MEDICINE - PAGE 7
1) Which one of the following statements about the management of functional dyspepsia is true?
A) Antacids are modestly effective in reducing symptoms
B) Psychological therapies have an established role in treatment.
C) The benefit of helicobacter pylori eradication therapy may be greatest for patients with postprandial fullness.
D) Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline are preferred over selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors for treatment.
Answer: 4
2) Which one of the following statements is true regarding Vasculitis?
A) Associated cardiac disease is typically limited to disorders that affect the small vessels.
B) Cutaneous involvement is generally seen with disorders that affect the large vessels.
C) Skin findings include palpable purpura that may ulcerate.
D) Tests for ANA & ANCA are rarely positive.
Answer: 3
3) Primary antiepileptic drug which should be avoided in patients with pre-existing cardiac disease is:
A) Phenytoin sodium
B) Sodium valproate
C) Carbamazepine
D) Phenobarbitone
Answer: 3
4) Drug of choice to treat early alcohol- related seizure in ICU is:
A) Midazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Phenytoin sodium
D) Lorazepam
Answer: 4
5) All of the following are CNS manifestations of SLE except:
A) Myasthenis gravis
B) Demyelinating syndrome
C) Aseptic meningitis
D) Myelopathy syndrome
Answer: 1
6) Which of the following are the dermatological manifestations of primary Sjogren’s syndrome?
A) Dryness of skin
B) Alopecia
C) Annular erythema
D) All the above
Answer: 4
7) Which is the most common invasive fungal disease in lung transplant recipient?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci
D) Mucormycosis
Answer: 1
8) Which of the following neurologic phenomena is classically associated with herniation of the brain through the foramen magnum?
A) Third nerve compression and ipsilateral papillary dilatation
B) Catatonia
C) “Locked in” state
D) Respiratory arrest
Answer: 4
9) All of the following are side effects of phenytoin except
A) Leucopenia
B) Ataxia
C) Osteomalacia
D) Facial coarsening
Answer: 1
10) Which of the following medicines has been most commonly implicated in development of noninfectious chronic meningitis?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Beta-lactam antibiotics
D) Phenobarbitone
Answer: 2
11) All of the following match the anticoagulant with its correct mechanism of action except
A) Abciximab - GpIIb/IIIa receptor inhibition
B) Clopidogrel - inhibition of thromboxane A2 release
C) Fondaparinux - inhibition of factor Xa
D) Argatroban - thrombin inhibition
Answer: 2
12) All the following types of cancer commonly metastasize to the central nervous system except
A) Ovarian
B) Breast
C) Melanoma
D) Hypernephroma
Answer: 1
13) The cushing response is?
A) Slowing of respiration
B) Decrease of pulse rate
C) Increase in arterial blood pressure
D) Decrease of blood pressure
Answer: 3
14) A 36 year old man with HIV (Cd4+ count 112) develops a scaly, waxy, yellowish, patchy, crusty, pruritic rash on and around his nose. Rest of his skin examination is normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Molluscum contagiosum
B) Psoriasis
C) Reactivation herpes zoster
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Answer: 4
15) Which one of the following podocyte receptors is targeted by an autoantibody associated with primary membranous nephropathy?
A) DDR 1
B) IGF 1R
C) PLA 2R
D) PDGFR
Answer: 3
16) A 40 year patient presented with ABG values – Na+ 140, K + 4.0, Cl- 106, HCO3 - 14, AG 20, PaCO2 24, pH 7.39, the diagnosis is –
A) Metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis
Answer: 2
17) All of the following factors increase the risk for Clostridium difficile-associated disease except
A) Antacids
B) C. difficile colonization
C) Enteral tube feeds
D) Older age
Answer: 2
18) All of the following clinical findings are consistent with severe mitral stenosis except
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Opening snap late after S2
C) Pulsatile liver
D) Right ventricular heave
Answer: 2
19) Acute hyperkalemia is associated with which of the following ECG changes?
A) QRS widening
B) Prolongation of ST segment
C) Decrease in PR interval
D) T wave flattening
Answer: 1
20) Which of the following organisms is unlikely to be found in the sputum of a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Aspergillus fumigates
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Acinetobacter baumannii
Answer: 4
21) A 20 year-old normal non-smoking female has pulmonary embolism while on oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor?
A) Abnormal factor V
B) Abnormal protein C
C) Reduced protein C level
D) Reduced protein S level
Answer: 1
22) Which of the following is the most potent stimulus for hypothalamic production of arginine vasopressin?
A) Hypertonicity
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypotonicity
D) Intravascular volume depletion
Answer: 1
23) In patients with chronic renal failure, which of the following is the most important contributor to renal osteodystrophy?
A) Impaired renal production of 1,25-dihydroxy Vitamin D3
B) Hypocalcaemia
C) Hypophosphatemia
D) Loss of Vitamin D and calcium via dialysis
Answer: 1
24) True about intra-hepatic cholestasis of pregnancy:
A) Presents with jaundice in first trimester of pregnancy
B) Treatment of choice is delivery of fetus
C) Associated with maternal mortality rate of upto 20%
D) Bile acid levels are elevated upto 10-25 fold
Answer: 4
25) Febrile neutropenia is defined as
A) Fever > 100 F, ANC < 500
B) Fever > 100 F, ANC > 500
C) Fever > 101 F, ANC < 500
D) Fever >101 F, ANC > 500
Answer: 3
26) Most common type of HIV-1 clade in India is:
A) Clade A
B) Clade B
C) Clade C
D) Clade D
Answer: 3
27) Consensus expert opinion supports the use of which one of the following agents for pharmacologic treatment of anxiety at end of life? A) Atypical antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
Answer: 2
A) Antacids are modestly effective in reducing symptoms
B) Psychological therapies have an established role in treatment.
C) The benefit of helicobacter pylori eradication therapy may be greatest for patients with postprandial fullness.
D) Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline are preferred over selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors for treatment.
Answer: 4
2) Which one of the following statements is true regarding Vasculitis?
A) Associated cardiac disease is typically limited to disorders that affect the small vessels.
B) Cutaneous involvement is generally seen with disorders that affect the large vessels.
C) Skin findings include palpable purpura that may ulcerate.
D) Tests for ANA & ANCA are rarely positive.
Answer: 3
3) Primary antiepileptic drug which should be avoided in patients with pre-existing cardiac disease is:
A) Phenytoin sodium
B) Sodium valproate
C) Carbamazepine
D) Phenobarbitone
Answer: 3
4) Drug of choice to treat early alcohol- related seizure in ICU is:
A) Midazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Phenytoin sodium
D) Lorazepam
Answer: 4
5) All of the following are CNS manifestations of SLE except:
A) Myasthenis gravis
B) Demyelinating syndrome
C) Aseptic meningitis
D) Myelopathy syndrome
Answer: 1
6) Which of the following are the dermatological manifestations of primary Sjogren’s syndrome?
A) Dryness of skin
B) Alopecia
C) Annular erythema
D) All the above
Answer: 4
7) Which is the most common invasive fungal disease in lung transplant recipient?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci
D) Mucormycosis
Answer: 1
8) Which of the following neurologic phenomena is classically associated with herniation of the brain through the foramen magnum?
A) Third nerve compression and ipsilateral papillary dilatation
B) Catatonia
C) “Locked in” state
D) Respiratory arrest
Answer: 4
9) All of the following are side effects of phenytoin except
A) Leucopenia
B) Ataxia
C) Osteomalacia
D) Facial coarsening
Answer: 1
10) Which of the following medicines has been most commonly implicated in development of noninfectious chronic meningitis?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Beta-lactam antibiotics
D) Phenobarbitone
Answer: 2
11) All of the following match the anticoagulant with its correct mechanism of action except
A) Abciximab - GpIIb/IIIa receptor inhibition
B) Clopidogrel - inhibition of thromboxane A2 release
C) Fondaparinux - inhibition of factor Xa
D) Argatroban - thrombin inhibition
Answer: 2
12) All the following types of cancer commonly metastasize to the central nervous system except
A) Ovarian
B) Breast
C) Melanoma
D) Hypernephroma
Answer: 1
13) The cushing response is?
A) Slowing of respiration
B) Decrease of pulse rate
C) Increase in arterial blood pressure
D) Decrease of blood pressure
Answer: 3
14) A 36 year old man with HIV (Cd4+ count 112) develops a scaly, waxy, yellowish, patchy, crusty, pruritic rash on and around his nose. Rest of his skin examination is normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Molluscum contagiosum
B) Psoriasis
C) Reactivation herpes zoster
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Answer: 4
15) Which one of the following podocyte receptors is targeted by an autoantibody associated with primary membranous nephropathy?
A) DDR 1
B) IGF 1R
C) PLA 2R
D) PDGFR
Answer: 3
16) A 40 year patient presented with ABG values – Na+ 140, K + 4.0, Cl- 106, HCO3 - 14, AG 20, PaCO2 24, pH 7.39, the diagnosis is –
A) Metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis
Answer: 2
17) All of the following factors increase the risk for Clostridium difficile-associated disease except
A) Antacids
B) C. difficile colonization
C) Enteral tube feeds
D) Older age
Answer: 2
18) All of the following clinical findings are consistent with severe mitral stenosis except
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Opening snap late after S2
C) Pulsatile liver
D) Right ventricular heave
Answer: 2
19) Acute hyperkalemia is associated with which of the following ECG changes?
A) QRS widening
B) Prolongation of ST segment
C) Decrease in PR interval
D) T wave flattening
Answer: 1
20) Which of the following organisms is unlikely to be found in the sputum of a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Aspergillus fumigates
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Acinetobacter baumannii
Answer: 4
21) A 20 year-old normal non-smoking female has pulmonary embolism while on oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor?
A) Abnormal factor V
B) Abnormal protein C
C) Reduced protein C level
D) Reduced protein S level
Answer: 1
22) Which of the following is the most potent stimulus for hypothalamic production of arginine vasopressin?
A) Hypertonicity
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypotonicity
D) Intravascular volume depletion
Answer: 1
23) In patients with chronic renal failure, which of the following is the most important contributor to renal osteodystrophy?
A) Impaired renal production of 1,25-dihydroxy Vitamin D3
B) Hypocalcaemia
C) Hypophosphatemia
D) Loss of Vitamin D and calcium via dialysis
Answer: 1
24) True about intra-hepatic cholestasis of pregnancy:
A) Presents with jaundice in first trimester of pregnancy
B) Treatment of choice is delivery of fetus
C) Associated with maternal mortality rate of upto 20%
D) Bile acid levels are elevated upto 10-25 fold
Answer: 4
25) Febrile neutropenia is defined as
A) Fever > 100 F, ANC < 500
B) Fever > 100 F, ANC > 500
C) Fever > 101 F, ANC < 500
D) Fever >101 F, ANC > 500
Answer: 3
26) Most common type of HIV-1 clade in India is:
A) Clade A
B) Clade B
C) Clade C
D) Clade D
Answer: 3
27) Consensus expert opinion supports the use of which one of the following agents for pharmacologic treatment of anxiety at end of life? A) Atypical antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
Answer: 2
28:-Biochemical findings of low serum iron, low total iron binding capacity and serum ferritin above 100 ng/ml suggest a diagnosis of
A:-Anemia of chronic disease
B:-Hemochromatosis
C:-Iron deficiency
D:-Sideroblastic anemia
Ans: A
29:-Which of the following antibiotics can be prescribed safety to an asthmatic on theophylline ?
A:-Ciprofloxacin
B:-Erythromycin
C:-Levofloxacin
D:-Clarithromycin
Ans: C
30:-Which of the following is not an indication for the use of Beta Blockers ?
A:-Variant angina
B:-Migraine prophylaxis
C:-Hypertension
D:-Glaucoma
Ans: A
31:-Pontiac fever is caused by
A:-Mycoplasma
B:-Pseudomonas
C:-Coxiella burnetii
D:-Legionella pneumophila
Ans: D
32:-Instruments contaminated by tissues suspected to be infected with a case of CJD are sterilized by all of the following except
A:-Autoclave at `121^(@)c` for 20 minutes
B:-Immerse in 40 g NaOH in 1 litre of water for 1 hour, rinse and autoclave at `121^(@)c` or `134^(@)c` for 1 hour
C:-Autoclave at `132^(@)c` for 1 hour
D:-Immerse in 40 g NaOH in 1 litre of water for 1 hour and autoclave at `132^(@)c` for 1 hour
Ans: A
33:-Sclerotic bodies in KOH preparation is characteristic of
A:-Mucormycosis
B:-Chromoblastomycosis
C:-Histoplasmosis
D:-Trypanosomiasis
Ans: B
34:-The predominant mode of transmission of Hepatitis B virus in high prevalence areas is by
A:-Sexual contact
B:-Perinatal route
C:-Blood transfusion
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
35:-A 45 year old male patient diagnosed to have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with predominant bronchitis component would least likely to have
A:-Appearance of 'Pink puffer'
B:-Cough with copious sputum
C:-Cor pulmonale
D:-Increased airway resistance
Ans: A
36:-A 45 year old uncontrolled diabetic male patient developed swelling at the root of the nose. Biopsy showed a necrotizing areas with the blood vessel walls invaded by broad non septate branching fungal hyphae. Probable fungus would be
A:-Aspergillosis
B:-Candidiasis
C:-Mucormycosis
D:-Rhinosporidiosis
Ans: C
37:-All of the following are characteristics of teratomas except
A:-A malignant component should be present
B:-They arise from totipotential germ cells
C:-They can arise in the ovary
D:-Tissues resembling those from an embryo can be seen
Ans: A
A:-Anemia of chronic disease
B:-Hemochromatosis
C:-Iron deficiency
D:-Sideroblastic anemia
Ans: A
29:-Which of the following antibiotics can be prescribed safety to an asthmatic on theophylline ?
A:-Ciprofloxacin
B:-Erythromycin
C:-Levofloxacin
D:-Clarithromycin
Ans: C
30:-Which of the following is not an indication for the use of Beta Blockers ?
A:-Variant angina
B:-Migraine prophylaxis
C:-Hypertension
D:-Glaucoma
Ans: A
31:-Pontiac fever is caused by
A:-Mycoplasma
B:-Pseudomonas
C:-Coxiella burnetii
D:-Legionella pneumophila
Ans: D
32:-Instruments contaminated by tissues suspected to be infected with a case of CJD are sterilized by all of the following except
A:-Autoclave at `121^(@)c` for 20 minutes
B:-Immerse in 40 g NaOH in 1 litre of water for 1 hour, rinse and autoclave at `121^(@)c` or `134^(@)c` for 1 hour
C:-Autoclave at `132^(@)c` for 1 hour
D:-Immerse in 40 g NaOH in 1 litre of water for 1 hour and autoclave at `132^(@)c` for 1 hour
Ans: A
33:-Sclerotic bodies in KOH preparation is characteristic of
A:-Mucormycosis
B:-Chromoblastomycosis
C:-Histoplasmosis
D:-Trypanosomiasis
Ans: B
34:-The predominant mode of transmission of Hepatitis B virus in high prevalence areas is by
A:-Sexual contact
B:-Perinatal route
C:-Blood transfusion
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
35:-A 45 year old male patient diagnosed to have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with predominant bronchitis component would least likely to have
A:-Appearance of 'Pink puffer'
B:-Cough with copious sputum
C:-Cor pulmonale
D:-Increased airway resistance
Ans: A
36:-A 45 year old uncontrolled diabetic male patient developed swelling at the root of the nose. Biopsy showed a necrotizing areas with the blood vessel walls invaded by broad non septate branching fungal hyphae. Probable fungus would be
A:-Aspergillosis
B:-Candidiasis
C:-Mucormycosis
D:-Rhinosporidiosis
Ans: C
37:-All of the following are characteristics of teratomas except
A:-A malignant component should be present
B:-They arise from totipotential germ cells
C:-They can arise in the ovary
D:-Tissues resembling those from an embryo can be seen
Ans: A
38:-All of the following are agglutination tests except
A:-Widal test
B:-RPR test
C:-Coagulase test
D:-Weil Felix test
Ans: B
39:-Disinfectant of choice in a blood spill is
A:-Gluteraldehyde
B:-Alcohol
C:-Hypochlorite
D:-Chlorhexidine
Ans: C
40:-Pathogenesis of diphtheria is due to
A:-Invasiveness
B:-Toxin
C:-Both 1) and 2)
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
41:-Fibrinoid necrosis is a result of
A:-Fungal infection
B:-Ischaemia
C:-Immune complexes
D:-Tuberculosis
Ans: C
42:-The most frequent chromosomal abnormality in acute promyelocytic leukaemia is
A:-7q deletion
B:-13q deletion
C:-Reciprocal t(15 : 7) q(22 : 12)
D:-Trisomy 21
Ans: C
43:-Beta hydroxyl butryric acid can be tested by
A:-Rothera's test
B:-Hart's test
C:-Gerhart's test
D:-Shipley's test
Ans: B
44:-Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is pathognomonic of
A:-Osteomalacia
B:-Osteoporosis
C:-Osteopetrosis
D:-Osteitis deformans
Ans: D
45:-Which among the following is a CCR5 inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV infection ?
A:-Enfuvirtide
B:-Raltegravir
C:-Atazanavir
D:-Maraviroc
Ans: D
46:-Which of the following drug cause oligospermia ?
A:-D Penicillamine
B:-Leflunomide
C:-Sulfasalazine
D:-Methotrexate
Ans: C
47:-Selective nor adrenalin reuptake inhibitor used in Attention Deficit Hyperkinetic Disorder.
A:-Venlafaxine
B:-Atomoxetine
C:-Duloxetine
D:-Milnacipran
Ans: B
48:-Which among the following is a pure progesterone antagonist ?
A:-Onapristone
B:-Ulipristal
C:-Mifepristone
D:-Ethynodiol
Ans: A
49:-Which is the comprehensive scheme launched in India to combact Child Trafficking by the ministry of Women and Child Development on 04/12/2007 ?
A:-Raksha
B:-Suraksha
C:-Ujjwala
D:-Snehitha
Ans: C
50:-The Framingham heart study is a
A:-Case control study
B:-Cohort study
C:-Descriptive study
D:-Randomized Control Trial
Ans: B
51:-All are temporary social groups except
A:-Crowd
B:-Mob
C:-Herd
D:-Band
Ans: D
52:-Which is the most effective form of chlorine for water disinfection ?
A:-Hydrochloric acid
B:-Hypochlorous acid
C:-Hypochlorite ion
D:-Hydrogen ion
Ans: B
53:-Refractive index of aqueous humour is
A:-1.376
B:-1.336
C:-1.326
D:-1.406
Ans: B
54:-Method of estimating condition of refraction of eye objectively is known as
A:-Keratometry
B:-Ophthalmoscopy
C:-Skiascopy
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
55:-Prodromal symptom of sympathetic ophthalmitis is
A:-Coloured haloes
B:-Transient indistinctness of near vision
C:-Retro orbital pain
D:-Scintillating scotomas
Ans: B
56:-Optic nerve consists of approximately
A:-2.1 million axons
B:-2.5 million axons
C:-1.2 million axons
D:-1.8 million axons
Ans: C
57:-Hertz is the unit used to measure
A:-Pressure
B:-Tone
C:-Frequency
D:-Wavelength
Ans: C
58:-Methods of communication in laryngectomised patients are all except
A:-Esophageal speech
B:-Portex tube
C:-Electrolarynx
D:-Panje prosthesis
Ans: B
59:-Landmark for endolymphatic sac is
A:-Citelli's angle
B:-Digastric ridge
C:-Donaldson's line
D:-McEwen's triangle
Ans: C
60:-Petrositis can result in
A:-Griesinger's syndrome
B:-Grisel's syndrome
C:-Gutzmann's syndrome
D:-Gradenigo's syndrome
Ans: D
61:-Causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis is all except
A:-Renal failure
B:-Hepatic failure
C:-Diabetic ketoacidosis
D:-Salicylate ingestion
Ans: B
62:-Chance of post infectious cerebellitis is highest in
A:-Measles
B:-Diphtheria
C:-Chicken pox
D:-Viral hepatitis
Ans: C
63:-Common cause of pancytopenia include all except
A:-PNH
B:-SLE
C:-Hairy cell leukemia
D:-ITP
Ans: D
64:-Velcro crepitations are characteristic of
A:-COPD
B:-Pleural effusion
C:-Interstitial lung disease
D:-Pneumothorax
Ans: C
65:-Unusual in a complex partial seizure is
A:-Bizarre delusions
B:-Depersonalization
C:-De Javu phenomenon
D:-Altered level of consciousness
Ans: A
66:-Exposure and response prevention is a principal behavioural approach in
A:-Somatoform disorders
B:-Bipolar affective disorders
C:-Obsessive compulsive disorders
D:-Schizophrenia
Ans: C
67:-One of the founders of therapeutic community treatment approach is
A:-Eugene Bleuler
B:-Kurt Schneider
C:-Elizabeth Kubler Ross
D:-Maxwell Jones
Ans: D
68:-Games, pastimes, stroke are words associated with
A:-Psychodynamic psychotherapy
B:-Transactional analysis
C:-Cognitive behavioural therapy
D:-Attachment theory
Ans: B
69:-Origin of vaginal fornices is from
A:-Mesonephric duct
B:-Metanephric duct
C:-Para mesonephric duct
D:-Urogenital sinus
Ans: C
70:-Level of serum oestradiol expected with ovarian follicular diameter of 18-19 mm is
A:-50-150 Pg/ml
B:-150-250 Pg/ml
C:-250-350 Pg/ml
D:-350-450 Pg/ml
Ans: B
71:-Bevacizumab is
A:-Parp inhibitor
B:-Angiogenesis inhibitor
C:-Drug targeting stromal cells
D:-Immunotherapy
Ans: B
72:-Clue cells are diagnostic of
A:-Candida species
B:-Gardenella vaginalis
C:-Herpes genitalis
D:-Human papilloma virus
Ans: B
73:-Gottron's papules are seen in
A:-Systemic lupus erythematosus
B:-Dermatomyositis
C:-Sjogren's syndrome
D:-Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: B
74:-Verruca vulgaris is caused by
A:-Human papilloma virus
B:-Herpes simplex virus
C:-Pox virus
D:-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Ans: A
75:-Which of the following is not seen in psoriasis ?
A:-Koebner phenomenon
B:-Auspitz sign
C:-Nail pitting
D:-Wickham striae
Ans: D
76:-Eczema craquele is
A:-Seborrheic dermatitis
B:-Atopic dermatitis
C:-Asteatotic eczema
D:-Gravitational eczema
Ans: C
77:-Baux scoring was used to assess the morbidity in
A:-SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)
B:-Burns
C:-Head injury
D:-HIV infection
Ans: B
78:-Who was the first surgeon to perform liver transplantation ?
A:-Joseph E. Murray
B:-James D. Hardy
C:-Thomas E. Starzl
D:-Christian N. Barnard
Ans: C
79:-What is the Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) in patients with gangrene ?
A:-Less than 0.3
B:-0.3 to 0.5
C:-0.5 to 0.7
D:-More than 1
Ans: A
80:-Sistrunk operation is done in
A:-Branchial cyst
B:-Thyroglossal cyst
C:-Cystic hygroma
D:-Lingual thyroid
Ans: B
81:-Common complication of supracondylar fracture in a child includes all except
A:-Compartment Syndrome
B:-Gun Stock deformity
C:-Median Nerve injury
D:-Non union
Ans: D
82:-Police inquest is conducted according to which section of Criminal Procedure Code ?
A:-174
B:-175
C:-176
D:-178
Ans: A
83:-The commonest location of spinal tuberculosis is
A:-Cervical spine
B:-Sacral spine
C:-Upper dorsal spine
D:-Dorso lumbar spine
Ans: D
84:-Displacement of distal radial fragment in smith fracture is
A:-Dorsal
B:-Volar
C:-Only impacted
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
85:-Which cranial nerve nuclei is found in the pons part of the brain ?
A:-Cranial nerve 3
B:-Cranial nerve 5
C:-Cranial nerve 9
D:-Cranial nerve 12
Ans: B
86:-Which is the key muscle of the cervical motor level `7(C_(7))` ?
A:-Triceps
B:-Biceps
C:-Brachioradialis
D:-Flexor digitorum profundus
Ans: A
87:-Kienbock's disease is the avascular necrosis of which carpal bone ?
A:-Scaphoid
B:-Triquetrum
C:-Lunate
D:-Trapezoid
Ans: C
88:-Iliofemoral ligament is the ligament belonging to which joint ?
A:-Knee joint
B:-Shoulder joint
C:-Elbow joint
D:-Hip joint
Ans: D
89:-All are radioactive isotopes of cobalt except
A:-`49_(Co)`
B:-`56_(Co)`
C:-`74_(Co)`
D:-`78_(Co)`
Ans: D
90:-All are temporary brachytherapy isotopes except
A:-Iridium-192
B:-Palladium-103
C:-Iodine-125
D:-Caecium-131
Ans: D
91:-Most radiosensitive phase in cell cycle is
A:-G0 phase
B:-G1 phase
C:-G2 phase
D:-M phase
Ans: D
92:-Most common plexopathy in carcinoma cervix involves
A:-Low plexopathy (L4-S1)
B:-High plexopathy (L1-L3)
C:-Sacral plexopathy
D:-Pan plexopathy
Ans: A
93:-Early signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic toxicity include all except
A:-Tinnitus
B:-Circum oral numbness
C:-Dizziness
D:-Hypertension
Ans: D
94:-Known complications related to surgical positioning include all except
A:-Brachial plexus injury due to abduction of arm to 60 degree
B:-Hypoxemia in the trendlendburg position
C:-Retinal ischemia in the prone position
D:-Venous air embolism in the sitting position
Ans: A
95:-Which opioid among the following has the shortest duration of action ?
A:-Fentanyl
B:-Remifentanyl
C:-Alfentanyl
D:-Sufentanyl
Ans: B
96:-Which among the following inhalational anaesthetic agents is preferred in day care surgery ?
A:-Isoflurane
B:-Sevoflurane
C:-Desflurane
D:-Enflurane
Ans: C
97:-Name the disease in which herd immunity DO NOT HAVE any role in protecting an individual from acquiring the infection.
A:-Tetanus
B:-Diphtheria
C:-Whooping cough
D:-Measles
Ans: A
98:-Identify the FALSE statement regarding Down syndrome.
A:-Majority of children having down syndrome are born to young mothers (age less than 35 years)
B:-It is the commonest inherited cause for mental retardation
C:-Simian crease on both hands is seen in less than 50% of cases
D:-Karyotyping is recommended for all cases even when the diagnosis is evident clinically
Ans: B
99:-Which is NOT a risk factor for early onset sepsis in a newborn ?
A:-Foul smelling amniotic fluid
B:-Frequent per vaginal examinations during labor
C:-Delivery occurring more than 24 hours after rupture of membranes
D:-Formula feeding
Ans: D
100:-All are TRUE statements regarding constitutional delay in growth and puberty EXCEPT
A:-Final adult height is normal
B:-Growth velocity is normal
C:-Bone age is equal to chronological age
D:-Usually there will be similar history in one of the parent
Ans: C
A:-Widal test
B:-RPR test
C:-Coagulase test
D:-Weil Felix test
Ans: B
39:-Disinfectant of choice in a blood spill is
A:-Gluteraldehyde
B:-Alcohol
C:-Hypochlorite
D:-Chlorhexidine
Ans: C
40:-Pathogenesis of diphtheria is due to
A:-Invasiveness
B:-Toxin
C:-Both 1) and 2)
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
41:-Fibrinoid necrosis is a result of
A:-Fungal infection
B:-Ischaemia
C:-Immune complexes
D:-Tuberculosis
Ans: C
42:-The most frequent chromosomal abnormality in acute promyelocytic leukaemia is
A:-7q deletion
B:-13q deletion
C:-Reciprocal t(15 : 7) q(22 : 12)
D:-Trisomy 21
Ans: C
43:-Beta hydroxyl butryric acid can be tested by
A:-Rothera's test
B:-Hart's test
C:-Gerhart's test
D:-Shipley's test
Ans: B
44:-Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is pathognomonic of
A:-Osteomalacia
B:-Osteoporosis
C:-Osteopetrosis
D:-Osteitis deformans
Ans: D
45:-Which among the following is a CCR5 inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV infection ?
A:-Enfuvirtide
B:-Raltegravir
C:-Atazanavir
D:-Maraviroc
Ans: D
46:-Which of the following drug cause oligospermia ?
A:-D Penicillamine
B:-Leflunomide
C:-Sulfasalazine
D:-Methotrexate
Ans: C
47:-Selective nor adrenalin reuptake inhibitor used in Attention Deficit Hyperkinetic Disorder.
A:-Venlafaxine
B:-Atomoxetine
C:-Duloxetine
D:-Milnacipran
Ans: B
48:-Which among the following is a pure progesterone antagonist ?
A:-Onapristone
B:-Ulipristal
C:-Mifepristone
D:-Ethynodiol
Ans: A
49:-Which is the comprehensive scheme launched in India to combact Child Trafficking by the ministry of Women and Child Development on 04/12/2007 ?
A:-Raksha
B:-Suraksha
C:-Ujjwala
D:-Snehitha
Ans: C
50:-The Framingham heart study is a
A:-Case control study
B:-Cohort study
C:-Descriptive study
D:-Randomized Control Trial
Ans: B
51:-All are temporary social groups except
A:-Crowd
B:-Mob
C:-Herd
D:-Band
Ans: D
52:-Which is the most effective form of chlorine for water disinfection ?
A:-Hydrochloric acid
B:-Hypochlorous acid
C:-Hypochlorite ion
D:-Hydrogen ion
Ans: B
53:-Refractive index of aqueous humour is
A:-1.376
B:-1.336
C:-1.326
D:-1.406
Ans: B
54:-Method of estimating condition of refraction of eye objectively is known as
A:-Keratometry
B:-Ophthalmoscopy
C:-Skiascopy
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
55:-Prodromal symptom of sympathetic ophthalmitis is
A:-Coloured haloes
B:-Transient indistinctness of near vision
C:-Retro orbital pain
D:-Scintillating scotomas
Ans: B
56:-Optic nerve consists of approximately
A:-2.1 million axons
B:-2.5 million axons
C:-1.2 million axons
D:-1.8 million axons
Ans: C
57:-Hertz is the unit used to measure
A:-Pressure
B:-Tone
C:-Frequency
D:-Wavelength
Ans: C
58:-Methods of communication in laryngectomised patients are all except
A:-Esophageal speech
B:-Portex tube
C:-Electrolarynx
D:-Panje prosthesis
Ans: B
59:-Landmark for endolymphatic sac is
A:-Citelli's angle
B:-Digastric ridge
C:-Donaldson's line
D:-McEwen's triangle
Ans: C
60:-Petrositis can result in
A:-Griesinger's syndrome
B:-Grisel's syndrome
C:-Gutzmann's syndrome
D:-Gradenigo's syndrome
Ans: D
61:-Causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis is all except
A:-Renal failure
B:-Hepatic failure
C:-Diabetic ketoacidosis
D:-Salicylate ingestion
Ans: B
62:-Chance of post infectious cerebellitis is highest in
A:-Measles
B:-Diphtheria
C:-Chicken pox
D:-Viral hepatitis
Ans: C
63:-Common cause of pancytopenia include all except
A:-PNH
B:-SLE
C:-Hairy cell leukemia
D:-ITP
Ans: D
64:-Velcro crepitations are characteristic of
A:-COPD
B:-Pleural effusion
C:-Interstitial lung disease
D:-Pneumothorax
Ans: C
65:-Unusual in a complex partial seizure is
A:-Bizarre delusions
B:-Depersonalization
C:-De Javu phenomenon
D:-Altered level of consciousness
Ans: A
66:-Exposure and response prevention is a principal behavioural approach in
A:-Somatoform disorders
B:-Bipolar affective disorders
C:-Obsessive compulsive disorders
D:-Schizophrenia
Ans: C
67:-One of the founders of therapeutic community treatment approach is
A:-Eugene Bleuler
B:-Kurt Schneider
C:-Elizabeth Kubler Ross
D:-Maxwell Jones
Ans: D
68:-Games, pastimes, stroke are words associated with
A:-Psychodynamic psychotherapy
B:-Transactional analysis
C:-Cognitive behavioural therapy
D:-Attachment theory
Ans: B
69:-Origin of vaginal fornices is from
A:-Mesonephric duct
B:-Metanephric duct
C:-Para mesonephric duct
D:-Urogenital sinus
Ans: C
70:-Level of serum oestradiol expected with ovarian follicular diameter of 18-19 mm is
A:-50-150 Pg/ml
B:-150-250 Pg/ml
C:-250-350 Pg/ml
D:-350-450 Pg/ml
Ans: B
71:-Bevacizumab is
A:-Parp inhibitor
B:-Angiogenesis inhibitor
C:-Drug targeting stromal cells
D:-Immunotherapy
Ans: B
72:-Clue cells are diagnostic of
A:-Candida species
B:-Gardenella vaginalis
C:-Herpes genitalis
D:-Human papilloma virus
Ans: B
73:-Gottron's papules are seen in
A:-Systemic lupus erythematosus
B:-Dermatomyositis
C:-Sjogren's syndrome
D:-Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: B
74:-Verruca vulgaris is caused by
A:-Human papilloma virus
B:-Herpes simplex virus
C:-Pox virus
D:-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Ans: A
75:-Which of the following is not seen in psoriasis ?
A:-Koebner phenomenon
B:-Auspitz sign
C:-Nail pitting
D:-Wickham striae
Ans: D
76:-Eczema craquele is
A:-Seborrheic dermatitis
B:-Atopic dermatitis
C:-Asteatotic eczema
D:-Gravitational eczema
Ans: C
77:-Baux scoring was used to assess the morbidity in
A:-SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)
B:-Burns
C:-Head injury
D:-HIV infection
Ans: B
78:-Who was the first surgeon to perform liver transplantation ?
A:-Joseph E. Murray
B:-James D. Hardy
C:-Thomas E. Starzl
D:-Christian N. Barnard
Ans: C
79:-What is the Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) in patients with gangrene ?
A:-Less than 0.3
B:-0.3 to 0.5
C:-0.5 to 0.7
D:-More than 1
Ans: A
80:-Sistrunk operation is done in
A:-Branchial cyst
B:-Thyroglossal cyst
C:-Cystic hygroma
D:-Lingual thyroid
Ans: B
81:-Common complication of supracondylar fracture in a child includes all except
A:-Compartment Syndrome
B:-Gun Stock deformity
C:-Median Nerve injury
D:-Non union
Ans: D
82:-Police inquest is conducted according to which section of Criminal Procedure Code ?
A:-174
B:-175
C:-176
D:-178
Ans: A
83:-The commonest location of spinal tuberculosis is
A:-Cervical spine
B:-Sacral spine
C:-Upper dorsal spine
D:-Dorso lumbar spine
Ans: D
84:-Displacement of distal radial fragment in smith fracture is
A:-Dorsal
B:-Volar
C:-Only impacted
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
85:-Which cranial nerve nuclei is found in the pons part of the brain ?
A:-Cranial nerve 3
B:-Cranial nerve 5
C:-Cranial nerve 9
D:-Cranial nerve 12
Ans: B
86:-Which is the key muscle of the cervical motor level `7(C_(7))` ?
A:-Triceps
B:-Biceps
C:-Brachioradialis
D:-Flexor digitorum profundus
Ans: A
87:-Kienbock's disease is the avascular necrosis of which carpal bone ?
A:-Scaphoid
B:-Triquetrum
C:-Lunate
D:-Trapezoid
Ans: C
88:-Iliofemoral ligament is the ligament belonging to which joint ?
A:-Knee joint
B:-Shoulder joint
C:-Elbow joint
D:-Hip joint
Ans: D
89:-All are radioactive isotopes of cobalt except
A:-`49_(Co)`
B:-`56_(Co)`
C:-`74_(Co)`
D:-`78_(Co)`
Ans: D
90:-All are temporary brachytherapy isotopes except
A:-Iridium-192
B:-Palladium-103
C:-Iodine-125
D:-Caecium-131
Ans: D
91:-Most radiosensitive phase in cell cycle is
A:-G0 phase
B:-G1 phase
C:-G2 phase
D:-M phase
Ans: D
92:-Most common plexopathy in carcinoma cervix involves
A:-Low plexopathy (L4-S1)
B:-High plexopathy (L1-L3)
C:-Sacral plexopathy
D:-Pan plexopathy
Ans: A
93:-Early signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic toxicity include all except
A:-Tinnitus
B:-Circum oral numbness
C:-Dizziness
D:-Hypertension
Ans: D
94:-Known complications related to surgical positioning include all except
A:-Brachial plexus injury due to abduction of arm to 60 degree
B:-Hypoxemia in the trendlendburg position
C:-Retinal ischemia in the prone position
D:-Venous air embolism in the sitting position
Ans: A
95:-Which opioid among the following has the shortest duration of action ?
A:-Fentanyl
B:-Remifentanyl
C:-Alfentanyl
D:-Sufentanyl
Ans: B
96:-Which among the following inhalational anaesthetic agents is preferred in day care surgery ?
A:-Isoflurane
B:-Sevoflurane
C:-Desflurane
D:-Enflurane
Ans: C
97:-Name the disease in which herd immunity DO NOT HAVE any role in protecting an individual from acquiring the infection.
A:-Tetanus
B:-Diphtheria
C:-Whooping cough
D:-Measles
Ans: A
98:-Identify the FALSE statement regarding Down syndrome.
A:-Majority of children having down syndrome are born to young mothers (age less than 35 years)
B:-It is the commonest inherited cause for mental retardation
C:-Simian crease on both hands is seen in less than 50% of cases
D:-Karyotyping is recommended for all cases even when the diagnosis is evident clinically
Ans: B
99:-Which is NOT a risk factor for early onset sepsis in a newborn ?
A:-Foul smelling amniotic fluid
B:-Frequent per vaginal examinations during labor
C:-Delivery occurring more than 24 hours after rupture of membranes
D:-Formula feeding
Ans: D
100:-All are TRUE statements regarding constitutional delay in growth and puberty EXCEPT
A:-Final adult height is normal
B:-Growth velocity is normal
C:-Bone age is equal to chronological age
D:-Usually there will be similar history in one of the parent
Ans: C
Related Pages
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Human Anatomy
- Human Anatomy- Page 1
- Infectious Diseases
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine