C
4. Consider the following diseases:
1. Rift valley fever 2. Yellow Fever 3. Chickungunya fever 4. West Nile fever
Which of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: A
5. Consider the following statements: Prophylactic disinfection includes
1. disinfection of urine specimen of patient with enteric fever
2. pasteurization of milk
3. disinfection of contaminated linen
4. disinfection of water by chlorine
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: B
6. Consider the following vectors:
1. Aedes mosquito 2. Flea 3. Ticks 4. Itchmite
Transovarian transmission is demonstrated in
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: C
7. The most sensitive indicator of the health status of a community is the:
(a) Crude death rate (b) Maternal mortality rate
(c) Infant mortality rate (d) Child mortality rate
Ans: C
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Registration of birth, even if the child is born in a hospital, is essentially the responsibility of parents only.
2. At present, the registration of birth has to be done not more than 15 days after the birth.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
9. Sullivan Index is the measure of which of the following?
(a) Disability rate (b) Pregnancy rate (c) Literacy rate (d) Quality of life
Ans: A
10. Consider the following statements: The strategy to eradicate poliomyelitis in India comprised of
1. conducting national immunisation days
2. mopping up rounds with OPV
3. acute flaccid paralysis surveillance
4. public awareness through multimedia
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
11. Chemoprophylaxis is an example of:
(a) Specific protection (b) Health promotion (c) Early detection (d) Rehabilitation
Ans: A
12. Which of the following statements is true about hydatid disease?
(a) It is a zoonosis (b) It is rare in sheep rearing countries (c) It is a protozoal disease (d) Man is the definitive host
Ans: A
13. Which of the following statements is true about direct age standardization?
(a) Standardized mortality ratio is used (b) A standard population is used
(c) Age specific death rates are not known (d) Number of people in each age group is not known
Ans: B
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Disease) List II (Example)
A. Nosocomial 1. Cytomegaloviral infection
B. Opportunistic 2. Hepatitis B viral infection
C. Iatrogenic 3. Aplastic anemia
D. Epornithic 4. Influenza
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A
15. With reference to International Certificate of Vaccination for Yellow Fever, the validity of the certificate begins how many days after the vaccination?
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 14 days (d) 20 days
Ans: B
16. With reference to dengue virus, consider the following statements:
1. In India, all the four serotypes are found.
2. The reservoir of infection is both man and mosquito.
3. Adults usually have a milder disease than children.
4. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by infection with more than one dengue virus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
17. What is the window period for HIV infection?
(a) 3 – 15 days (b) 6 – 24 weeks (c) 6 – 8 months (d) None of these
Ans: B
18 Among the following foodstuffs, which one has the highest protein content per 100 gm?
(a) Black gram (b) Egg (c) Ragi (d) Wheat
Ans: A
19. Smoking is associated with all the following diseases except:
(a) Emphysema (b) Cardiovascular disease (c) Sarcoidosis (d) Lung cancer
Ans: C
20. Consider the following: 1. Skin 2. Water 3. Faeces 4. Urine Bleaching powder can be used for disinfection of which of the above?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
21. Consider the following definitions: ‘Effectiveness measures the extent to which predetermined objectives are achieved. Efficiency measures how well the resources are utilized.’ In view of these definitions, which of the following assertions are true?
1. Percentage of bed occupancy measures effectiveness
2. Immunization coverage rate measures efficiency
3. Cost per patient treated measures efficiency
4. Reduction in mortality measures effectiveness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
22. With reference to the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, consider the following statements:
1. Active case finding is pursued under this Programme.
2. Microscopy centres are established in the districts for every one lakh population and in hilly and tribal areas for every 50,000 population.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
23. Districts are classified into different categories regarding neonatal tetanus risk. Which one of the following correctly describes ‘Neonatal Tetanus Elimination‘ status?
(a) Incidence rate more than 2/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine coverage less than 70%, attended deliveries between 60% and 70%
(b) Incidence rate between 1 to 2/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage 70%, attended deliveries more than 75%
(c) Incidence rate 0.5 to 1/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage between 70% and 80%, attended deliveries between 65% and 70%
(d) Incidence rate less than 0.1/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine coverage more than 90%, attended deliveries more than 75%
Ans: D
24. Influenza vaccine is recommended for:
1. Elderly
2. Persons with underlying chronic diseases
3. HIV infected
4. General population
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
25. With reference to mumps, consider the following statements:
1. The average age of incidence of mumps is higher than that of measles and chicken pox.
2. The mumps disease tends to be more severe in adults than in children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
26. Consider the following statements about content/yield of 100 gm of some foodstuffs:
1. Fat content of Bengal gram is less than that of maize
2. Protein content of maize is more than that of rice
3. Calorie yield of fish and egg is same
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: B
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Protein content of soyabean is more than that of meat (per 100 gm)
2. Fat content of fish is more than that of soyabean (per 100 gm)
3. Calorie yield for each 100 gm of fish is almost the same as for 100 gm of banana
4. Fat content of soyabean is more than that of eggs (per 100 gm)
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: D
28. Consider the following features of food poisoning: ‘Incubation period less than 24 hours, source of infection is milk products, and symptoms include diarrhoea and vomiting.’ To which of the following does the above description apply?
1. Staphylococcal food poisoning
2. Salmonella food poisoning
3. Botulism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans: B
29. For adolescents, what is the weekly iron and folic acid supplementation dose?
(a) 60 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid
(b) 100 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid
(c) 120 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid
(d) 150 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid
Ans: B
30. Which of the following statements is/are true about proportional case rate of malaria?
1. This indicator is used since morbidity rate is difficult to determine
2. This is defined as the number of cases of malaria for every 100 patients seen in hospital OPDs
3. It is a crude index since cases are not related to their time and space distribution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Type 2 poliovirus was eliminated in India in 2005.
2. Main cause of vaccine derived polioviruses (VDPV) is Type 2 component of OPV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
32. The denominator for calculating proportional mortality rate from a specific disease is:
(a) Mid-year population during that year (b) Population at risk in that particular area
(c) Total deaths in that year (d) Attributable deaths of a particular disease
Ans: C
33. Which one of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
(a) Mean (b) Range (c) Mean deviation (d) Standard deviation
Ans: A
34. Analytical studies include the following methods of studies except:
(a) Case control studies (b) Randomised controlled trials (c) Cohort studies (d) Cross sectional studies
Ans: B
35. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Gestational diabetes can lead to Type-II diabetes after delivery.
(b) Gestational diabetes is always transient and cured after delivery.
(c) Gestational diabetes is a risk factor for diabetes in children born to mothers with GDM.
(d) Screening for gestational diabetes should be included in antenatal care.
Ans: B
36. Cu-T-380 A IUCD should be replaced in:
(a) 4 years (b) 6 years (c) 8 years (d) 10 years
Ans: D
37. Consider the following:
1. Coconut oil 2. Groundnut oil 3. Mustard oil
Which of the above is/are dietary sources of linoleic acid?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
38. Consider the following:
1. Health Education 2. Treatment of hypertension 3. Screening for cervical cancer 4. Changing lifestyles to prevent stress
Which are the examples of primordial prevention?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: A
39. When the prevalence rate is used without any qualification, it is taken to mean as
(a) point prevalence rate (b) period prevalence rate (c) annual prevalence rate (d) mean duration prevalence rate
Ans: A
40. An outbreak of viral hepatitis A was reported from a town between June and August of a particular year. Of total cases, 60% occurred in July. Exposure of the community to infection is from
(a) a common single source for a short period
(b) a common single source for a prolonged period
(c) multiple sources for a short period
(d) multiple sources for a prolonged period
Ans: A
41. Rheumatic Heart Disease can be prevented by:
(a) Screening of school going children (b) Vaccination against Streptococcus
(c) Treatment of respiratory infections in children (d) All of these
Ans: D
42. The addition of killed Bordetella pertusis microorganisms to diphtheria toxoid enhances the antibody response of the latter because of (a) exotoxin of the Bordotella organism (b) additive action of the two antigens
(c) formation of local granuloma (d) endotoxin of the Bordotella organism
Ans: D
43. Post exposure prophylaxis against HIV infection should not be delayed beyond:
(a) 4 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 48 hours
Ans: A
44. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60%
(b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection
(c) Treatment of cases has no significant effect in epidemiological pattern of disease
(d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in incidence rate of cases
Ans: A
45. Which of the following vaccines is/are contraindicated in pregnancy?
1. Rubella 2. Hepatitis-B 3. Diphtheria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
46. In a case of paucibacillary leprosy, treatment is considered adequate if the patient has received the six monthly doses of combined therapy within:
(a) 6 months (b) 9 months (c) 12 months (d) 15 months
Ans: B
47. Chemoprophylaxis is indicated in the following conditions except:
(a) Cholera (b) Meningococcal meningitis (c) Plague (d) Typhoid
Ans: D
48. Chandler’s index is used in the epidemiological studies of
(a) Ascariasis (b) Hookworm infection (c) Taenia solium infection (d) Guineaworm disease
Ans: B
49. Consider the following diseases:
1. Measles 2. Polio 3. Staphylococcal food poisoning 4. Typhoid
Which of the above are the correct examples for incubation period of 10-14 days?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: C
50. Which of the following is the most common malignant tumour in adult males in India?
(a) Lung cancer (b) Oro-pharyngeal carcinoma (c) Gastric carcinoma (d) Colo-rectal carcinoma
Ans: B
1. Health Education 2. Treatment of hypertension 3. Screening for cervical cancer 4. Changing lifestyles to prevent stress
Which are the examples of primordial prevention?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: A
39. When the prevalence rate is used without any qualification, it is taken to mean as
(a) point prevalence rate (b) period prevalence rate (c) annual prevalence rate (d) mean duration prevalence rate
Ans: A
40. An outbreak of viral hepatitis A was reported from a town between June and August of a particular year. Of total cases, 60% occurred in July. Exposure of the community to infection is from
(a) a common single source for a short period
(b) a common single source for a prolonged period
(c) multiple sources for a short period
(d) multiple sources for a prolonged period
Ans: A
41. Rheumatic Heart Disease can be prevented by:
(a) Screening of school going children (b) Vaccination against Streptococcus
(c) Treatment of respiratory infections in children (d) All of these
Ans: D
42. The addition of killed Bordetella pertusis microorganisms to diphtheria toxoid enhances the antibody response of the latter because of (a) exotoxin of the Bordotella organism (b) additive action of the two antigens
(c) formation of local granuloma (d) endotoxin of the Bordotella organism
Ans: D
43. Post exposure prophylaxis against HIV infection should not be delayed beyond:
(a) 4 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 48 hours
Ans: A
44. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60%
(b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection
(c) Treatment of cases has no significant effect in epidemiological pattern of disease
(d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in incidence rate of cases
Ans: A
45. Which of the following vaccines is/are contraindicated in pregnancy?
1. Rubella 2. Hepatitis-B 3. Diphtheria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
46. In a case of paucibacillary leprosy, treatment is considered adequate if the patient has received the six monthly doses of combined therapy within:
(a) 6 months (b) 9 months (c) 12 months (d) 15 months
Ans: B
47. Chemoprophylaxis is indicated in the following conditions except:
(a) Cholera (b) Meningococcal meningitis (c) Plague (d) Typhoid
Ans: D
48. Chandler’s index is used in the epidemiological studies of
(a) Ascariasis (b) Hookworm infection (c) Taenia solium infection (d) Guineaworm disease
Ans: B
49. Consider the following diseases:
1. Measles 2. Polio 3. Staphylococcal food poisoning 4. Typhoid
Which of the above are the correct examples for incubation period of 10-14 days?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: C
50. Which of the following is the most common malignant tumour in adult males in India?
(a) Lung cancer (b) Oro-pharyngeal carcinoma (c) Gastric carcinoma (d) Colo-rectal carcinoma
Ans: B
51. Eight months old child had history of unusual crying and convulsions following previous vaccination after BCG, DPT & OPV ( first dose), and Hepatitis B. Now parents have brought child for next doses of vaccination. Which vaccine is contraindicated in this situation?
(a) Measles (b) DPT (c) Hepatitis B (d) DT
Ans: B
52. The clinical features of Turner Syndrome in girls include the following except:
(a) Severe mental retardation (b) Webbing of the neck (c) Delayed puberty (d) Short stature
Ans: A
53. Occupational exposure to Benzol may lead to :
(a) Lung cancer (b) Leukaemia (c) COPD (d) Neurofibromas
Ans: B
54. Marriage between two heterozygous individuals for the same disorder is prevented by:
(a) Retrospective genetic counselling (b) Prospective genetic counselling (c) Legislation (d) Mass health education
Ans: B
55. The benefits of ESI Act include the following except:
(a) Medical benefit (b) Rehabilitation allowance (c) Sickness benefit (d) Nutritional allowance
Ans: D
56. The following are the group health education approaches except:
(a) Lecture (b) Demonstration (c) Role play (d) Documentary
Ans: D
57. Current WHO recommendations for initiating Antiretroviral treatment (ART) in HIV +ve individuals is:
(a) CD4 cells less than 200 cells/mm3 (b) CD4 cells less than 250 cells/mm3
(c) CD4 cells less than 300 cells/mm3 (d) CD4 cells less than or equal to 350 cells/mm3
Ans: D
58. The following are the principles of Primary Health Care except:
(a) Intersectoral coordination (b) Provision of specialist services at Primary Health Centres
(c) Appropriate technology (d) Equitable distribution of health care
Ans: B
59. Which one of the following is a quantitative method of health management?
(a) Cost effectiveness analysis (b) Human Resource Management
(c) Communication management (d) Supportive supervision and leadership
Ans: A
60. Acute Respiratory Infections (ARI) are important causes of under-five mortality in India. In remote areas, children develop frequent episodes of ARI. What measures will you take for prevention and control of ARI amongst under-five children in that area?
(a) Case management and Health education to mothers (b) Vaccination
(c) Controlling malnutrition, Promoting breast feeding and vitamin A supplementation (d) All of these
Ans: D
61. The following are objectives of Indian Public Health Standards for Primary Health Centres except:
(a) Provision of comprehensive primary health care (b) Achievement of an acceptable quality of health care
(c) Provision of accident and emergency care (d) Making services more responsive to the needs of the community
Ans: C
62. A pregnant woman in third trimester having fever was diagnosed as a case of Falciparum malaria. Under the National Health Programme, which drug is recommended?
(a) ACT only (b) ACT accompanied by single dose of Primaquine on day 2
(c) Only Quinine (d) Chloroquine
Ans: A
63. Which of the following genetic disorders leads to mental retardation?
(a) Haemophilia (b) Phenylketonuria (c) Cystic fibrosis (d) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans: B
64. Biomedical waste from a yellow plastic bag is disposed by:
(a) Autoclaving (b) Microwaving (c) Incineration (d) Chemical treatment
Ans: C
65. Which of the following is not a feature of heat stress?
(a) Hyperpyrexia (b) Syncope (c) Cramps (d) Numbness
Ans: D
66. A 20 year old male is diagnosed as a case of dengue fever at a Primary Health Centre. What are the suitable measures to be taken for the prevention and control of dengue in that area?
(a) Case management for DF and DHF and vaccination
(b) Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes
(c) Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes and vaccination
(d) Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes and environmental measures for elimination of breeding places
Ans: D
67. WHO defines a multi-drug resistant (MDR) Tuberculosis strain as one that is:
(a) At least resistant to INH (b) At least resistant to Rifampicin
(c) Resistant to INH and Rifampicin with or without resistant to other anti TB drugs (d) Resistant to Streptomycin only
Ans: C
68. Which of the following are the characteristic features of screening tests?
1. Done on healthy people 2. Done on unhealthy people 3. More accurate 4. Less accurate 5. Less expensive 6. More expensive 7. Not a basis for treatment 8. Used as a base for treatment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2, 4, 5 and 8 (b) 1, 3, 5 and 8 (c) 2, 3, 6 and 7 (d) 1, 4, 5 and 7
Ans: D
69. Which National Programe came into existence during 11th Five Year Plan?
(a) National Cancer control programme
(b) National Cardiovascular diseases & Stroke control programme
(c) National Diabetes and Cancer control programme
(d) National Programme for prevention and control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke
Ans: D
70. Which states are qualified as high prevalence states in the context of HIV/AIDS?
(a) When prevalence in high risk groups is more than 5%, and less than 1% in antenatal women
(b) When prevalence in high risk groups is more than 5%, and 1% or more in antenatal women
(c) When prevalence in high risk groups is less than 5%, and more than 1% in antenatal women
(d) None of these
Ans: B
71. Consider the following diseases:
1. Yellow fever
2. Q fever
3. Chikungunya fever
4. Relapsing fever
5. Japanese encephalitis
6. Sleeping sickness
Which of the above are transmitted by mosquitoes?
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 6
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 4, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: D
(a) Measles (b) DPT (c) Hepatitis B (d) DT
Ans: B
52. The clinical features of Turner Syndrome in girls include the following except:
(a) Severe mental retardation (b) Webbing of the neck (c) Delayed puberty (d) Short stature
Ans: A
53. Occupational exposure to Benzol may lead to :
(a) Lung cancer (b) Leukaemia (c) COPD (d) Neurofibromas
Ans: B
54. Marriage between two heterozygous individuals for the same disorder is prevented by:
(a) Retrospective genetic counselling (b) Prospective genetic counselling (c) Legislation (d) Mass health education
Ans: B
55. The benefits of ESI Act include the following except:
(a) Medical benefit (b) Rehabilitation allowance (c) Sickness benefit (d) Nutritional allowance
Ans: D
56. The following are the group health education approaches except:
(a) Lecture (b) Demonstration (c) Role play (d) Documentary
Ans: D
57. Current WHO recommendations for initiating Antiretroviral treatment (ART) in HIV +ve individuals is:
(a) CD4 cells less than 200 cells/mm3 (b) CD4 cells less than 250 cells/mm3
(c) CD4 cells less than 300 cells/mm3 (d) CD4 cells less than or equal to 350 cells/mm3
Ans: D
58. The following are the principles of Primary Health Care except:
(a) Intersectoral coordination (b) Provision of specialist services at Primary Health Centres
(c) Appropriate technology (d) Equitable distribution of health care
Ans: B
59. Which one of the following is a quantitative method of health management?
(a) Cost effectiveness analysis (b) Human Resource Management
(c) Communication management (d) Supportive supervision and leadership
Ans: A
60. Acute Respiratory Infections (ARI) are important causes of under-five mortality in India. In remote areas, children develop frequent episodes of ARI. What measures will you take for prevention and control of ARI amongst under-five children in that area?
(a) Case management and Health education to mothers (b) Vaccination
(c) Controlling malnutrition, Promoting breast feeding and vitamin A supplementation (d) All of these
Ans: D
61. The following are objectives of Indian Public Health Standards for Primary Health Centres except:
(a) Provision of comprehensive primary health care (b) Achievement of an acceptable quality of health care
(c) Provision of accident and emergency care (d) Making services more responsive to the needs of the community
Ans: C
62. A pregnant woman in third trimester having fever was diagnosed as a case of Falciparum malaria. Under the National Health Programme, which drug is recommended?
(a) ACT only (b) ACT accompanied by single dose of Primaquine on day 2
(c) Only Quinine (d) Chloroquine
Ans: A
63. Which of the following genetic disorders leads to mental retardation?
(a) Haemophilia (b) Phenylketonuria (c) Cystic fibrosis (d) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans: B
64. Biomedical waste from a yellow plastic bag is disposed by:
(a) Autoclaving (b) Microwaving (c) Incineration (d) Chemical treatment
Ans: C
65. Which of the following is not a feature of heat stress?
(a) Hyperpyrexia (b) Syncope (c) Cramps (d) Numbness
Ans: D
66. A 20 year old male is diagnosed as a case of dengue fever at a Primary Health Centre. What are the suitable measures to be taken for the prevention and control of dengue in that area?
(a) Case management for DF and DHF and vaccination
(b) Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes
(c) Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes and vaccination
(d) Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes and environmental measures for elimination of breeding places
Ans: D
67. WHO defines a multi-drug resistant (MDR) Tuberculosis strain as one that is:
(a) At least resistant to INH (b) At least resistant to Rifampicin
(c) Resistant to INH and Rifampicin with or without resistant to other anti TB drugs (d) Resistant to Streptomycin only
Ans: C
68. Which of the following are the characteristic features of screening tests?
1. Done on healthy people 2. Done on unhealthy people 3. More accurate 4. Less accurate 5. Less expensive 6. More expensive 7. Not a basis for treatment 8. Used as a base for treatment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2, 4, 5 and 8 (b) 1, 3, 5 and 8 (c) 2, 3, 6 and 7 (d) 1, 4, 5 and 7
Ans: D
69. Which National Programe came into existence during 11th Five Year Plan?
(a) National Cancer control programme
(b) National Cardiovascular diseases & Stroke control programme
(c) National Diabetes and Cancer control programme
(d) National Programme for prevention and control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke
Ans: D
70. Which states are qualified as high prevalence states in the context of HIV/AIDS?
(a) When prevalence in high risk groups is more than 5%, and less than 1% in antenatal women
(b) When prevalence in high risk groups is more than 5%, and 1% or more in antenatal women
(c) When prevalence in high risk groups is less than 5%, and more than 1% in antenatal women
(d) None of these
Ans: B
71. Consider the following diseases:
1. Yellow fever
2. Q fever
3. Chikungunya fever
4. Relapsing fever
5. Japanese encephalitis
6. Sleeping sickness
Which of the above are transmitted by mosquitoes?
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 6
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 4, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: D
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