RADIOTHERAPHY- PAGE 3

RADIOTHERAPHY MCQs- PAGE 3

1:-Total thickness of polyester base x-ray film
A:-0.2 to 0.4 mm
B:-0.4 to 0.6 mm
C:-0.6 to 0.8 mm
D:-0.8 to 10 mm
Ans: A

2:-Single sided films are used in which of the following condition ?
A:-Mammography
B:-IVU
C:-Barium enema
D:-RGU
Ans: A

3:-Size of dental occlusal film
A:-57 mm × 76 mm
B:-77 mm × 94 mm
C:-47 mm × 68 mm
D:-80 mm × 98 mm
Ans: A

4:-All are sizes of screen type x-ray film except
A:-13 × 18 cm
B:-18 × 24 cm
C:-15 × 24 cm
D:-24 × 30 cm
Ans: C

5:-Over exposure corresponds to which part of characteristic curve of a typical medical x-ray film ?
A:-Toe
B:-Straight ln.
C:-Shoulder
D:-Base
Ans: C

6:-Who was the founder director of Regional Cancer Center, Trivandrum ?
A:-M. Krishnan Nair
B:-K. Krishnan Nair
C:-B. Rajan
D:-R. Krishnan Nair
Ans: A

7:-A 69 years old patient presents with weight loss of 10kg, fatigue and abdominal pain. Investigations show amass in the right colon, widespread liver metastases and 3 lung nodules. Investigations show Hb 110 g/L, WCC 8×109/I, alkaline phosphatase 562 U/I, albumin 25. He is unable to continue with his hobby of woodwork but otherwise is self-caring. Which of the following would influence his management
A:-His Hb level, performance status and weight loss
B:-His performance status weight loss and albumin level
C:-His albumin level, alkaline phosphatase and age
D:-His albumin level, weight loss and alkaline phosphatase
Ans: C

8:-STAR trial was for which malignancy ?
A:-Renal cell carcinoma
B:-Breast cancer
C:-Skin cancer
D:-Pancreas cancer
Ans: A

9:-In COMBARZ trial, the drugs compared were
A:-Sorafenib vs Sunitinib
B:-Sunitinib vs Pazopanib
C:-Pazopanib vs Axitinib
D:-Sunitinib vs Sirolimus
Ans: B

10:-Risk of malignancy index incorporates all EXCEPT
A:-USS findings
B:-Pre-operative CA125
C:-Menopausal status
D:-Age
Ans: D

11:-With regard to the traffic light system in the use of Trastuzumb which is wrong
A:-A green light indicates LVEF above the LLN, no signs or symptoms of CHF and any trastuzumab-related LVEF decrease being <0.10
B:-An amber light indicates LVEF between the LLN and 0.40, with no signs or symptoms of CHF, or a trastuzumab-related LVEF reduction of 0.1 or more
C:-A red light indicates LVEF ≤0.40 and symptoms and signs of cardiac failure
D:-Both amber and red are indications for the initiation of ACE inhibitors and referral to cardiology for the optimization of cardiac function
Ans: C

12:-Which is not a correct match ?
A:-Oct 3/4-Germ cell tumours
B:-Cyclin D1-Mantle cell lymphoma
C:-CD10-Burkitts lymphoma
D:-CK20-Endometrial cancer
Ans: D

13:-In which of the following tumors does survival increase with increasing age ?
A:-Glioblastoma multiforme
B:-Oligodendroglioma
C:-Anaplastic astrocytoma
D:-Brainstem glioma
Ans: D

14:-Deletion of 1p and 19q in oligodendroglioma is associated with
A:-Better response to therapy but similar progression-free and overall survival
B:-Better response to therapy with improved progression-free but similar overall survival
C:-Similar response to therapy with improved progression-free and overall survival
D:-Better response to therapy with improved progression-free and overall survival
Ans: D

15:-All of the following are true regarding the etiology of melanoma, except
A:-Ultraviolet exposure is related to the development of melanoma
B:-Carriers of the CDKN2A mutation have a 70% chance of developing melanoma by age 90
C:-Half of those with melanoma possess the CDKN2A mutation
D:-An increasing number of nevi also increase the risk for melanoma
Ans: C

16:-GORTEC 94-01 demonstrated a benefit to concurrent chemoradiation over radiation alone in advanced oropharynx cancer in terms of
A:-Local control but not overall survival benefit
B:-Local control and overall survival benefit
C:-Local control and distant-metastasis-free benefit
D:-There was no benefit
Ans: B

17:-According to a meta-analysis by Fried et al. regarding the timing of thoracic radiotherapy in addition to chemotherapy, which of the following constituents "early" thoracic radiotherapy ?
A:-Beginning within 7 weeks of starting chemotherapy
B:-Beginning within 8 weeks of starting chemotherapy
C:-Beginning within 9 weeks of starting chemotherapy
D:-Beginning within 10 weeks of starting chemotherapy
Ans: C

18:-Which among the following is incorrect with regard to the government schemes for cancer and other patients?
A:-Karunya Benevolent Fund a Kerala Government Scheme
B:-RSBY-CHIS PLUS is a Central Government Scheme
C:-The total cashless service is Rs. 1 lakh for RSBY-CHIS PLUS
D:-Karunya Benevolent Fund incorporates renal disease patients as well
Ans: B

19:-What is the pain score to start step 3 analgesics ?
A:->6
B:->7
C:->8
D:->5
Ans: A

20:-Which of the following is the most frequent metastatic region in pancreatic cancer ?
A:-Liver-lung
B:-Peritoneum-liver
C:-Liver-bone
D:-Lung-bone
Ans: B

21:-As per RTOG 0933 dosage guideline the constraint for hippocampus is
A:-D100% `<=` 9 Gy, Maximum dose `<=` 16 Gy
B:-D100% `<=` 10Gy, Maximum dose `<=` 16 Gy
C:-D100% `<=` 12 Gy, Maximum dose `<=` 16 Gy
D:-D100% `<=` 10Gy, Maximum dose `<=` 14Gy
Ans: A

22:-Which is NOT an advantage with regard to hyperfractionation ?
A:-Lower OER with small doses
B:-Destroys more tumor cells
C:-Allows reoxygenation
D:-Allows stem cell repopulation
Ans: B

23:-Unit if NSD expression
A:-Rem
B:-Ret
C:-Rad
D:-No unit
Ans: B

24:-Alpha by beta experimental value of testis is
A:-10-11
B:-12-13
C:-9-10
D:-13-14
Ans: B

25:-Majority of tumour cells have a diameter of
A:-10-20 micrometer
B:-20-30 micrometer
C:-30-40 micrometer
D:-Less than 10 micrometer
Ans: B

26:-With regard to molecular basis of blood vessel branching in tumour angiogenesis which is not a correct match with regard to the key molecular player involved in it
A:-Loosening junction - VE cadherin
B:-Matrix remodeling-MMPs
C:-Pericyte detachment-NOTCH
D:-Stalk elongation-ANG-2
Ans: D

27:-S.I unit of radiation exposure
A:-Roentgen
B:-Rem
C:-Rad
D:-None of the above
Ans: D

28:-In gamma knife the unit centre point is how much distance away from each `Co^(60)` source
A:-30 cm
B:-40 cm
C:-50 cm
D:-60 cm
Ans: B

29:-Which is false with regard to 6MV photon beam ?
A:-Depth of maximum dose = 1.5 cm
B:-10 cm PDD = 61%
C:-Small penumbra
D:-Horns (beam intensity off-axis) due to flattening filter design is approximately 9%
Ans: B

30:-With regard to composition of Lipowitz metal which is wrong
A:-13.3% tin
B:-50% bismuth
C:-3+6.7% lead
D:-10% cadmium
Ans: C

31:-With regard to radiation treatment of patients with cardiac pacemakers which is wrong
A:-Pacemaker-implanted patients should never be treated with a betatron.
B:-Always keep the pacemaker outside the machine-collimated radiation beam, both during treatment and when taking portal films
C:-Before treatment, estimate and record the dose (from scatter) to be received by the pacemaker. The total accumulated dose should not exceed approximately 1 Gy
D:-If treatment with these guidelines is not possible the physician should consider having the pacemaker either temporarily of permanently moved before irradiation
Ans: C

32:-With respect to interaction of electron beam with bone which is false ?
A:-The isodose contours in the shadow of the bone are shifted proximally
B:-Dose outside (inside) the bone-water interface increases (decreases) by approximately 15% as a result of loss of side scatter equilibrium
C:-The lateral dimension of the region having its dose perturbed by the bone increases with depth
D:-Maximum dose increase expected as a result of back scattered electrons is 5% and the maximum dose increase expected inside bone and in adjacent exit tissue is approximately 7%
Ans: B

33:-Wrong about hot spot as per ICRU Report 62
A:-Volume outside PTV
B:-It receives dose >100% of specified PTV dose
C:-15mm diameter
D:-At least 2 `cm^(2)` in a section
Ans: D

34:-The difference between the volume enclosed by the external contour of the patient and that of the CTVs and OARs on the slice that have been imaged is
A:-Treated volume
B:-PRV
C:-Modified PTV
D:-None of the above
Ans: D

35:-Which of the following is not correct for Rando phantoms ?
A:-They are used for determining the radiation absorption and reflection characteristics of the human body or a specific organ
B:-The phantom is made of human tissue-equivalent materials to work with only for x-rays
C:-The bones in the phantom are real human bones and the same cavities are present as in the human body
D:-Phantom slice are 2.5 cm thick each. There are 3× 3 `cm^2` dosimetric spaces in each slice for TLD
Ans: B

36:-What is the flexure dose ?
A:-Alpha/beta × 0.1
B:-Alpha/beta × 0.2
C:-Alpha/beta × 0.37
D:-Alpha/beta × 0.63
Ans: A

37:-Which of the following match-ups is not correct concerning tissue and organ response to radiation ?
A:-Michalowski-flexible vs. hierarchical and alpha by beta ratio
B:-Rubin and Casarett-proliferation kinetics
C:-Ancel and Vintemberger-biological stress
D:-Bergonie and Tribondeau-differentiation and mitotic activity
Ans: A

38:-Which of the following statements is not correct concerning synovial sarcoma ?
A:-It originates from tenosynovial or mesothelial tissues
B:-More than 50% of cases are seen in the upper extremities
C:-Synovial sarcomas are associated with characteristics chromosomal translocations, t(X ; 18) (p11.2 ; q11.2)
D:-They are generally seen in young adults and almost all are a high grade
Ans: B

39:-Which of the following is not correct for anal canal anatomy ?
A:-The anatomical anal canal lies between the anal verge and dentate line
B:-The surgical anal canal is a 3-4-cm section localized between the anal verge and anorectal ring
C:-The anorectal ring is the proximal end point of the internal sphincter muscle puborectal muscle complex
D:-The epithelium proximal to the dentate line is a special non-keratinized squamous epithelium with no hair follicles or sweat glands, also called the anoderm
Ans: D

40:-Which of the following studies demonstrated the detrimental effect of post-operative radiotherapy on survival of patients with pancreatic cancer ?
A:-ESPAC-1, 2001
B:-EORTC, 1999
C:-GITSG, 1995
D:-RTOG 97-04
Ans: A

41:-65 year old female presented with vulvar pruritus and a lump in the left groin for further evaluation in gynecology. During the gynecological examination, a fixed 1×1 cm left groin lymphadenopathy was detected as well as a mobile 1×1.5 cm vulvar lesion at the labia minora. In her pelvic MRI, the labia minora lesion was 1.2×1.9 cm without extension to the lower urethra and the lower third of the vagina or anus, in addition to no gross lymphadenopathy except a left inguinal single lumphadenopathy measuring 1×1.5 cm in size. PET CT workup defined the tumor in the vulva and a left-sided single inguinal node without distant metastasis. The biopsy of the vulvar lesion revealed squamous cell carcinoma. What is her FIGO staging ?
A:-Stage IIB
B:-Stage IIA
C:-Stage IIIB
D:-Stage IIIA
Ans: D

42:-The estimated risk of sub-clinical cervical lymph node metastasis is between 20-30% for all the following EXCEPT
A:-T2 floor of mouth
B:-T1 soft palate
C:-T1 pharyngeal wall
D:-T2 supra-glottic larynx
Ans: D

43:-Which of the following do not belong to papillary variant of thyroid cancer classification ?
A:-Insular variant
B:-Encapsulated variant
C:-Follicular variant
D:-Diffuse sclerosing
Ans: A

44:-Which among the following is false with respect of HPV in oropharyngeal cancer ?
A:-HPV-associated oropharyngeal cancers are more likely to occur among men than women (3 : 1)
B:-Most of whom (80%) will not have a smoking history
C:-These Cancers are more common among white individuals than other races, are diagnosed in individuals who are 5 to 10 years younger than HPV-unassociated oropharyngeal cancers
D:-HPV-associated oropharyngeal cancers are characterized frequently as well differentiated non-keratinizing or basaloid in histopathology
Ans: D

45:-In the conventional radiation treatment of hypopharyngeal cancers the anatomical field borders given below are usually followed EXCEPT
A:-Superior-include base of skull
B:-Posterior-in front of vertebral spinous processes
C:-Inferior-lower aspect of cricoid cartilage unless extensive caudal tumor extension
D:-Anterior-flash skin at level of thyroid cartilage
Ans: B

46:-Which of the following is not correct for laryngeal cancers ?
A:-Other malignancies of the larynx such as verrucous, basocellular, fusiform cell carcinomas, adenocarcinoma, adenoidcystic carcinoma and mesenchymal malignancies such as sarcomas are very rare
B:-Synchronous carcinoma incidence in a patient with laryngeal cancer is approximately 15%
C:-The probability of metachronous primary tumor is 5-10%
D:-Laryngeal cancer is the most frequent tumor seen together with another type of malignancy
Ans: B

47:-Which of the following is not correct for oral cavity malignancies ?
A:-Approximately 50% of oral cavity malignancies are located in the lower lip or tongue
B:-Five-year survival is nearly 90% in lip cancers smaller than 2 cm and decreases to 40% in advanced cases
C:-Five-year survival in nearly 90% in stage I tongue cancer and decreases to 10% in stage IV cases
D:-When clinical N(-) tongue cancers are examined histopathologically, pathological lymph node positively is nearly 19%
Ans: D

48:-Which of the following is not correct for esthesioneuroblastoma ?
A:-It can be seen at any age, but 2/3 of patients are between 10 and 34 years of age
B:-It usually appears as a raddish mass
C:-It has a metastastic potential of nearly 20%
D:-Most patients are in early stages at presentation
Ans: D

49:-Which one of the following lung cancers is more strongly associated with smoking ?
A:-Small cell lung cancer
B:-Broncho alveolar cancer
C:-Adenocarcinoma
D:-Squamous cell carcinoma
Ans: A

50:-What is the extensive in-situ component in invasive ductal cancer of breast ?
A:-5%
B:-15%
C:-25%
D:-None of the above
Ans: C

51:-Which of the following should be known to calculate lymph node metastasis risk according to Roach formulas ?
A:-T stage-PSA level
B:-T stage-Gleason score
C:-PSA level-Gleason score
D:-PSA level-age-Gleason score
Ans: C

52:-Where is the H point ?
A:-The tips of ovoids are connected with a horizontal line and 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral from the middle of this line are the H points on the right and left sides
B:-The tips of the ovoids are connected with a horizontal line and 2 cm superior and 3 cm lateral from the middle of this line are the H points on the right and left sides
C:-The tips of the ovoids are connected with a horizontal line and 3 cm superior and 2 cm lateral from the middle of this line are the H points on the right and left sides
D:-The most inferior points of the ovoids are connected with a horizontal line and 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral from the middle of this line are the H points in the right and left sides
Ans: A

53:-Which of the following STSs has a high potential for distant metastasis ?
A:-Myxoid liposarcoma
B:-Infantile fibrosarcoma
C:-Superficial-type MFH
D:-Rhabdomyosarcoma
Ans: D

54:-Which of the following statements is not correct for Merkel cell carcinoma ?
A:-Merkel cell carcinoma originates from the basal layer of the skin and is related with terminal axons
B:-Up to 50-60% of patients develop distant metastasis 10 months after the diagnosis
C:-Merkel cell carcinoma is a highly aggressive and fatal disease
D:-Lymphatic involvement is less than 5%
Ans: D

55:-Which of the following margin matches is not correct for radiotherapeutic planning for skin cancer ?
A:-Recurrent BCC : 0.5 - 1 cm
B:-Morpheaform BCC : 0.5 - 1 cm
C:-Tm > 3 cm SCC : 3 cm
D:-Ulcerative SCC : 2cm
Ans: C

56:-What is the optimal total radiation dose required for immunosuppression and tumoral cell eradication in fractionated TBI regimes ?
A:-2-4 Gy
B:-4-6 Gy
C:-6-8 Gy
D:-8-12 Gy
Ans: D

57:-A 7 year old boy was admitted to the emergency with severe headaches, nausea, and vomiting. His examination revealed decreased upward gaze in addition to inability to focus on objects and double vision. There was abnormal light response during accommodation. He had an MRI demonstrating hydrocephalus with a pineal region mass obstructing the aqueduct of Sylvius. What syndrome is this ?
A:-Parinaud syndrome
B:-Ventral midbrain syndrome
C:-Benedict syndrome
D:-None of these
Ans: A

58:-4 years old boy was brought to the attention of an ophthalmologist because of strabismus and right-sided leukocoria. He was clinically diagnosed as having retinoblastoma and the intraocular mass workup revealed a 13-mm diameter and 11 mm thick tumor with vitreous seeding, as well as sub-retinal seeding more than 4 mm from the tumor. The tumor did not touch the lens and did not involve anterior segment structures such as the ciliary body. He had no neo-vascular glaucoma or opaque media from hemorrhage. His tumor has only caused a minor loss of vision. Which is false ?
A:-The international classification for intraocular retinobalstoma in this case is "C"
B:-Lumbar puncture for CSF evaluation, bone marrow biopsy and a bone scan if the tumor is not confined to the globe are mandatory investigations
C:-This patient is out of brachytherapy limits with vitreous seeding and sub-retinal seeding
D:-Vincristine/Carboplatin/Etoposide (VCE) times 6 cycles and then external beam radiotherapy is the treatment
Ans: A

59:-45-year-old woman with a long history of hyperthyroiditis presents with eyelid retraction, exophthalmos, diplopia and periorbital edema. In her history of illness, she specifically notes that she has had deterioration in her vision over the last 10 days accompanied by diplopia 1 day ago. She has not experienced any loss of color vision or demonstrated corneal involvement, but she has minor visual field defects with blurred vision. She is diagnosed with Graves' disease and thyroid ophthalmopathy. Which of the statement is false ?
A:-There is a threat of impending visual loss, although the color vision is protected. She does not seem to require decompressive surgery, but orbital radiotherapy could be recommended in addition to systemic immunosuppression with oral or IV steroids.
B:-With radiotherapy there is improvement in proptosis, eyelid retraction , or soft tissued chnages which has not been clearly defined
C:-Radiotherapy has been recommended for its efficacy for compressive optic neuropathy, which has not yet been clearly determined
D:-The current recomended external beam radiotherapy dose is 20 Gy (2 Gy/fraction/d)
Ans: B

60:-38 years old male with complaints of non-specific headaches for almost 6 months has been evaluated by neurology. His brain MRI has demonstrated a recent bleeding and a dark flow void surrounding the nidus of an arteriovenous malformation in the thalamus, which was 1.5 cm in size. The angiography confirmed this diagnosis in addition to showing no deep venous drainage. He currently has no neurological symptoms. What is the rough risk of bleeding in his lifetime ?
A:-62%
B:-52%
C:-67%
D:-57%
Ans: C

61:-45 years old male presents for a hip reconstruction operation after a blunt trauma to his femoral prosthesis. In his workup,radiology demonstrated bone spurs from the proximal femur in addition to a ≥ 1 cm gap between the opposing surfaces. The surgeon asks your opinion about prophylaxis of heterotropic ossification in order to choose between a medical or radiotherapy approach. Which is incorrect statement ?
A:-Radiotherapy is a better option according to the results of a meta-analysis analyzing 7 randomized trials
B:-Radiotherapy is approximately thrice as effective as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications
C:-Gain in absolute benefit is shown to be small (<2%)
D:-The recommended dose is 6 or 7 Gy in one fraction
Ans: B

62:-52 years old female has been sent to radiation oncology to be evaluated for keloid prophylaxis following planned forearm surgery because of her keloid scar experience after a cesarean section. Which is correct statement ?
A:-There is currently no real standard. However, experience with post-operative radio therapy is well documented
B:-A recent metaanalysis demonstrated a better decrease in recurrence rates when the biological effective dose is greater than 30 Gy, which results in a recurrence rate of less than 20%
C:-18 Gy in three fractions or 12 Gy in one fraction can be recommended within 7 days of surgery
D:-None of these
Ans: A

63:-Fifty eight year old female has status post-total gastrectomy with stage llla gastric cancer with pT4aN1M0 gastric adenocarcinoma. Which statement is false ?
A:-Chemotherapy (5-FU/LV×1 cycle) followed by chemo radiation (concurrent 5-FU/LV×1 cycle) and adjuvant chemotherapy (5-FU/LV×2 cycles) is a recommended treatment option
B:-Dihydro Pyrimidine Dehydrogenase deficiency (DPD deficiency) an autosomal dominant metabolic disorder may be suspected when the patient has very severe life-threatening toxicity after one cycle of chemotherapy
C:-In case of DPD deficiency a combination of oxaliplatin and docetaxel is a reasonable option
D:-In case of DPD deficiency there is no or significantly decreased activity of the enzyme involved in the metabolism of uracil and thymine. These patients may develop life-threatening toxicity following exposure to 5-FU.
Ans: B

64:-A fine-needle aspiration of the head of the pancreas revealed adenocarcinoma. Based on his imaging studies, he was found to have a 2.5×3.2×2.3 cm uncinate mass in the pancreas, which was encasing the superior mesenteric artery by approximately 180°. The mass is separate from the celiac axis and portal vein and the SMV abuts the mass for less than 90° of its circumference. There appear to be a few lymph nodes in the vicinity workup revealed no distant metastasis. This disease is
A:-Inoperable
B:-Unresectable
C:-Borderline resectable
D:-Needs further details
Ans: C

65:-Which is adverse cytogenetics in AML ?
A:-t(9:22) (q34:q11)
B:-t(15:187) (q22:q21)
C:-t(8:21) (q22:q21)
D:-All the above are adverse
Ans: A

66:-With respect to CNS prophylaxis in acute lymphoblastic leukemia is true ?
A:-It reduces CNS relapse from 30% to 5%
B:-Include CSI of 18-24 Gy in 12 fraction plus IT chemotherapy in induction phase
C:-Intrathecal therapy is not given in maintenance phase while its given in consolidation phase
D:-All are true
Ans: D

67:-In staging of lymphoma the use of A or B is based on the absence or presence of three symptoms respectively. What does "A" stand for ?
A:-It denotes "Ann Arbor" after the person its known
B:-It denotes "Ann Arbor" after the place its known
C:-It denotes both "Ann" after the person its known and "Arbor" after the place its known
D:-None of the above
Ans: D

68:-As per GHSG which among the following is not included in the risk factor for Hodgkin lymphoma ?
A:-Extra nodal disease
B:-≥3 involved nodal regions
C:-Age ≥50 yrs.
D:-Large mediastinal mass
Ans: C

69:-Which is not correct match with regard to international prognostic score for advanced Hodgkin lymphoma ?
A:-Number of risk factors 0-15 yrs. OS 90%
B:-Number of risk factors 2-5 yrs. OS 81%
C:-Number of risk factors 4.7-5 yrs. OS 49%
D:-Number of risk factors 0-15 yrs.freedom from progression 79%
Ans: C

70:-Which infection is not "significant to high" risk in allogeneic stem cell transplant ?
A:-CMV
B:-Aspergillus
C:-Candida
D:-Mucor
Ans: C

71:-Antidote for vinblastine extravasation is
A:-Hydrocortisone
B:-DMSO
C:-No antidote
D:-Hyaluronidase
Ans: D

72:-In chemotherapy extravasation cold compresses are given except in
A:-Carmustine
B:-Dactinomycin
C:-Bendamycin
D:-Cabazitaxel
Ans: D

73:-In Escalated BEACOPP schedule the dose of prednisolone is
A:-40 mg/`m^(2)` /d PO
B:-60 mg/`m^(2)` /d PO
C:-80 mg/`m^(2)` /d PO
D:-100 mg/`m^(2)` /d PO
Ans: A

74:-Which match is wrong with regard to the common diagnostic profile ?
A:-AML-CD 33
B:-T-ALL-CD7
C:-B ALL-CD10
D:-CLL-CD3
Ans: D

75:-Minimum platelet counts required and the intervention which is not correct ?
A:-Lumbar puncture - 50,000/L
B:-Eye surgery - 1 lakh/L
C:-Neurosurgery - 1 lakh/L
D:-Liver biopsy - 80,000/L
Ans: A

76:-What is the half-life of infused coagulation factors V, VII, VIII and protein C in FFP ?
A:-<12 hours
B:-12-24 hours
C:->24 hours
D:->48 hours
Ans: A

77:-Wells criteria is a prediction tool in
A:-DVT
B:-A V Malformation
C:-DIC
D:-Epithelial ovarian malignancy with regard to early detection
Ans: A

78:-Clostridium difficle associated diarrhea which is false ?
A:-Pseudomembranous exudates
B:-Pancolitis
C:-Most severely affected is sigmoid colon and rectum
D:-Clostridium difficle toxins A/B in stool is not usually sufficient for diagnosis
Ans: D

79:-MASCC scoring index in febrile neutropenia. Which is incorrect score ?
A:-Burden of illness no or mild symptoms-5
B:-No dehydration-3
C:-No hypotension-4
D:-No COPD-4
Ans: C

80:-Which is not an equi-analgesic dose ?
A:-30 mg morphine
B:-8 microgram fentanyl patch
C:-30-45 mg hydrocodone
D:-8 mg SR hydromorphone
Ans: D

81:-Which is incorrect with regard to the use of Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) for treatment of thromboembolism ?
A:-Enoxaparin-1mg/kg twice daily
B:-Dalteprin 200U/kg twice daily
C:-Activity of LMWH is measured in units of factor X inactivation
D:-Dalteprin is more effective in reducing the risk of recurrent thromboembolism
Ans: B

82:-Regarding antineoplastic drugs and incidence of left ventricular dysfunction which is incorrect match
A:-Doxorubicin 400 mg/`m^(2)`-7 to 26%
B:-Ifosfamide-17%
C:-Epirubicin-0.9 to 3.3%
D:-All are true
Ans: A

83:-Damocles syndrome is usually seen in
A:-Cancer survivors
B:-Cancer patients immediately knowing after diagnosis of disease
C:-Cancer patients who has not responded to the initial treatment
D:-Close relative of cancer patient having fear of cancer in him as well
Ans: A

84:-As per ASTRO consensus patient not ideal for APBI off trial
A:-Age ≥60 yrs.
B:-surgical margin at least 2 mm
C:-Clinically unifocal with total size ≤ 2.0 cm
D:-Pure DCIS ≤3 cm in size
Ans: D

85:-Which is considered highest risk site in squamous cell carcinoma ?
A:-Ear
B:-Nose
C:-Eyelid
D:-Scalp
Ans: A

86. In fluorescence, there is :
(A) Increase in wavelength of emitted radiation
(B) Decrease in wavelength of emitted radiation
(C) No change in wavelength of emitted radiation
(D) Both increase and decrease in wavelength of emitted radiation
Ans: A

87. What is the treatment of choice for stage III Ca Cervix ?
(A) Chemotherapy (B) Radiotherapy
(C) Chemoradiotherapy (D) Surgery
Ans: C

88. What is the surgery of choice for a patient with Ca Breast T2 N0 M0 ?
(A) Modified Radical Mastectomy (B) MRM+Axillary dissection
(C) Wide local excision (D) WLE+Axillary dissection
Ans: D

89. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substances during their decay ?
(A) Electron (B) Helium nucleus
(C) Proton (D) Neutrino
Ans: C

90. The functional unit of a gene which specifies synthesis of one polypeptide is a :
(A) Recon (B) Codon (C) Cloe (D) Cistron
Ans: D

91. Only maternal immunoglobulin normally transported through placenta is :
(A) IgA (B) IgD (C) IgM (D) IgG
Ans: D

92. What is the screening method for medullary carcinoma of thyroid ?
(A) Serum calcitonin (B) Serum calcium
(C) Serum ALP (D) Serum acid phosphatase
Ans: A

93. Stability of the ankle joints is maintained by all except :
(A) Collateral ligaments (B) Cruciate ligaments
(C) Tendons of muscles attached (D) Close apposition of articular surfaces of bones
Ans: B

94. Process of heat transfer that involves continual emission of infrared waves from surface of bodies and transmission of these waves without aid of medium is known as :
(A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D) None of above
Ans: C

96. Post cricoid carcinoma of the oesophagus are best treated by :
(A) Radiotherapy
(B) Total oesophagectomy
(C) Pharyngolaryngectomy with gastric transposition
(D) Intubation through growth
Ans: A

97. Which of the following tests will provide the best evaluation of the patient with colorectalcancer ?
(A) CA 19 - 9 (B) CA 125
(C) CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) (D) AFP (alpha-foetoprotein)
Ans: C

98. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except :
(A) Deep myometrial invasion (B) Pelvic lymph node involvement
(C) Enlarged uterine cavity (D) Poor tumour differentiation
Ans: C

99. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in :
(A) Tetralogy of Fallot (B) Uncorrected TGA
(C) Tricuspid atresia (D) Ebstein’s anomaly
Ans: B

100. Which of the following is false regarding intraocular retinoblastoma ?
(A) 94% cases are sporadic
(B) Individuals with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their children
(C) Reese Ellsworth classification is used for predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy
(D) Tumour calcification can be detected by an ultrasound scan
Ans: B

RADIOTHERAPHY- PAGE 3

RADIOTHERAPHY MCQs- PAGE 3

UPSC Study Materials​MCQs for Competitive Examinations

UPSC Study Materials
MCQs for Competitive Examinations