DIALYSIS
DIALYSIS MCQs
1. Presence of this ion is responsible for hardness of water :
(A) Fluoride (B) Copper (C) Nitrates (D) Calcium
Ans: D
2. The LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) assay measures :
(A) Organic impurities (B) Inorganic impurities
(C) Bacterial count (D) Endotoxins
Ans: D
3. Which of the following methods are used to test the dialyzer to assure its efficacy ?
(A) Total cell volume (B) Leak test
(C) KUF test (D) All of the above
Ans: D
4. Which of the following membranes used in dialysis are not synthetic ?
(A) Polysulfone (B) Polyethersulfone
(C) Cellulose (D) Polyacrylonitrile (PAN)
Ans: C
5. Rule of 6 in assessing AV fistula maturation are all EXCEPT :
(A) 6 mm in diameter (B) less than 6 mm below the skin
(C) less than 6 cm in length (D) blood flow of at least 600 ml/min
Ans: C
6. Dialysis solution calcium levels normally range from :
(A) 1.25 to 1.5 mEq/L (B) 2.5 to 3.0 mEq/L
(C) 3.5 to 4.5 mEq/L (D) None of the above
Ans: B
7. Peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis patients is defined by :
(A) Presence of cloudy PD effluent
(B) 100 white blood cells/mm3
(C) At least 50% polymorphonuclear cells
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
8. Which among the following statements are false regarding ultrafiltration failure ?
(A) Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 2.25 dextrose dialysis solution
(B) Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
(C) Net UF is less than 200ml after a 4 hour dwell of 2.25 dextrose dialysis solution
(D) Net UF is less than 200ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
Ans: B
9. Benefits of regional citrate anticoagulation are all EXCEPT :
(A) Reduced neutrophil and compliment activation
(B) Reduced bleeding risk
(C) Better efficacy on circuit patency
(D) Hypocalcemia
Ans: D
10. Potential advantages of slow continuous therapies are all EXCEPT :
(A) Highly effective in removing fluid
(B) Deleterious effect on intracranial pressure
(C) Hemodynamically well tolerated
(D) Better control of azotemia
Ans: B
11. Dialyzer efficiency is best represented by :
(A) KoA (B) Ability to remove very large molecules
(C) High water permeability (D) All of the above
Ans: A
12. Hemodialysis is a therapy of choice for the following drug toxicity except :
(A) Lithium (B) Salicylate
(C) Ethylene glycol (D) Amitriptyline
Ans: D
13. The ideal blood flow rate for membrane plasma separation :
(A) 50 - 100 ml/min (B) 100 - 150 ml/min
(C) 150 - 200 ml/min (D) 200 - 250 ml/min
Ans: B
14. Complications during plasmapheresis are all EXCEPT :
(A) Hemorrhage (B) Hypocalcemia
(C) Hypertension (D) Thrombocytopenia
Ans: C
15. Type A dialyzer reaction is due to all of the following EXCEPT :
(A) Reaction to ethylene oxide (B) Reuse syndrome
(C) Heparin (D) Compliment activation
Ans: D
(A) Fluoride (B) Copper (C) Nitrates (D) Calcium
Ans: D
2. The LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) assay measures :
(A) Organic impurities (B) Inorganic impurities
(C) Bacterial count (D) Endotoxins
Ans: D
3. Which of the following methods are used to test the dialyzer to assure its efficacy ?
(A) Total cell volume (B) Leak test
(C) KUF test (D) All of the above
Ans: D
4. Which of the following membranes used in dialysis are not synthetic ?
(A) Polysulfone (B) Polyethersulfone
(C) Cellulose (D) Polyacrylonitrile (PAN)
Ans: C
5. Rule of 6 in assessing AV fistula maturation are all EXCEPT :
(A) 6 mm in diameter (B) less than 6 mm below the skin
(C) less than 6 cm in length (D) blood flow of at least 600 ml/min
Ans: C
6. Dialysis solution calcium levels normally range from :
(A) 1.25 to 1.5 mEq/L (B) 2.5 to 3.0 mEq/L
(C) 3.5 to 4.5 mEq/L (D) None of the above
Ans: B
7. Peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis patients is defined by :
(A) Presence of cloudy PD effluent
(B) 100 white blood cells/mm3
(C) At least 50% polymorphonuclear cells
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
8. Which among the following statements are false regarding ultrafiltration failure ?
(A) Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 2.25 dextrose dialysis solution
(B) Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
(C) Net UF is less than 200ml after a 4 hour dwell of 2.25 dextrose dialysis solution
(D) Net UF is less than 200ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
Ans: B
9. Benefits of regional citrate anticoagulation are all EXCEPT :
(A) Reduced neutrophil and compliment activation
(B) Reduced bleeding risk
(C) Better efficacy on circuit patency
(D) Hypocalcemia
Ans: D
10. Potential advantages of slow continuous therapies are all EXCEPT :
(A) Highly effective in removing fluid
(B) Deleterious effect on intracranial pressure
(C) Hemodynamically well tolerated
(D) Better control of azotemia
Ans: B
11. Dialyzer efficiency is best represented by :
(A) KoA (B) Ability to remove very large molecules
(C) High water permeability (D) All of the above
Ans: A
12. Hemodialysis is a therapy of choice for the following drug toxicity except :
(A) Lithium (B) Salicylate
(C) Ethylene glycol (D) Amitriptyline
Ans: D
13. The ideal blood flow rate for membrane plasma separation :
(A) 50 - 100 ml/min (B) 100 - 150 ml/min
(C) 150 - 200 ml/min (D) 200 - 250 ml/min
Ans: B
14. Complications during plasmapheresis are all EXCEPT :
(A) Hemorrhage (B) Hypocalcemia
(C) Hypertension (D) Thrombocytopenia
Ans: C
15. Type A dialyzer reaction is due to all of the following EXCEPT :
(A) Reaction to ethylene oxide (B) Reuse syndrome
(C) Heparin (D) Compliment activation
Ans: D
16. Heparinization during hemodialysis can be best monitored by :
(A) Bleeding
(B) Clotting
(C) Whole blood activated clotting time
(D) Clotting in dialysis circuit
Ans: C
17. What preventive measures can be practiced in dialysis units to control the incidence of Hepatitis B transmission ?
(A) Regular screening of patients and staff
(B) Designated area for patients with HbsAg positivity
(C) Offering Hepatitis B vaccine to all patients and staff
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
18 During PD ultrafiltration is accomplished by the utilization of :
(A) Hypertonic dialysate (B) Hypotonic dialysate
(C) Isotonic dialysate (D) None of the above
Ans: A
19. Complications of Heparin therapy include all EXCEPT :
(A) Prolonged vascular site bleeding
(B) Thrombocytopenia
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Chest pain
Ans: D
20. Low Conductivity may be caused by :
(A) Inadequate water flow
(B) Empty concentrate container
(C) Improperly prepared or incorrect concentrate
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
(A) Bleeding
(B) Clotting
(C) Whole blood activated clotting time
(D) Clotting in dialysis circuit
Ans: C
17. What preventive measures can be practiced in dialysis units to control the incidence of Hepatitis B transmission ?
(A) Regular screening of patients and staff
(B) Designated area for patients with HbsAg positivity
(C) Offering Hepatitis B vaccine to all patients and staff
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
18 During PD ultrafiltration is accomplished by the utilization of :
(A) Hypertonic dialysate (B) Hypotonic dialysate
(C) Isotonic dialysate (D) None of the above
Ans: A
19. Complications of Heparin therapy include all EXCEPT :
(A) Prolonged vascular site bleeding
(B) Thrombocytopenia
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Chest pain
Ans: D
20. Low Conductivity may be caused by :
(A) Inadequate water flow
(B) Empty concentrate container
(C) Improperly prepared or incorrect concentrate
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
21. Albumin, Globulin and Fibrinogen are :
(A) Intestinal enzymes (B) Plasma Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Pituitary hormones
Ans: B
22. Select the parts of nephron from the following :
(A) Henle’s loop and Bowman’s capsule
(B) Axon and Dendron
(C) Actin filament and myosin filament
(D) Collagen and Elastin
Ans: A
23. “Crossing over” during meiosis leads to :
(A) Gene migration (B) Translation
(C) Transcription (D) Gene recombination
Ans: D
24. Find out the character of mammals from the following :
(A) Poikilo thermous (B) Pneumatic bone
(C) Hairy Exoskeleton (D) Water vascular system
Ans: C
25. Which of the following is a Protozoan disease ?
(A) Typhoid fever (B) Pneumonia
(C) Malaria (D) Common Cold
Ans: C
26. Hormones show “Antagonistic effects” are :
(A) Adrenalin and Nor adrenalin (B) Insulin and Glucagon
(C) Calcitonin and Thyroxin (D) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
Ans: B
27. Who proposed the double helical structural model to DNA ?
(A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Hershey and Chase
(C) T.H. Morgan (D) James Watson and Francis Crick
Ans: D
28. Azotobacter and Azospirillum are :
(A) Bio fertilizers (B) Bio control agents
(C) Source of narcotic drugs (D) Plant Pathogens
Ans: A
29. Select the method of Exitu Conservation of Biodiversity from the following :
(A) Sacred groves (B) National park
(C) Zoological park (D) Biosphere reserve
Ans: C
30. Peptide bond is found in :
(A) Protein (B) Glycogen (C) Starch (D) Nucleic acids
Ans: A
(A) Intestinal enzymes (B) Plasma Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Pituitary hormones
Ans: B
22. Select the parts of nephron from the following :
(A) Henle’s loop and Bowman’s capsule
(B) Axon and Dendron
(C) Actin filament and myosin filament
(D) Collagen and Elastin
Ans: A
23. “Crossing over” during meiosis leads to :
(A) Gene migration (B) Translation
(C) Transcription (D) Gene recombination
Ans: D
24. Find out the character of mammals from the following :
(A) Poikilo thermous (B) Pneumatic bone
(C) Hairy Exoskeleton (D) Water vascular system
Ans: C
25. Which of the following is a Protozoan disease ?
(A) Typhoid fever (B) Pneumonia
(C) Malaria (D) Common Cold
Ans: C
26. Hormones show “Antagonistic effects” are :
(A) Adrenalin and Nor adrenalin (B) Insulin and Glucagon
(C) Calcitonin and Thyroxin (D) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
Ans: B
27. Who proposed the double helical structural model to DNA ?
(A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Hershey and Chase
(C) T.H. Morgan (D) James Watson and Francis Crick
Ans: D
28. Azotobacter and Azospirillum are :
(A) Bio fertilizers (B) Bio control agents
(C) Source of narcotic drugs (D) Plant Pathogens
Ans: A
29. Select the method of Exitu Conservation of Biodiversity from the following :
(A) Sacred groves (B) National park
(C) Zoological park (D) Biosphere reserve
Ans: C
30. Peptide bond is found in :
(A) Protein (B) Glycogen (C) Starch (D) Nucleic acids
Ans: A
31. The measurement of total cell volume (TCV) is used to determine :
(A) Performance of the dialyzer (B) Blood leak
(C) Contaminants (D) Residual chemical
Ans: A
32. Prior to every patient connection to a hemodialysis machine, the dialysate should be tested for :
(A) Colour of the dialysate (B) Electrolyte content
(C) Temperature (D) Conductivity and pH
Ans: D
33. What is the purpose of regional heparinization ?
(A) To systematically anticoagulate the patient
(B) To give only enough Heparin to keep the dialyzer clear
(C) Low dose Heparin
(D) To anticoagulate the blood in extracorporeal unit
Ans: D
34. How much protamine sulfate should be given to neutralize Heparin ?
(A) 1-1.5 mg protamine/100 u Heparin
(B) 2 mg protamine/1000 u Heparin
(C) 1 u protamine/1 u Heparin
(D) Depends on the patient weight
Ans: A
35. pH of .1 Molar NaOH solution assuming complete ionization is :
(A) 1 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) None
Ans: B
36. Duma’s method is used for estimation of :
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur (C) Halogen (D) Phosphorous
Ans: A
37. Which of the following is an intensive property ?
(A) Mass (B) Volume (C) Density (D) Heat Capacity
Ans: C
38. Number of electrons possible in a quantum level with 1=2 :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 10
Ans: D
39. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Iodoform test ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Ethanal (C) Propanone (D) Propanal
Ans: D
40. Subclavian vein catheterization should be avoided for temporary access in all patients with renal failure due to increased risk of :
(A) Central vein stenosis (B) Pneumothorax
(C) Infection (D) Difficult insertion
Ans: A
(A) Performance of the dialyzer (B) Blood leak
(C) Contaminants (D) Residual chemical
Ans: A
32. Prior to every patient connection to a hemodialysis machine, the dialysate should be tested for :
(A) Colour of the dialysate (B) Electrolyte content
(C) Temperature (D) Conductivity and pH
Ans: D
33. What is the purpose of regional heparinization ?
(A) To systematically anticoagulate the patient
(B) To give only enough Heparin to keep the dialyzer clear
(C) Low dose Heparin
(D) To anticoagulate the blood in extracorporeal unit
Ans: D
34. How much protamine sulfate should be given to neutralize Heparin ?
(A) 1-1.5 mg protamine/100 u Heparin
(B) 2 mg protamine/1000 u Heparin
(C) 1 u protamine/1 u Heparin
(D) Depends on the patient weight
Ans: A
35. pH of .1 Molar NaOH solution assuming complete ionization is :
(A) 1 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) None
Ans: B
36. Duma’s method is used for estimation of :
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur (C) Halogen (D) Phosphorous
Ans: A
37. Which of the following is an intensive property ?
(A) Mass (B) Volume (C) Density (D) Heat Capacity
Ans: C
38. Number of electrons possible in a quantum level with 1=2 :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 10
Ans: D
39. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Iodoform test ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Ethanal (C) Propanone (D) Propanal
Ans: D
40. Subclavian vein catheterization should be avoided for temporary access in all patients with renal failure due to increased risk of :
(A) Central vein stenosis (B) Pneumothorax
(C) Infection (D) Difficult insertion
Ans: A
41. The three steps of urine formation are :
(A) Glomerular filtration, diffusion, ultrafiltration
(B) Filtration, reabsorption, ultrafiltration
(C) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
(D) Clearance, glomerular filtration, ultrafiltration
Ans: C
42. What is the normal adult glomerular filtration rate ?
(A) 99 ml/hr (B) 2000 ml/day (C) 80 ml/hr (D) 125 ml/min
Ans: D
43. All of the following are functions of the kidney EXCEPT :
(A) Regulation of acid base balance
(B) Maintenance of fluid balance
(C) Elimination of metabolic waste
(D) Release of aldosterone
Ans: D
44. Diffusion is the movement of :
(A) Solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
(B) Solute from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
(C) Solvent from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
(D) Solvent from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
Ans: A
45. An elevated serum potassium is when the level is above :
(A) 2.5 mEq/L (B) 4.0 mEq/L (C) 2.0 mEq/L (D) 5.5 mEq/L
Ans: D
46. Acidosis is defined when pH falls below :
(A) Less than 7.35 (B) Less than 7.45
(C) Less than 7.55 (D) Less than 8.0
Ans: A
47. Primary cause of anemia in CKD is :
(A) Erythropoetin deficiency (B) Iron deficiency
(C) Blood loss (D) Folate deficiency
Ans: A
48. The list below indicates reasons for malnutrition in chronic renal failure. Of these which one is considered to be the major cause of malnutrition ?
(A) Metabolic derangements
(B) Dialysis associated catabolism
(C) Uremic toxins
(D) Decreased nutrient intake
Ans: D
49. In hemodialysis the removal of urea from the patient is Primarily due to the existence of :
(A) Osmotic pressure (B) Hydrostatic pressure
(C) Electrical gradient (D) Concentration gradient
Ans: D
50. The optimum value for the dialysis solution flow rate is ___________ times the blood flow rate.
(A) 1.0 - 1.5 (B) 2.0 - 2.5 (C) 1.5 - 2.0 (D) 2.5 - 3.0
Ans: C
(A) Glomerular filtration, diffusion, ultrafiltration
(B) Filtration, reabsorption, ultrafiltration
(C) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
(D) Clearance, glomerular filtration, ultrafiltration
Ans: C
42. What is the normal adult glomerular filtration rate ?
(A) 99 ml/hr (B) 2000 ml/day (C) 80 ml/hr (D) 125 ml/min
Ans: D
43. All of the following are functions of the kidney EXCEPT :
(A) Regulation of acid base balance
(B) Maintenance of fluid balance
(C) Elimination of metabolic waste
(D) Release of aldosterone
Ans: D
44. Diffusion is the movement of :
(A) Solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
(B) Solute from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
(C) Solvent from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
(D) Solvent from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
Ans: A
45. An elevated serum potassium is when the level is above :
(A) 2.5 mEq/L (B) 4.0 mEq/L (C) 2.0 mEq/L (D) 5.5 mEq/L
Ans: D
46. Acidosis is defined when pH falls below :
(A) Less than 7.35 (B) Less than 7.45
(C) Less than 7.55 (D) Less than 8.0
Ans: A
47. Primary cause of anemia in CKD is :
(A) Erythropoetin deficiency (B) Iron deficiency
(C) Blood loss (D) Folate deficiency
Ans: A
48. The list below indicates reasons for malnutrition in chronic renal failure. Of these which one is considered to be the major cause of malnutrition ?
(A) Metabolic derangements
(B) Dialysis associated catabolism
(C) Uremic toxins
(D) Decreased nutrient intake
Ans: D
49. In hemodialysis the removal of urea from the patient is Primarily due to the existence of :
(A) Osmotic pressure (B) Hydrostatic pressure
(C) Electrical gradient (D) Concentration gradient
Ans: D
50. The optimum value for the dialysis solution flow rate is ___________ times the blood flow rate.
(A) 1.0 - 1.5 (B) 2.0 - 2.5 (C) 1.5 - 2.0 (D) 2.5 - 3.0
Ans: C
51. The first two hemodialysis treatments, for a patient with an extremely elevated BUN, are
(purposely) less efficient to primarily prevent which complication ?
(A) Rapid decrease in hematocrit
(B) Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
(C) Cardiac arrhythmias
(D) Excessive anticoagulation
Ans: B
52. Transmembrane pressure consists of which of the following pressure gradients on each side of the dialysis membrane ?
(a) Positive pressure on the blood side
(b) Negative pressure on the blood side
(c) Positive pressure on the dialysate side
(d) Negative pressure on the dialysate side
(A) (d) only (B) (b) and (d) only
(C) (b) and (c) only (D) (a) and (d) only
Ans: D
53. To maintain an optimum gradient between blood and dialysate across the dialyzer membrane which type of blood to dialysate flow is used ?
(A) Co-current flow (B) Cross-current flow
(C) Counter-current flow (D) Parallel flow
Ans: C
54. The potential for an air embolism to occur during hemodialysis is great. However, the technology today makes it a rare occurrence. What possible reason could there be for this to really happen to your patient ?
(A) Disconnected venous needle
(B) Disconnected arterial line
(C) Malfunctioning air detector
(D) Saline bag for infusion depleted
Ans: C
55. The dialysis machine assures the dialysate entering the dialyzer is safe for the patient’s treatment. What does it do to assure this ?
(A) Regulates the temperature, conductivity, pH, measures pressure and flow, detects a
blood leak
(B) Alerts the user if something is wrong
(C) Bypasses the dialyzer if dialysate is not safe
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
56. The movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is called :
(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Ultrafiltration (D) Dialysis
Ans: B
57. The volume of plasma cleared of a given substance per unit of time is the definition of :
(A) Clearance (B) Dialysis (C) Dialysance (D) Net flux
Ans: A
(purposely) less efficient to primarily prevent which complication ?
(A) Rapid decrease in hematocrit
(B) Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
(C) Cardiac arrhythmias
(D) Excessive anticoagulation
Ans: B
52. Transmembrane pressure consists of which of the following pressure gradients on each side of the dialysis membrane ?
(a) Positive pressure on the blood side
(b) Negative pressure on the blood side
(c) Positive pressure on the dialysate side
(d) Negative pressure on the dialysate side
(A) (d) only (B) (b) and (d) only
(C) (b) and (c) only (D) (a) and (d) only
Ans: D
53. To maintain an optimum gradient between blood and dialysate across the dialyzer membrane which type of blood to dialysate flow is used ?
(A) Co-current flow (B) Cross-current flow
(C) Counter-current flow (D) Parallel flow
Ans: C
54. The potential for an air embolism to occur during hemodialysis is great. However, the technology today makes it a rare occurrence. What possible reason could there be for this to really happen to your patient ?
(A) Disconnected venous needle
(B) Disconnected arterial line
(C) Malfunctioning air detector
(D) Saline bag for infusion depleted
Ans: C
55. The dialysis machine assures the dialysate entering the dialyzer is safe for the patient’s treatment. What does it do to assure this ?
(A) Regulates the temperature, conductivity, pH, measures pressure and flow, detects a
blood leak
(B) Alerts the user if something is wrong
(C) Bypasses the dialyzer if dialysate is not safe
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
56. The movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is called :
(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Ultrafiltration (D) Dialysis
Ans: B
57. The volume of plasma cleared of a given substance per unit of time is the definition of :
(A) Clearance (B) Dialysis (C) Dialysance (D) Net flux
Ans: A
58. What are the factors to consider when establishing a dry weight for the patient ?
(A) Blood pressure
(B) Patient well being
(C) Evidence of dehydration or overload
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
59. The process by which a large volume of fluid is removed at a rapid rate, with little or
no solute removal except by convection is called :
(A) Osmosis (B) Hemodialysis
(C) Ultrafiltration (D) Isolated or pure ultrafiltration
Ans: D
60. The primary purpose of the proportional pump in a dialysate delivery system is to :
(A) Prepare the dialysate in proper pH
(B) Prepare the dialysate in proper temperature
(C) Prepare the dialysate in proper water to concentrate ratio
(D) Deliver the concentrate at the proper rate
Ans: C
61. Why is the hemodialysis patient discouraged from eating heavy meals before or during dialysis ?
(A) May cause hyperkalemia post dialysis
(B) Can contribute to vomiting during dialysis
(C) May contribute to hypotension
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
62. Urea clearance is enhanced by :
(A) High blood flow rate and high dialysate flow rate
(B) Co-current flow
(C) A small dialyzer
(D) Osmotic pressure gradient
Ans: A
63. What is the national standard for hemodialysis prescription (weekly KT/V) to minimize
morbidity/mortality rates ?
(A) > 0.8 (B) > 0.4 (C) > 1.0 (D) > 1.2
Ans: D
64. The regular use of a high sodium dialysate bath may predispose the patient to :
(A) Fluid overload (B) Hypertension
(C) Thirst (D) All of the above
Ans: D
65. Kolff developed the :
(A) First disposable dialyzer (B) First plate dialyzer
(C) Scribner shunt (D) Mahurker catheter
Ans: A
66. The capability of a dialyzer to remove fluid expressed as ml/hr/mmHg is called :
(A) UF- coefficient (B) Clearance
(C) Surface area (D) Priming volume
Ans: A
67. Pre-pump arterial pressure reading is reflective of :
(A) The pressure required to pump the blood through the circuit
(B) The resistance of the access to the blood flow out of the access device
(C) The pressure within the dialyzer
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
68. What symptoms might be manifested in the patient experiencing air embolism ?
(A) Cyanosis, hypotension, burning in the chest
(B) Chest pain, Shortness of Breath, confusion
(C) Confusion, cherry red blood
(D) Hypotension, double vision
Ans: B
69. The appearance of cherry red blood, drop in Hct, hypotension, and chest pain are signs of :
(A) Residual chemical reaction (B) First use syndrome
(C) Disequilibrium syndrome (D) Hemolysis
Ans: D
70. What determines the surface area of a hollow fiber dialyzer ?
(A) Number of fibers (B) Inner diameter
(C) Length (D) All of the above
Ans: D
71. The most important predisposing factors for muscle cramping during hemodialysis are all EXCEPT :
(A) Hypovolemia (B) Hypotension
(C) High sodium dialysis solution (D) High UF rate
Ans: C
(A) First disposable dialyzer (B) First plate dialyzer
(C) Scribner shunt (D) Mahurker catheter
Ans: A
66. The capability of a dialyzer to remove fluid expressed as ml/hr/mmHg is called :
(A) UF- coefficient (B) Clearance
(C) Surface area (D) Priming volume
Ans: A
67. Pre-pump arterial pressure reading is reflective of :
(A) The pressure required to pump the blood through the circuit
(B) The resistance of the access to the blood flow out of the access device
(C) The pressure within the dialyzer
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
68. What symptoms might be manifested in the patient experiencing air embolism ?
(A) Cyanosis, hypotension, burning in the chest
(B) Chest pain, Shortness of Breath, confusion
(C) Confusion, cherry red blood
(D) Hypotension, double vision
Ans: B
69. The appearance of cherry red blood, drop in Hct, hypotension, and chest pain are signs of :
(A) Residual chemical reaction (B) First use syndrome
(C) Disequilibrium syndrome (D) Hemolysis
Ans: D
70. What determines the surface area of a hollow fiber dialyzer ?
(A) Number of fibers (B) Inner diameter
(C) Length (D) All of the above
Ans: D
71. The most important predisposing factors for muscle cramping during hemodialysis are all EXCEPT :
(A) Hypovolemia (B) Hypotension
(C) High sodium dialysis solution (D) High UF rate
Ans: C
72. All of the following statements concerning “first use syndrome” are true EXCEPT :
(A) This is an allergic reaction to new dialyzers
(B) Back pain, chest pain and difficulty breathing may be manifested
(C) Symptoms are usually manifested within 15 minutes of contact
(D) Synthetic membranes are more commonly associated with this syndrome
Ans: D
73. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning disequilibrium syndrome ?
(a) Most common in severely catabolic cases
(b) Headaches, confusion and seizures may be manifested
(c) Occurrence is related to cerebral edema
(d) Can only be seen in a patient who has never had dialysis before
(A) (a) only (B) (a) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only (D) All of the above
Ans: C
74. Who developed the fistula ?
(A) Turner (B) Scribner
(C) Quinton (D) Brescia and Cimino
Ans: D
75. What is the purpose of a chest x-ray after the insertion of a dual lumen catheter into a subclavian or jugular vein ?
(A) To confirm proper placement of the catheter
(B) To confirm patency of the catheter
(C) To confirm patency and position
(D) To confirm position and absence of pneumothorax
Ans: D
(A) This is an allergic reaction to new dialyzers
(B) Back pain, chest pain and difficulty breathing may be manifested
(C) Symptoms are usually manifested within 15 minutes of contact
(D) Synthetic membranes are more commonly associated with this syndrome
Ans: D
73. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning disequilibrium syndrome ?
(a) Most common in severely catabolic cases
(b) Headaches, confusion and seizures may be manifested
(c) Occurrence is related to cerebral edema
(d) Can only be seen in a patient who has never had dialysis before
(A) (a) only (B) (a) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only (D) All of the above
Ans: C
74. Who developed the fistula ?
(A) Turner (B) Scribner
(C) Quinton (D) Brescia and Cimino
Ans: D
75. What is the purpose of a chest x-ray after the insertion of a dual lumen catheter into a subclavian or jugular vein ?
(A) To confirm proper placement of the catheter
(B) To confirm patency of the catheter
(C) To confirm patency and position
(D) To confirm position and absence of pneumothorax
Ans: D
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