ORTHOPAEDICS
ORTHOPAEDICS SYLLABUS
(These syllabus may change from time to time. Please check with the relevant Public Service Commission websites for any changes in the syllabus)
- Applied and Basic Medical Sciences including Anatomy, Physiology, Biochemistry, Pharmacology, Pathology and Microbiology in relation to orthopaedics.
- BONE & JOINT - Infections (Pyogenic, Tuberculosis, syphilis, mycotic, Salmonella, Brucella etc.)
- CONGENITAL DEFORMITIES - Diagnosis, investigations and Treatment of Upper and Lower limbs, Spine General Defects and Developmental defects.
- TRAUMATOLOGY in general and in reference to Locomotor system.
- Principles of Treatment in Trauma.
- Diseases and injuries of spine.
- Metabolic Bone Disorders.
- Bone Tumours in orthopaedics. Recent trends in limb salvage and chemo and radiotherapy.
- Peripheral Nerve Injuries, Compartment syndrome.
- Neuro-Muscular Diseases Poliomyolitis and Cerebral Palsy.
- Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation including occupational Therapy, Electrodiagnosis, Electromyography. Total concept of Prosthesis and Orthotics Physical disability assessment.
- Autoimmune Bone and Joint Disorders like Rheumatoid Arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, etc.
- Amputations & Disarticulations through Bones & Joints of Limbs.
- Degenerative disorders of the Extrenities like Osteoarthritis of Hip & Knee Joints and Spine (Diagnosis and Management).
- Recent Advances : Arthroscopic Surgery, Joint Replacement, Spine Surgery, CT Scan, MRI, Bone Scan, PET Scan, Bone Bank
ORTHOPAEDICS MCQs
1) Non-union is a complication seen in all the following fractures except:
A) Fracture of the lower end of tibia
B) Fracture of the scaphoid
C) Fracture neck of the femur
D) Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
Ans: 4
2) True about fracture healing except:
A) Nutrition affects healing
B) Stable fixation promotes healing
C) Compression at fracture site causes non union
D) Hormonal status affects healing
Ans: 3
3) Stress fracture is not seen in
A) Metatarsals
B) Metacarpals
C) Tibia
D) Femur
Ans: 2
4) Intramembranous ossification is seen in which bones:
A) Pelvis
B) Mandible
C) Most Long bones
D) None
Ans: 2
5) Most common muscle damaged in rotator cuff:
A) Suprapinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Subscapularis
D) Teres minor
Ans: 1
6) Most common joint to undergo recurrent dislocation is:
A) Shoulder joint
B) Knee joint
C) Hip joint
D) Ankle joint
Ans: 1
7) Most frequently involved nerve in fracture distal shaft of the humerus:
A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Musculo cutaneous nerve
Ans: 1
8) Hill-Sach’s lesion is associated with:
A) Neck of the humerus
B) Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder
C) Disclocation of the acromio-clavicular joint
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
9) Three bony point relationship around the elbow is maintained in:
A) Dislocation of the elbow
B) Fracture lateral condyle of humerus
C) Inter condylar fracture of humerus
D) Supra condylar fracture of humerus
Ans: 4
10) Mal-union of supra condylar fracture of the humerus most commonly results in:
A) Flexion deformity
B) Cubitus varus
C) Extension deformity
D) Cubitus valgus
Ans: 2
11) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen as a complication of :
A) Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus
B) Supra condylar fracture of humerus
C) Fracture olecranon process
D) Fracture head radius
Ans: 1
12) Which of the following displacements is not seen in Colles’ fracture:
A) Dorsal tilt
B) Dorsal displacement
C) Ventral tilt
D) Lateral displacement
Ans: 3
13) Most common nerve involvement in dislocation of lunate is:
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Posterior interosseous nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Anterior interosseous nerve
Ans: 3
14) Avulsion of extensor tendon at base of the distal phalynx of a finger results in:
A) Mallet finger deformity
B) Hyper extension deformity
C) Swan neck deformity of finger
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
15) Dinner fork deformity is seen in:
A) March fracture
B) Colles fracture
C) Supra condylar fracture
D) Fracture scaphoid
Ans: 2
16) Bennett’s fracture is seen in:
A) 1st metatarsal
B) 5th metacarpal
C) 1st metacarpal
D) 5th metatarsal
Ans: 3
17) Avascular necrosis of femoral head is most commonly seen after:
A) Fracture shaft of the femur
B) Extracapsular fracture neck of the femur
C) Subtrochanteric fracture
D) Intracapsular fracture neck of the femur
Ans: 4
18) A 84 year male with history of fracture neck of the femur 4 weeks old, the treatment of choice is:
A) SP nailing
B) Hemiarthroplasty
C) Mc Murray’s osteotomy
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
19) Gallow’s traction is used for treatment of:
A) Fracture shaft femur
B) Fracture shaft of the tibia
C) Fracture neck of the femur
D) Fracture tibial spine
Ans: 1
20) Which of the following test is positive in anterior cruciate ligament tear:
A) Anterior drawer test
B) Lachman test
C) Mc Murray’s test
D) A and B both
Ans: 4
21) Patellar tendon bearing plaster of paris cast is indicated in:
A) Fracture patella
B) Fracture middle meniscus
C) Fracture femur
D) Fracture tibia
Ans: 4
22) Most common associated injury along with fracture calcaneum is:
A) Fracture vertebrae
B) Fracture skull
C) Fracture fibula
D) Fracture rib
Ans: 1
23) Whip-lash injury is caused due to :
A) Fall from height
B) Acute hyper extension of spine
C) A blow on the head
D) Acute hyper flexion of spine
Ans: 2
24) Most common cause of Vertebra plana is:
A) Eosinophillic granuloma
B) Trauma
C) Ewing’s sarcoma
D) Paget’s disease
Ans: 1
25) Saturday night palsy is :
A) Neurotemesis
B) Neuropraxia
C) Axonotemesis
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
26) Ape thumb deformity is seen in the involvement of:
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Axillary nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Radial nerve
Ans: 3
27) Froment’s sign is characteristic of:
A) Median nerve injury
B) Ulnar nerve injury
C) Radial nerve injury
D) Long thoracic nerve
Ans: 2
28) Meralgia paresthetica is due to involvement of:
A) Femoral nerve
B) Sural nerve
C) Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
D) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Ans: 4
29) Phalen’s test is positive in:
A) De quervain’s disease
B) Carpel tunnel syndrome
C) Trigger thumb
D) Ulnar nerve injury
Ans: 2
30) Limb elevated against gravity but not against force is which power of muscle:
A) Grade I
B) Grade II
C) Grade III
D) Grade IV
Ans: 3
31) Perthe’s disease is :
A) Fracture neck of the femur
B) Fracture shaft of the femur
C) Osteochondritis of upper femoral epiphysis
D) All of the above
Ans: 3
32) Which of the following test is useful in diagnosis of congenital dislocation of hip:
A) Barlow’s test
B) Thomas test
C) Hibb’s test
D) Laguerre’s test
Ans: 1
33) Splint used in CTEV after correction:
A) Bohler-brown splint
B) Thomas splint
C) Steinbeck splint
D) None of the above
Ans: 3
34) Madelung’s deformity is seen in:
A) Humerus
B) Distal radius
C) Carpal bones
D) Proximal ulna
Ans: 2
35) Sprengel’s deformity is:
A) Absence of clavicle
B) Acromioclavicular dislocation
C) Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
D) Congenital elevation of scapula
Ans: 4
36) Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of the knee is:
A) Flexion
B) Hyperextension
C) Varus
D) Valgus
Ans: 2
37) Congenital coxa vara is treated by:
A) Fixation by SP nail
B) Bone grafting
C) Traction
D) Osteotomy
Ans: 4
38) Most common cause of genu valgum in children is:
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Paget’s disease
C) Rickets
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: 3
39) Caffey’s disease is:
A) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
B) Renal osteodystrophy
C) Osteomyelitis of the jaw in children
D) Chronic osteomyelitis in children
Ans: 1
40) Osteomalacia is due to
A) Vitamin c deficiency
B) Vitamin e deficiency
C) Vitamin d deficiency
D) None
Ans: 3
41) Wimberger sign is seen in:
A) Scurvy
B) Osteomalacia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Rickets
Ans: 1
42) Hyper parathyroidism causes:
A) Multiple bone cysts
B) Sub periosteal bone resorption
C) Brown’s tumor
D) All of the above
Ans: 4
43) Paget’s disease is also known as
A) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Osteochindritis
D) Osteomalacia
Ans: 2
44) Commonest site of osteoporosis is:
A) Humerus
B) Scapula
C) Vertebra
D) Flat bones
Ans: 3
45) Investigation of preference to diagnose “avascular necrosis” of the hip is:
A) USG
B) MRI
C) CT scan
D) X-ray of pelvis
Ans: 2
46) Frieberg’s disease involves:
A) Calcaneal tuberosity
B) Second meta tarsal
C) Tibial tuberosity
D) Fifth metatarsal
Ans: 2
47) Heberden’s Arthropathy is seen in:
A) Lumbar spine
B) Sacro iliac joint
C) Distal inter phalangeal joint
D) Sterno clavicular joint
Ans: 3
48) All true about high tibial osteotomy except:
A) Deformity recurs after a long time
B) Done through the cancellous bone
C) Can correct varus over 30 degrees
D) Done in case of uni compartmental disease
Ans: 3
49) False about Charcot’s joint in diabetes mellitus is:
A) Arthrocentesis
B) Total ankle replacement
C) Arthrodesis
D) Limitation of movements with bracing
Ans: 2
50) In a patient with gouty arthritis synovial fluid aspiration will show:
A) Monosodium urate crystals
B) Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
C) Mononuclear leucocytosis
D) Poly morphonuclear leucocytosis
Ans: 1
A) Fracture of the lower end of tibia
B) Fracture of the scaphoid
C) Fracture neck of the femur
D) Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
Ans: 4
2) True about fracture healing except:
A) Nutrition affects healing
B) Stable fixation promotes healing
C) Compression at fracture site causes non union
D) Hormonal status affects healing
Ans: 3
3) Stress fracture is not seen in
A) Metatarsals
B) Metacarpals
C) Tibia
D) Femur
Ans: 2
4) Intramembranous ossification is seen in which bones:
A) Pelvis
B) Mandible
C) Most Long bones
D) None
Ans: 2
5) Most common muscle damaged in rotator cuff:
A) Suprapinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Subscapularis
D) Teres minor
Ans: 1
6) Most common joint to undergo recurrent dislocation is:
A) Shoulder joint
B) Knee joint
C) Hip joint
D) Ankle joint
Ans: 1
7) Most frequently involved nerve in fracture distal shaft of the humerus:
A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Musculo cutaneous nerve
Ans: 1
8) Hill-Sach’s lesion is associated with:
A) Neck of the humerus
B) Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder
C) Disclocation of the acromio-clavicular joint
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
9) Three bony point relationship around the elbow is maintained in:
A) Dislocation of the elbow
B) Fracture lateral condyle of humerus
C) Inter condylar fracture of humerus
D) Supra condylar fracture of humerus
Ans: 4
10) Mal-union of supra condylar fracture of the humerus most commonly results in:
A) Flexion deformity
B) Cubitus varus
C) Extension deformity
D) Cubitus valgus
Ans: 2
11) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen as a complication of :
A) Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus
B) Supra condylar fracture of humerus
C) Fracture olecranon process
D) Fracture head radius
Ans: 1
12) Which of the following displacements is not seen in Colles’ fracture:
A) Dorsal tilt
B) Dorsal displacement
C) Ventral tilt
D) Lateral displacement
Ans: 3
13) Most common nerve involvement in dislocation of lunate is:
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Posterior interosseous nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Anterior interosseous nerve
Ans: 3
14) Avulsion of extensor tendon at base of the distal phalynx of a finger results in:
A) Mallet finger deformity
B) Hyper extension deformity
C) Swan neck deformity of finger
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
15) Dinner fork deformity is seen in:
A) March fracture
B) Colles fracture
C) Supra condylar fracture
D) Fracture scaphoid
Ans: 2
16) Bennett’s fracture is seen in:
A) 1st metatarsal
B) 5th metacarpal
C) 1st metacarpal
D) 5th metatarsal
Ans: 3
17) Avascular necrosis of femoral head is most commonly seen after:
A) Fracture shaft of the femur
B) Extracapsular fracture neck of the femur
C) Subtrochanteric fracture
D) Intracapsular fracture neck of the femur
Ans: 4
18) A 84 year male with history of fracture neck of the femur 4 weeks old, the treatment of choice is:
A) SP nailing
B) Hemiarthroplasty
C) Mc Murray’s osteotomy
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
19) Gallow’s traction is used for treatment of:
A) Fracture shaft femur
B) Fracture shaft of the tibia
C) Fracture neck of the femur
D) Fracture tibial spine
Ans: 1
20) Which of the following test is positive in anterior cruciate ligament tear:
A) Anterior drawer test
B) Lachman test
C) Mc Murray’s test
D) A and B both
Ans: 4
21) Patellar tendon bearing plaster of paris cast is indicated in:
A) Fracture patella
B) Fracture middle meniscus
C) Fracture femur
D) Fracture tibia
Ans: 4
22) Most common associated injury along with fracture calcaneum is:
A) Fracture vertebrae
B) Fracture skull
C) Fracture fibula
D) Fracture rib
Ans: 1
23) Whip-lash injury is caused due to :
A) Fall from height
B) Acute hyper extension of spine
C) A blow on the head
D) Acute hyper flexion of spine
Ans: 2
24) Most common cause of Vertebra plana is:
A) Eosinophillic granuloma
B) Trauma
C) Ewing’s sarcoma
D) Paget’s disease
Ans: 1
25) Saturday night palsy is :
A) Neurotemesis
B) Neuropraxia
C) Axonotemesis
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
26) Ape thumb deformity is seen in the involvement of:
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Axillary nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Radial nerve
Ans: 3
27) Froment’s sign is characteristic of:
A) Median nerve injury
B) Ulnar nerve injury
C) Radial nerve injury
D) Long thoracic nerve
Ans: 2
28) Meralgia paresthetica is due to involvement of:
A) Femoral nerve
B) Sural nerve
C) Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
D) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Ans: 4
29) Phalen’s test is positive in:
A) De quervain’s disease
B) Carpel tunnel syndrome
C) Trigger thumb
D) Ulnar nerve injury
Ans: 2
30) Limb elevated against gravity but not against force is which power of muscle:
A) Grade I
B) Grade II
C) Grade III
D) Grade IV
Ans: 3
31) Perthe’s disease is :
A) Fracture neck of the femur
B) Fracture shaft of the femur
C) Osteochondritis of upper femoral epiphysis
D) All of the above
Ans: 3
32) Which of the following test is useful in diagnosis of congenital dislocation of hip:
A) Barlow’s test
B) Thomas test
C) Hibb’s test
D) Laguerre’s test
Ans: 1
33) Splint used in CTEV after correction:
A) Bohler-brown splint
B) Thomas splint
C) Steinbeck splint
D) None of the above
Ans: 3
34) Madelung’s deformity is seen in:
A) Humerus
B) Distal radius
C) Carpal bones
D) Proximal ulna
Ans: 2
35) Sprengel’s deformity is:
A) Absence of clavicle
B) Acromioclavicular dislocation
C) Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
D) Congenital elevation of scapula
Ans: 4
36) Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of the knee is:
A) Flexion
B) Hyperextension
C) Varus
D) Valgus
Ans: 2
37) Congenital coxa vara is treated by:
A) Fixation by SP nail
B) Bone grafting
C) Traction
D) Osteotomy
Ans: 4
38) Most common cause of genu valgum in children is:
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Paget’s disease
C) Rickets
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: 3
39) Caffey’s disease is:
A) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
B) Renal osteodystrophy
C) Osteomyelitis of the jaw in children
D) Chronic osteomyelitis in children
Ans: 1
40) Osteomalacia is due to
A) Vitamin c deficiency
B) Vitamin e deficiency
C) Vitamin d deficiency
D) None
Ans: 3
41) Wimberger sign is seen in:
A) Scurvy
B) Osteomalacia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Rickets
Ans: 1
42) Hyper parathyroidism causes:
A) Multiple bone cysts
B) Sub periosteal bone resorption
C) Brown’s tumor
D) All of the above
Ans: 4
43) Paget’s disease is also known as
A) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Osteochindritis
D) Osteomalacia
Ans: 2
44) Commonest site of osteoporosis is:
A) Humerus
B) Scapula
C) Vertebra
D) Flat bones
Ans: 3
45) Investigation of preference to diagnose “avascular necrosis” of the hip is:
A) USG
B) MRI
C) CT scan
D) X-ray of pelvis
Ans: 2
46) Frieberg’s disease involves:
A) Calcaneal tuberosity
B) Second meta tarsal
C) Tibial tuberosity
D) Fifth metatarsal
Ans: 2
47) Heberden’s Arthropathy is seen in:
A) Lumbar spine
B) Sacro iliac joint
C) Distal inter phalangeal joint
D) Sterno clavicular joint
Ans: 3
48) All true about high tibial osteotomy except:
A) Deformity recurs after a long time
B) Done through the cancellous bone
C) Can correct varus over 30 degrees
D) Done in case of uni compartmental disease
Ans: 3
49) False about Charcot’s joint in diabetes mellitus is:
A) Arthrocentesis
B) Total ankle replacement
C) Arthrodesis
D) Limitation of movements with bracing
Ans: 2
50) In a patient with gouty arthritis synovial fluid aspiration will show:
A) Monosodium urate crystals
B) Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
C) Mononuclear leucocytosis
D) Poly morphonuclear leucocytosis
Ans: 1
51) Bamboo spine with sacroilitis is found in:
A) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Osteo Arthritis
C) Psoriatic arthritis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans: 4
52) Radiologically earliest bony change in osteomyelitis is:
A) Periosteal reaction
B) Presence of sequestrum
C) Callus formation
D) Loss of muscle and flat planes
Ans: 1
53) Tom Smith arthritis involves:
A) Knee
B) Ankle
C) Hip
D) Wrist
Ans: 3
54) All are associated with chronic osteomyelitis except:
A) Amyloidosis
B) Sequestrum
C) Metastatic abnormality
D) Myositis ossificans
Ans: 4
55) Brodie’s abscess is:
A) Acute osteomyelitis
B) Tubercular osteomyelitis
C) Septic arthritis
D) Sub acute osteomyelitis
Ans: 4
56) Spina ventosa results from:
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Histocytosis x syndrome
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
57) Painless effusion in joints in congenital syphilis are called:
A) Charcot’s joint
B) Clutton’s joint
C) Barton’s joint
D) Chronic osteomyelitis
Ans: 2
58) Wandering acetabulum is seen in:
A) Fracture acetabulum
B) Congenital dislocation of hip
C) Tuberculosis of hip
D) Dislocation of femur
Ans: 3
59) Which of the following is not a benign tumor:
A) Osteoid osteoma
B) Enchondroma
C) Chordoma
D) Chondroma
Ans: 3
60) A patient presents with pain in thigh which is relieved by aspirin, X ray shows radiolucent region surrounded by sclerosis. Most probable diagnosis is:
A) Osteoma
B) Osteoid osteoma
C) Osteoblastoma
D) Osteoclastoma
Ans: 2
61) Most common tumor in the hand:
A) Enchondromas
B) Exostosis
C) Giant cell
D) Synovial sarcoma
Ans: 1
62) Which of the following is true about giant cell tumor:
A) Usually present as a lytic lesion with sclerotic rim
B) Always benign
C) Seen in the age less than 18 years
D) Epiphyseal origin
Ans: 4
63) All are predisposing factors of osteogenic sarcoma, except:
A) Paget’s disease of bone
B) Radiation
C) Viral infection
D) Bone infarction
Ans: 3
64) Characterstic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia:
A) Thickened bone matrix
B) Ground glass appearance
C) Cortical erosion
D) Bone enlargement
Ans: 2
65) Twelve year old girl complains of pain in the thigh for three weeks with a low grade fever X-ray shows mass in the diaphyseal region of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. Biopsy of the lesion shows numerous small round cells rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules, most likely histological diagnosis is:
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Osteoblastoma
C) Chondroblastoma
D) Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans: 4
66) Most common tumor producing osteoblastic metastasis is from :
A) Kidney
B) Lung
C) Thyroid
D) Prostate
Ans: 4
67) Solitary bone cyst is most common in :
A) Upper end of the humerus
B) Lower end of the humerus
C) Upper end of the fibula
D) Lower end of the femur
Ans: 1
68) Striated vertebra is seen in:
A) TB spine
B) Chordoma
C) Hemangioma
D) Metastasis
Ans: 3
69) Sudeck’s dystrophy is associated with all the symptoms, except:
A) Pain
B) Increase bone density
C) Sweating
D) Stiffness
Ans: 2
70) Commonest site of fracture leading to fat embolism is:
A) Tibia
B) Humerus
C) Ulna
D) Femur
Ans: 4
71) Most common nerve involved in Volkmann’s ischemic contracture of forearm is:
A) Radial
B) Median
C) Ulnar
D) Posterior interosseous
Ans: 2
72) Brittle bone disease is:
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Paget’s disease
D) Osteoporosis
Ans: 1
73) All are the features of osteogenesis imperfecta, except:
A) Blue sclera
B) Cataract
C) Multiple fractures
D) Hearing loss
Ans: 2
74) House maids knee is bursitis of :
A) Pre patellar bursa
B) Olecranon bursa
C) Infra patellar bursa
D) Ischial bursa
Ans: 1
75) Pain and tenderness over the lateral condyle of the humerus with a painful dorsiflexion of the wrist is indicative of:
A) Golfer’s elbow
B) Pitcher’s elbow
C) Cricket elbow
D) Tennis elbow
Ans: 4
76) Congenital block vertebrae is seen in:
A) Paget’s disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Leukemia
D) Klippel-feil syndrome
Ans: 4
77) Which of the following structures is fixed first during reimplantation of an amputated digit:
A) Bone
B) Vein
C) Artery
D) Nerve
Ans: 1
78) Which of the following is a syndesmosis :
A) Inferior tibio fibular joint
B) Talo calcaneal joint
C) Calcaneao cuboid joint
D) Inter phalyngeal joint
Ans: 1
79) The operative procedure known as micro fracture is done for:
A) Delayed union of the femur
B) Osteochondral defect of the femur
C) Non union of tibia
D) Loose bodies of ankle joint
Ans: 2
80) Test for tight iliotibial band is:
A) Ober’s test
B) Simmand’s test
C) Osber’s test
D) Charnley’s test
Ans: 1
81) Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by:
A) Tetracycline labeling
B) Alizarin red stain
C) Calcin stain
D) Van kossa stain
Ans: 1
82) Trendelenberg’s test is positive in palsy of:
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Rectus femoris
C) Vastus medialis
D) Gluteus medius
Ans: 4
83) Rugger jersey spine is seen in:
A) Fluorosis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Renal osteodystrophy
D) Marfan’s syndrome
Ans: 3
84) Most common cause of death after total hip replacement is:
A) Anemia
B) Infection
C) Thromboembolism
D) Pneumonia
Ans: 3
85) Ring sequestrum is seen in:
A) Typhoid osteomyelitis
B) Chronic osteomyelitis
C) Tubercular osteomyelitis
D) Amputation stump
Ans: 4
86) Which of the following is true about a phantom limb:
A) Occurs in leprosy
B) Follow amputation
C) Follow a psychiatric illness
D) After filiarisis
Ans: 2
87) Myodesis is employed in amputations for all of the following indications, except:
A) Trauma
B) Tumor
C) Ischemia
D) Children
Ans: 3
88) Vascular repair to be done in which of the following Gustilo Anderson type of open injury:
A) IIIb
B) I
C) II
D) IIIc
Ans: 4
89) All are true for Glomus tumor except:
A) Arise from glomus like cells
B) Symptoms include pain, cold sensitivity, tenderness
C) Subungual
D) Symptoms may persist for years before diagnosis
Ans: 1
90) All are bone resorption markers used in monitoring the response to anti-osteoporotic therapy except:
A) Pyridinoline (PYD)
B) Procollagen type 1 N terminal propeptide (P1NP)
C) Deoxypyridinoline (DPD)
D) C-terminal Cross linked telopeptide (CTX)
Ans: 2
91) The obturator oblique view of the Pelvis shows all except:
A) Anterior column
B) Posterior Rim
C) Obturator ring
D) Pelvic brim
Ans: 4
92) Metal on metal articulation should be avoided in:
A) Osteonecrosis
B) Inflammatory arthritis
C) Young female
D) Revision surgery
Ans: 3
93) Normal bone remodeling in response to stress was described by:
A) Pauwels
B) Kuntscar
C) Wolff
D) Hugh owen thomas
Ans: 3
94) Salmonella osteomyelitis is common in:
A) Sickle cell disease
B) HIV
C) IV drug abusers
D) Pregnancy
Ans: 1
95) Shepherd’s crook deformity is seen in:
A) Adamantinoma
B) Non-ossifying fibroma
C) Fibrous cortical defect
D) Fibrous dysplasia
Ans: 4
96) Indication of surgical compartmental release in compartmental syndrome in any compartment is absolute pressure greater than:
A) 15mm Hg
B) 30mm Hg
C) 20mm Hg
D) 50mm Hg
Ans: 2
97) Palmar interossei are involved in:
A) Ulnar nerve palsy
B) Median merve palsy
C) Medial nerve palsy
D) Erb’s palsy
Ans: 1
98) Multiple bone metastasis are diagnosed by:
A) Ga 67 scan
B) MRI
C) In 127 scan
D) Tc 99 scan
Ans: 4
99) Combined anteversion test in THR should be:
A) 30-40 degree
B) 21-28 degree
C) 47-54 degree
D) 19-25 degree
Ans: 1
100) VEPTR is:
A) Method of predicting curve progression in Infantile scoliosis
B) Device used for management of Scoliosis in children
C) Phenomenon seen in curve progression in children more than 8 years of age
D) Technique used for management of scoliosis in adults
Ans: 2
A) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Osteo Arthritis
C) Psoriatic arthritis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans: 4
52) Radiologically earliest bony change in osteomyelitis is:
A) Periosteal reaction
B) Presence of sequestrum
C) Callus formation
D) Loss of muscle and flat planes
Ans: 1
53) Tom Smith arthritis involves:
A) Knee
B) Ankle
C) Hip
D) Wrist
Ans: 3
54) All are associated with chronic osteomyelitis except:
A) Amyloidosis
B) Sequestrum
C) Metastatic abnormality
D) Myositis ossificans
Ans: 4
55) Brodie’s abscess is:
A) Acute osteomyelitis
B) Tubercular osteomyelitis
C) Septic arthritis
D) Sub acute osteomyelitis
Ans: 4
56) Spina ventosa results from:
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Histocytosis x syndrome
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
57) Painless effusion in joints in congenital syphilis are called:
A) Charcot’s joint
B) Clutton’s joint
C) Barton’s joint
D) Chronic osteomyelitis
Ans: 2
58) Wandering acetabulum is seen in:
A) Fracture acetabulum
B) Congenital dislocation of hip
C) Tuberculosis of hip
D) Dislocation of femur
Ans: 3
59) Which of the following is not a benign tumor:
A) Osteoid osteoma
B) Enchondroma
C) Chordoma
D) Chondroma
Ans: 3
60) A patient presents with pain in thigh which is relieved by aspirin, X ray shows radiolucent region surrounded by sclerosis. Most probable diagnosis is:
A) Osteoma
B) Osteoid osteoma
C) Osteoblastoma
D) Osteoclastoma
Ans: 2
61) Most common tumor in the hand:
A) Enchondromas
B) Exostosis
C) Giant cell
D) Synovial sarcoma
Ans: 1
62) Which of the following is true about giant cell tumor:
A) Usually present as a lytic lesion with sclerotic rim
B) Always benign
C) Seen in the age less than 18 years
D) Epiphyseal origin
Ans: 4
63) All are predisposing factors of osteogenic sarcoma, except:
A) Paget’s disease of bone
B) Radiation
C) Viral infection
D) Bone infarction
Ans: 3
64) Characterstic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia:
A) Thickened bone matrix
B) Ground glass appearance
C) Cortical erosion
D) Bone enlargement
Ans: 2
65) Twelve year old girl complains of pain in the thigh for three weeks with a low grade fever X-ray shows mass in the diaphyseal region of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. Biopsy of the lesion shows numerous small round cells rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules, most likely histological diagnosis is:
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Osteoblastoma
C) Chondroblastoma
D) Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans: 4
66) Most common tumor producing osteoblastic metastasis is from :
A) Kidney
B) Lung
C) Thyroid
D) Prostate
Ans: 4
67) Solitary bone cyst is most common in :
A) Upper end of the humerus
B) Lower end of the humerus
C) Upper end of the fibula
D) Lower end of the femur
Ans: 1
68) Striated vertebra is seen in:
A) TB spine
B) Chordoma
C) Hemangioma
D) Metastasis
Ans: 3
69) Sudeck’s dystrophy is associated with all the symptoms, except:
A) Pain
B) Increase bone density
C) Sweating
D) Stiffness
Ans: 2
70) Commonest site of fracture leading to fat embolism is:
A) Tibia
B) Humerus
C) Ulna
D) Femur
Ans: 4
71) Most common nerve involved in Volkmann’s ischemic contracture of forearm is:
A) Radial
B) Median
C) Ulnar
D) Posterior interosseous
Ans: 2
72) Brittle bone disease is:
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Paget’s disease
D) Osteoporosis
Ans: 1
73) All are the features of osteogenesis imperfecta, except:
A) Blue sclera
B) Cataract
C) Multiple fractures
D) Hearing loss
Ans: 2
74) House maids knee is bursitis of :
A) Pre patellar bursa
B) Olecranon bursa
C) Infra patellar bursa
D) Ischial bursa
Ans: 1
75) Pain and tenderness over the lateral condyle of the humerus with a painful dorsiflexion of the wrist is indicative of:
A) Golfer’s elbow
B) Pitcher’s elbow
C) Cricket elbow
D) Tennis elbow
Ans: 4
76) Congenital block vertebrae is seen in:
A) Paget’s disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Leukemia
D) Klippel-feil syndrome
Ans: 4
77) Which of the following structures is fixed first during reimplantation of an amputated digit:
A) Bone
B) Vein
C) Artery
D) Nerve
Ans: 1
78) Which of the following is a syndesmosis :
A) Inferior tibio fibular joint
B) Talo calcaneal joint
C) Calcaneao cuboid joint
D) Inter phalyngeal joint
Ans: 1
79) The operative procedure known as micro fracture is done for:
A) Delayed union of the femur
B) Osteochondral defect of the femur
C) Non union of tibia
D) Loose bodies of ankle joint
Ans: 2
80) Test for tight iliotibial band is:
A) Ober’s test
B) Simmand’s test
C) Osber’s test
D) Charnley’s test
Ans: 1
81) Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by:
A) Tetracycline labeling
B) Alizarin red stain
C) Calcin stain
D) Van kossa stain
Ans: 1
82) Trendelenberg’s test is positive in palsy of:
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Rectus femoris
C) Vastus medialis
D) Gluteus medius
Ans: 4
83) Rugger jersey spine is seen in:
A) Fluorosis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Renal osteodystrophy
D) Marfan’s syndrome
Ans: 3
84) Most common cause of death after total hip replacement is:
A) Anemia
B) Infection
C) Thromboembolism
D) Pneumonia
Ans: 3
85) Ring sequestrum is seen in:
A) Typhoid osteomyelitis
B) Chronic osteomyelitis
C) Tubercular osteomyelitis
D) Amputation stump
Ans: 4
86) Which of the following is true about a phantom limb:
A) Occurs in leprosy
B) Follow amputation
C) Follow a psychiatric illness
D) After filiarisis
Ans: 2
87) Myodesis is employed in amputations for all of the following indications, except:
A) Trauma
B) Tumor
C) Ischemia
D) Children
Ans: 3
88) Vascular repair to be done in which of the following Gustilo Anderson type of open injury:
A) IIIb
B) I
C) II
D) IIIc
Ans: 4
89) All are true for Glomus tumor except:
A) Arise from glomus like cells
B) Symptoms include pain, cold sensitivity, tenderness
C) Subungual
D) Symptoms may persist for years before diagnosis
Ans: 1
90) All are bone resorption markers used in monitoring the response to anti-osteoporotic therapy except:
A) Pyridinoline (PYD)
B) Procollagen type 1 N terminal propeptide (P1NP)
C) Deoxypyridinoline (DPD)
D) C-terminal Cross linked telopeptide (CTX)
Ans: 2
91) The obturator oblique view of the Pelvis shows all except:
A) Anterior column
B) Posterior Rim
C) Obturator ring
D) Pelvic brim
Ans: 4
92) Metal on metal articulation should be avoided in:
A) Osteonecrosis
B) Inflammatory arthritis
C) Young female
D) Revision surgery
Ans: 3
93) Normal bone remodeling in response to stress was described by:
A) Pauwels
B) Kuntscar
C) Wolff
D) Hugh owen thomas
Ans: 3
94) Salmonella osteomyelitis is common in:
A) Sickle cell disease
B) HIV
C) IV drug abusers
D) Pregnancy
Ans: 1
95) Shepherd’s crook deformity is seen in:
A) Adamantinoma
B) Non-ossifying fibroma
C) Fibrous cortical defect
D) Fibrous dysplasia
Ans: 4
96) Indication of surgical compartmental release in compartmental syndrome in any compartment is absolute pressure greater than:
A) 15mm Hg
B) 30mm Hg
C) 20mm Hg
D) 50mm Hg
Ans: 2
97) Palmar interossei are involved in:
A) Ulnar nerve palsy
B) Median merve palsy
C) Medial nerve palsy
D) Erb’s palsy
Ans: 1
98) Multiple bone metastasis are diagnosed by:
A) Ga 67 scan
B) MRI
C) In 127 scan
D) Tc 99 scan
Ans: 4
99) Combined anteversion test in THR should be:
A) 30-40 degree
B) 21-28 degree
C) 47-54 degree
D) 19-25 degree
Ans: 1
100) VEPTR is:
A) Method of predicting curve progression in Infantile scoliosis
B) Device used for management of Scoliosis in children
C) Phenomenon seen in curve progression in children more than 8 years of age
D) Technique used for management of scoliosis in adults
Ans: 2
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