NURSING- PAGE 5

NURSING MCQ- PAGE 5

1. What is the causative organism of small pox ?
A) Rubella B) Varicella Zoster
C) Retrovirus D) Variola
Ans: D

2. What is the other name of domiciliary midwifery ?
A) Homecare B) Home confinement
C) Antenatal care D) Home visit
Ans: B

3. Scabies is a skin disease caused by
A) Soft ticks B) Itch mite
C) Rodents D) Larvae
Ans: B

4. The causative organism of mumps
A) Varicella zoster B) Rubeola
C) Rubella D) Paramyxovirus
Ans: D

5. What is the permanent termination method in males ?
A) Tubectomy B) Diaphragm
C) Vasectomy D) Condom
Ans: C

6. Poliomyelitis is a _____________ infection.
A) Fungal B) Bacterial
C) Protozoa D) Viral
Ans: D

7. Hepatitis B is otherwise known as
A) Viral hepatitis B) Serum hepatitis
C) Bacterial hepatitis D) None of the above
Ans: B

8. Nurse should monitor patient’s heart rate or pulse rate during removal of fecal impaction, because he/she may develop
(A) Sweating and hypotension       (B) Tachycardia and hypotension    (C) Internal haemorrhage       (D) Bradycardia due to vagal stimulation
Ans: D

9. In the care of a child with Kawasaki disease, which of the following must be the priority ?
(A) Observe vital signs every 8 hr    (B) Monitor intake and output every hour   (C) Encourage range of motion exercise                     (D) Minimize skin discomfort
Ans: B

10. Which of the following assessment indicate the effectiveness of external chest compressions, during cardiopulmonary resuscitation ?   (A) Palpable pulse (B) Pupillary dilation                 (C) Cold dry skin (D) Mottling of the skin
Ans: A

11. Which problem a nurse would expect in a patient with acute pancreatitis ?
(A) Ascites (B) Hypertension                 (C) Jaundice                                 (D) Diarrhoea
Ans: C

12. What would be the most appropriate concern about diet for an older infant with cystic fibrosis ?
(A) High calorie diet (B) Low protein diet                  (C) High fat diet            (D) Low carbohydrate diet
Ans: A

13. In which of the following condition, a nurse can anticipate the risk for ARDS in the patient ?
(A) Asthma   (B) Heart failure                      (C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease       (D) Septic shock
Ans: D

14. Captopril, an ACE inhibitor has been administered to a patient with heart failure, because it acts as
(A) Potassium sparing diuretic (B) Volume expander                        (C) Vasodilator                          (D) Vasopressor
Ans: C

15. The goal of nursing care for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia is the prevention of
(A) Liver failure (B) Haemorrhage                               (C) Renal failure (D) Arrhythmias
Ans: B

16. In the immediate post operative period of bilateral adrenalectomy, nurse should realize the probable cause of temperature elevation as
(A) Dehydration (B) Urinary tract infection                   (C) Wound infection (D) Poor lung expansion
Ans: D

17. Which of the following problem indicate suctioning in an infant with Tracheoesophageal fistula ?
(A) Sub sternal retractions (B) Increased respiratory rate           (C) Brassy cough                          (D) Decreased activity level
Ans: A

18. After subtotal thyroidectomy important observation for prevention of thyroid storm is
(A) Hoarseness (B) Bradycardia                       (C) Elevated body temperature (D) Tetany
Ans: C

19. Which of the following anticonvulsant is the first line analgesic agent for neuropathic pain ?
(A) Sodium valproate (B) Carbamazepine                     (C) Pregabalin        (D) Diazepam
Ans: C

20. The hydrostatic pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis is
(A) Oncotic pressure (B) Osmotic pressure               (C) Osmotic dieresis    (D) Filtration
Ans: B

21. Common abnormality associated with development peripheral vascular disease is
(A) Low serum potassium (B) Low serum lipids   (C) High serum lipids (D) High serum calcium
Ans: C

22. Infection by a non-pathogenic organism, that occur due to defect in host defence is
(A) Epornithic infection (B) Opportunistic infection                      (C) Enzootic infection (D) Exotic infection.
Ans: B

23. “The secret of National health lies in the homes of the people.” Whose words are this ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Florence Nightingale   (C) Aristotle (D) Vikram Patel
Ans: B

24. Normal urine output in all age groups is
(A) 2 ml/kg/hr (B) 0.5 ml/kg/hr   (C) 1 ml/kg/hr (D) 500 ml/day
Ans: C

25. Radio carpal joint is an example of
(A) Condyloid joint (B) Hinge joint                         (C) Saddle joint (D) Pivot joint
Ans: A

26. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of dumping syndrome ?
(A) Diaphoresis (B) Heart burn                               (C) Vomiting (D) Increased hunger
Ans: A

27. C-Reactive protein, a substance related to inflammatory process, is produced in
(A) Bone marrow (B) Kidney                                             (C) Liver                                     (D) Spleen
Ans: C

28. During the first trimester of pregnancy, nausea and vomiting occur as an adaptation to the increased level of
(A) Oestrogen (B) Leutinising hormone             (C) Progesterone (D) Chorionic gonado tropin
Ans: D

29. Epidemiology is concerned with
(A) Defined population (B) Cases/Diseases                     (C) Diagnosis of disease (D) Treatment and prognosis.
Ans: A

30. The most abundant tissue within human body is
(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Connective tissue                  (C) Neurons (D) Muscle
Ans: B

31. Which of the following is an example of Benzodiazepine ?
(A) Doxepine (B) Chlordiazepoxide                     (C) Clomipramine.                    (D) Clozapine
Ans: B

32. Most important dietary modification for a patient with Miniere’s disease is
(A) High protein diet (B) Low fat diet                               (C) Low carbohydrate diet (D) Low sodium diet
Ans: D

33. Nurse shows unconditional acceptance to a patient and views him as a worthwhile person with unique nature. Which of the following characteristic is being conveyed by the nurse ?
(A) Empathy (B) Trust                                  (C) Respect (D) Genuineness
Ans: C

34. The term used for reduced visual acuity in one eye, that results from strabismus is
(A) Amblyopia (B) Emmetropia                    (C) Myopia                               (D) Hyperopia
Ans: A

35. If blood-pressure assessment is done repeatedly in a quick manner, which will be the error that can occur ?
(A) Low systolic and diastolic readings
(B) Erroneously high systolic or low diastolic readings
(C) Low systolic and high diastolic readings
(D) Erroneously high systolic and diastolic readings
Ans: B

36. Which of the following is not a predisposing factor of aphthous ulcer ?
(A) Stress (B) Viral infections                       (C) Smoking        (D) Vitamin deficiency
Ans: C

37. One of the following drug that is used as an adjuvant analgesic is :
(A) Morphine sulfate (B) Piroxicam                                 (C) Diclofenac soium (D) Amitriptyline
Ans: D

38. The most common ECG finding in rheumatic fever with carditis is
(A) T- wave elevation (B) First degree A-V block             (C) T-wave inversion (D) Second degree heart block
Ans: B

39. Patients with chronic lung disorder require oxygen supplement. How much oxygen will be safe to these patients ?
(A) 2 litre/min per nasal cannula     (B) 3 litre/min per nasal cannula              (C) 6 litre/min per facemask   (D) 8 litre /min through non-rebreathing mask
Ans: A

40. Positive reinforcer is advised in behaviour therapy, because
(A) It increases the chance of repetition of specific behaviour .   (B) It always result in positive behaviour.   (C) It always prevent negative behaviour.   (D) It decreases the probability of repetition of specific behaviour.
Ans: A

41. Which of the following patient need observation of apical pulse ?
(A) Post operative patient (B) Patient with arrhythmia                (C) Patient in shock (D) Patient with wide pulse pressure
Ans: B

42. For a toddler, which of the nursing diagnosis is most applicable ?
(A) Risk for infection (B) Risk for injury                               (C) Risk for suffocation (D) Risk for poisoning
Ans: D

43. While using RYB colour code of wound care, the goal in the care of black wound is
(A) Covering with wet dressing    (B) Cleaning and hydrogel dressing        (C) Debridement                                                     (D) No need of further treatment and care
Ans: C

44. A nursing student who has been overloaded with hospital duty, study and family matters may experience
(A) Role ambiguity (B) Role strain                                     (C) Role conflict (D) Role enhancement
Ans: C

45. Harsh crowing sound made on inhalation due to constriction of upper airway is
(A) Stridor                                   (B) Resonance                               (C) Granting (D) Crepitation
Ans: A

46. Which of the following is the side-effect of psychotropic drug that block the reuptake of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine ?
(A) Dry mouth (B) Sexual dysfunction                     (C) Blurred vision                       (D) Constipation
Ans: B

47. Oxytocin challenge test is ordered for a primi mother, 2 weeks after her expected care of confinement. This test is ordered to assess   (A) Fetal age (B) Maternal uterine irritability          (C) Maternal wellbeing              (D) Fetal wellbeing
Ans: D

48. Which of the following is not a tuberculin test ?
(A) Mantoux test (B) Heaf test                                       (C) Tine multiple puncture test (D) Coccidioidin test
Ans: D

49. During conversation, a person falls asleep. Which disorder will you suspect in him ?
(A) Somniloquy (B) Hypersomnia     (C) Bruxism (D) Narcolepsy
Ans: D

50. Wound drainage that consists of many RBCs and looks like blood is
(A) Sanguineous drainage (B) Sero-sanguineous drainage         (C) Serous drainage (D) Purulent drainage
Ans: A

51. In a patient, after bone marrow biopsy, which will be the specific observation a nurse must do ?
(A) Observe for pain.       (B) Assist the patient to be in the right side lying position.   (C) Assess for bleeding and hematoma formation.      (D) Observe for dyspnoea and cough.
Ans: C

52. Which of the following drug is prefered to treat Tourette’s disorder ?
(A) Methyl phenidate (B) Haloperidol                                 (C) Phenytoin sodium (D) Imipramine
Ans: B

53. Which of the following point must be emphasized while giving health education to a patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus ( SLE) ?
(A) Cortico steroids can be stopped if the symptoms are controlled.       (B) Alopacia that occur in SLE is irreversible.   (C) Over exposure to sunlight can exacerbate the symptoms.      (D) A low protein and low potassium diet.
Ans: C

54. A newly registered client in the mental health clinic has been diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder. Which medication will be mostly preferred ?
(A) Olanzapine (B) Diazepam                                                (C) Alprazolam                             (D) Fluoxetine
Ans: D

55. Based on the concept of physiology, the most common cause of obesity is
(A) Consumption of more calories than expended   (B) Low basal metabolic rate   (C) Endocrine dysfunction      (D) Lack of knowledge on nutrition
Ans: A

56. Which of the following accurately indicates true labour ?
(A) Vaginal bleeding (B) Labour pain                                 (C) Rupture of membrane    (D) Progressive dilation of cervix
Ans: D

57. A poly substance abuser says, “Blue birds make me good after speed”. What will be the nurse’s interpretation ?
(A) Client abuses anxiolytics and amphetamine    (B) Client abuses alcohol and cocaine   (C) Client abuses narcotics and marijuana    (D) Client is psychotic
Ans: A

58. Skin and sclera of a baby born at night became yellow by the next day morning and serum bilirubin is 15 mg/ l00 ml. What should the nurse plan for dealing this ?
(A) Prepare for phototherapy.    (B) Inform the physician and plan for exchange transfusion.   (C) Observe for clay coloured stool.      (D) Observe for vomiting and diarrhoea.
Ans: B

59. While caring a patient with infectious mononucleosis, which of the following precaution should be practiced to prevent spread of disease ?
(A) Complete isolation precautions      (B) Enteric isolation precaution              (C) Respiration isolation only                                  (D) Good hand washing technique only.
Ans: D

60. Which of the following statement is correct about Cholera ?
(A) Cholera is only an epidemic.    (B) Vibrio cholera can not be killed by boiling for seconds.   (C) Vibrio cholera is destroyed in stomach if the pH is more than 5.   (D) Vibrio cholera can remain in ice for 4 – 6 weeks and more.
Ans: D

61. Actions that halts the progress of a disease at its initial stage, management and prevention of complication is termed as
(A) Rehabilitation (B) Primordial prevention             (C) Tertiary prevention   (D) Secondary prevention
Ans: D

62. Primary observation of signs of impending kernicterus in a newborn baby with high bilirubin include
(A) Cyanosis and respiratory distress      (B) Rapid pulse and diaphoresis       (C) Lethargy and loss of moro reflex                             (D) Abdominal distention
Ans: C

63. Most prominent feature in catatonic schizophrenia is
(A) Delusions (B) Motor and volitional disturbance          (C) Hallucination (D) Silly giggling
Ans: B

64. Which of the following can precipitate acute gouty arthritis ?
(A) Excess cigarette smoking (B) Excess alcohol intake             (C) Stress                                (D) Exercise
Ans: B

65. Management of symptomatic hyponatremia is by the intra venous administration of
(A) 3% solution of NaCl (B) Normal saline                         (C) Dextrose saline         (D) Ringer lactate
Ans: A

66. Unequal size pupils in increasing intracranial pressure is due to the pressure effect on
(A) Second cranial nerve (B) Fifth cranial nerve           (C) Third cranial nerve    (D) Seventh cranial nerve
Ans: C

67. Another name for Atonic cerebral palsy (atonic CP) is
(A) Cerebellar cerebral palsy (B) Extrapyramidal CP                  (C) Pyramidal CP                         (D) Mixed type CP
Ans: A

68. The most common co morbid condition in children with bipolar disorder is
(A) Autism    (B) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder              (C) Substance use disorder         (D) Oppositional defiant disorder
Ans: B

69. Earliest sign of phlebitis is
(A) Pain at the access site, erythema and / or oedema       (B) Pain at the access site with palpable venous cord   (C) Pain at the access site, erythema, palpable venous cord and purulent discharge     (D) Erythema at the access site with or without pain.
Ans: D

70. Which of the following drug is not an epidural anaesthetic ?
(A) Lignocaine hydrochloride      (B) Bupivacaine hydrochloride        (C) Reprovacaine hydrochloride                                  (D) Fentanyl
Ans: D

71. Increased pH, increased HCO3-, increased or normal PaCO2 in an arterial blood gas analysis indicates
(A) Metabolic alkalosis      (B) Respiratory acidosis                   (C) Respiratory alkalosis                                    (D) Metabolic acidosis
Ans: A

72. The most accurate method of observation of body temperature for the baby who receives oxygen through oxygen tent is
(A) Axillary temperature (B) Skin heat sensor                (C) Rectal temperature (D) Oral thermometer
Ans: C

73. Among the fetal blood vessels, highest oxygen content is seen in
(A) Ductus arteriosus (B) Ductus venosus                 (C) Pulmonary artery (D) Umbilical artery
Ans: B

74. Cloudy CSF obtained in lumbar puncture is an indicator of
(A) Increase glucose level (B) Normal CSF                (C) Increased protein (D) Increased white blood cell count
Ans: D

75. The basic emotional task of a school child is
(A) Industry (B) Initiative                             (C) Independence (D) Trust
Ans: A

76. Normal pH value of mixed venous blood is
(A) 7.35 – 7.45 (B) 7.45 – 7.5                                (C) 7.32 – 7.42 (D) 7.25 – 7.35
Ans: C

77. In which position the nurse must stand for palpating a patient with lymph adenopathy in neck ?
(A) At patient’s back side (B) At patient’s right side              (C) In front of the patient       (D) At patient’s left side
Ans: A

78. In a man with complete transection of spinal cord at the L3 level. Primary responsibility of the nurse is to observe for symptoms of
(A) Hypertensive crisis (B) Respiratory insufficiency              (C) Spinal shock    (D) Autonomic hyper reflexia
Ans: C

79. A primi mother is admitted five days prior to the expected date of confinement, with ruptured membranes. Nurse notices a loop of cord prolapses through vagina during active labour. What the nurse is expected to do ?
(A) Try to replace it (B) Cover it with dry sterile towel            (C) Do not touch it (D) Cover it with clean moist cloth
Ans: D

80. Which of the following is the priority of care for a patient with ulcerative colitis ?
(A) Maintain adequate nutrition     (B) Relieve diarrhoea                    (C) Promote effective coping   (D) Restore body weight
Ans: B

81. For a patient in sickle cell crisis, effective method of relieving joint pain is administration of analgesics along with
(A) Provision of heat (B) Corticosteroids                      (C) Cold compress application (D) Immobilisation
Ans: A

82. Atrial septal defect which have increased association with partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection is
(A) Ostium primum ASD (B) Tricuspid atresia                         (C) Sinus venosus ASD              (D) Ostium secundum ASD.
Ans: C

83. Highly malignant, rapidly growing tumour of cerebellum , seen in children is
(A) Astrocytoma (B) Ependymoma                        (C) Meningioma (D) Medulloblastoma
Ans: D

84. Inactivated polio vaccine is otherwise known as
(A) 17.D vaccine (B) Salk vaccine                    (C) Cell culture vaccine         (D) Sabin vaccine
Ans: B

85. Which of the vaccines must be stored in freezer compartment ?
(A) DPT and DT (B) Polio and Measles vaccines            (C) DPT and TT       (D) Polio and BCG vaccines
Ans: B

86. The Bhore committee was set up in the year
(A) 1951 (B) 1948                                    (C) 1943 (D) 1982
Ans: C

87. Dextrose insulin IV infusion is indicated in the management of
(A) Hyperkalemia (B) Hypoglycemia                    (C) Cerebral oedema        (D) Diabetic keto acidosis
Ans: A

88. The ratio for giving external chest compression and breathing in CPR :
(A) 30 : 2 (B) 15 : 2 (C) 30 : 4 (D) 15 : 4
Ans: A

89. First aid for strong acid and alkali poisoning :
(A) Gastric lavage (B) Tickling back of pharynx by finger (C) Swallowing concentrated salt solution (D) Do not induce vomiting
Ans: D

90. Approximate weight of the placenta at term :
(A) 1/4th of baby’s wt (B) 1/6th of baby’s wt (C) 1/7th of baby’s wt (D) 1/3rd of baby’s wt
Ans: B

91. The part of fetal circulation which becomes fossa ovalis after birth :
(A) Umbilical arteries (B) Ductus arteriosus (C) Foramen ovale (D) Umbilical vein
Ans: C

92. Which of the following condition of a pregnant women needs immediate attention ?
(A) Epigastric pain (B) Pain radiating to back (C) Cramps (D) Heart burn
Ans: A

93. Which among these is a sign/symptom of impending labour ?
(A) Lightening (B) Quickening (C) Braxton hicks contraction (D) Tightening
Ans: A

94. Drug of choice for the management of eclampsia :
(A) Diazepam (B) Epsolin (C) Magnesium sulphate (D) Labetalol
Ans: C

95. A nurse in a labour room should do this measure to prevent prolonged labour to a patient :
(A) be with the patient (B) maintaining partograph (C) giving oxytocin (D) assessing maternal and fetal vital signs
Ans: B

96. Technique used by a midwife in 2nd stage of labour to facilitate delivery over an intact perineum :
(A) Ironing out (B) Bearing down effort (C) Fundal pressure (D) Episiotomy
Ans: A

97. The measure which is done to manage shoulder dystocia :
(A) Burns Marshall Manoeuvre (B) Lovset Manoeuvre (C) Mauriceau-Smellie-Viet Manoeuvre (D) Mac Robert’s Manoeuvre
Ans: D

98. The most heat sensitive vaccine which should be stored at −208C :
(A) DPT vaccine (B) Hepatitis vaccine (C) Polio vaccine (D) Measles vaccine
Ans: C

99. Apgar scoring done at which time period has more predictive value of neonatal well being ?
(A) 1st min (B) 10th min (C) 5th min (D) 15th min
Ans: C

100. Damage of 7th or 8th cervical or thoracic nerve roots leads to :
(A) Facial palsy (B) Erb’s palsy (C) Klumpke’s palsy (D) Bells palsy
Ans: C

​NURSING- PAGE 5

NURSING MCQ- PAGE 5

UPSC Study Materials​MCQs for Competitive Examinations

NURSING- PAGE 5

UPSC Study Materials
MCQs for Competitive Examinations