SPEECH PATHOLOGY

CSE Mains Speech Pathology Syllabus

(These syllabus may change from time to time. Please check with the relevant Public Service Commission websites for any changes in the syllabus)

1. General introduction, definitions, Coronal / saggital / plane) Planes. Definition of anatomy, morphology, physiology, histology, embryology. Definition of Cell and organelles, tissue, organ system, specialized tissues like nervous tissue, vascular tissue, muscle and bone tissue. Nervous system: Definition of neuron, synapse, reflex action, bio electrical phenomena, action potential, depolarisation, division and functions of the nervous system, brain – general lobes, reticular formations, basal ganglia, cerebellum, circle of willis, cranial nerves, spinal cord, CSF – formation & flow. Circulatory system: Definition of capillaries, arteries, veins, cardiac cycle, blood brain barrier, aneurysm, vascular shock – its reference to aphasia / speech disorders. Respiratory system: General outline, detailed study of trachea, larynx and nasopharynx,

2. Definition of inflammation, infection, tumor – benign & malignant, tissue healing. Mechanism of respiration – internal and external influence, nervous control – vital capacity – tidal volume, residual air, artificial respiration. Genetics :introduction – structure of DNA and RNA, karyotyping, family tree (pedigree chart), symbolic representation, inheritance, autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, sex chromosomal disorders, structural aberrations, mutation Endocrine system: Definition of hormone, functions of thyroid hormone, growth hormone, androgen, testosterone and its influence in voice disorders.

3. Anatomy & Physiology of external, middle & inner ear, auditory pathways, vestibular pathway. Diseases of the external middle and inner ear leading to hearing loss: Congenital malformations, traumatic lesions, infections, management of middle ear and Eustachian tube disorders. Other causes of hearing loss – Facial paralysis, Tumors of the cerebello- pontine angle, Acoustic neuroma. Infection and management of inner ear diseases. Cochleovestibular diseases and its management.

4. Anatomy & Physiology of pharynx & oro-peripheral structures Causes of speech disorder, Disorders of the mouth, Tumors of the jaw and oral cavity, nasopharynx and pharynx, pharyngitis, Diseases of tonsils and adenoids. Oesophageal conditions: Congenital abnormality – Atresia, Tracheo-oesophageal fistula, Stenosis, Short oesophagus. Neoplasm – Benign, Malignant, Lesions of the oral articulatory structures like cleft lip, cleft palate, submucosal cleft, Velopharyngeal incompetence.

5. Anatomy & Physiology of larynx – physiology of phonation / physiology of respiration. Congenital diseases of the larynx – difference between an infant and an adult larynx. Stridor – causes of infantile stridor. Disorders of structure – Laryngomalacia, Bifid epiglottis, Laryngeal web, Atresia, fistula, Laryngeal cleft, Tumors and Cysts, Laryngitis, Laryngeal trauma and Stenosis. Neuromuscular dysfunctions of the larynx – Vocal cord palsy, Spastic dysphonia, Hypothyroidism, gastro oesophageal reflux disorders, Laryngectomy, artificial larynx, oesophageal speech, tracheo oesophageal puncture

6. Fluency: Definition, development of fluency, factors influencing the development Definitions of intonation, stress and rhythm- Development of intonation, rhythm, stress – their implications to therapy Measures of fluency and other prosodic aspects. Stuttering: definition, nature, incidence and prevalence Normal non fluency; primary stuttering; secondary stuttering Development of stuttering Cluttering and neurogenic stuttering, Theories of stuttering: organic vs. functional; cerebral dominance; diagnosogenic and learning theories; demand-capacity model. Assessment of stuttering; Associated problems Differential diagnosis of developmental stuttering, neurogenic stuttering, cluttering, normal non fluency, spasmodic dysphonia. Prevention Therapy; rationale; prolongation; shadowing; habit rehearsal technique, DAF, masking, shock therapy, desensitization, timeout, airflow and modified airflow technique; sequence of therapy procedures MIDVAS Transfer and maintenance Measurement of progress; naturalness rating Relapse and recovery

SPEECH PATHOLOGY MCQs

1:- __________is an autosomal dominant multiple tic disorder that begins in childhood.
A:-Landua-Klefner syndrome B:-Tourette syndrome C:-Treacher's colin syndrome D:-Usher's syndrome
Ans: B

2:-Following are muscles of pharynx except one that is ________
A:-Superior constrictor B:-Pa|atog|ossus
C:-Salpingopharyngeus D:-|nferior constrictor
Ans: B

3:-___________ is a high, front and unrounded vowel.
A:-/e/
B:-/i/
C:-/a/
D:-/ae/
Ans: B

4:-___________ is a disorder in which motor plans are intact but individual motor gestures are disturbed.
A:-Ideomotor apraxia B:-|deationa| apraxia
C:-Apraxia of spech D:-Buccofacia| apaxia
Ans: A

5:-The Broadman's area number "40" is
A:-Broca's area B:-Wernicke's area
C:-Angular gyrus D:-Supramargina| gyrus
Ans: D

6:-The two cerebral hemispheres are connected with a mass of white matter called
A:-Arcuate fasiculus B:-Centra| sulcus
C:-Corpus callosum D:-Angu|ar gyrus
Ans: C

7:-The _________act is referred to listener's interpretation of the message.
A:-Illocutionary act B:-Perlocutionary act C:-Locutionary act D:-None of the above
Ans: B

8:- ___________is the primary proponent of behavioristic theory of language acquisition.
A:-Chomsky B:-Skinner C:-Osgood D:-Piaget
Ans: B

9:-Chomsky's work is recognized as
A:-behavior therapy B:-cognitive therapy C:-speech act theory D:-syntactic theory
Ans: D

10:-The nativistic theory emphasizes on _____________component of language.
A:-Pragmatics B:-Syntax C:-Morpho|ogy D:-Semantics
Ans: B

11:-Diagnosis made on the basis of results of inducing symptoms of a suspected disability is
A:-Provocative Diagnosis B:-C|inica| Diagnosis C:-Instrumenta| Diagnosis D:-Team diagnosis
Ans: A

12:-In ______ technique there is breaking of a complex or difficult response into smaller more easily learned components.
A:-Recast B:-Mode||ing C:-Shaping D:-Prompting
Ans: C

13:-In _____________approach a child's prior utterance is added by relevant grammatical and semantic details by the clinician.
A:-parallel talk B:-expansion C:-extension D:-recast sentences
Ans: C

14:- __________diagnostic term involves both descriptive and interactive functions of behavior.
A:-Eva|uation B:-Appraisal C:-Testing D:-Examination
Ans: A

15:-Following are the factors that determine progress of therapy sequence except
A:-Stimu|us type B:-Response level C:-Task mode D:-Gestures
Ans: D

16:- ___________type of test gives clinician flexibility in terms of administration, scoring and testing environment.
A:-Criterion referenced test B:-Norm referenced test
C:-naire D:-None of the above
Ans: A

17:-Incidenta| teaching is most effective for ___________children.
A:-ADHD B:-Hearing impairment C:-Autism D:-All of the above
Ans: C

18:-Sensory integration is used in all except
A:-SLI
B:-Autism
C:-ADHD
D:-Cerebral Palsy
Ans: A

19:-In ___________ type of dental occlusion the lower dental arch is in a posterior relation to the upper dental arch.
A:-Distoc|usion B:-Mesioclusion
C:-Neutroclusion D:-Both 2 and 1
Ans: A

20:-The amount of air passing in and out of the lungs during normal resting respiration is
A:-Tidal volume B:-Inspiratory reserve volume
C:-Expiratory reserve volume D:-Residual volume
Ans: A

21:-A possible etiology of faulty pitch could be
A:-Vocal fold palsy B:-Laryngeal web
C:-Mutational falsetto D:-Hearing impairment
Ans: C

22:-In dysphagia clients with weakened posterior pharyngeal wall _____ strategy is effective.
A:-Masako Maneuver B:-Mendelshohn Maneuver
C:-Effortfull swallow D:-Supraglottic swallow
Ans: A

23:-|n ___________ condition an individual is unable to recognize previously known people.
A:-Somatoagnosia B:-Prosopagnosia C:-Autotopagnosia D:-Astereognosia
Ans: B
24:- _________ type of aphasia has good repetition skills and impaired naming and non-fiuent conversational speech.
A:-Transcortica| motor B:-G|oba| C:-Broca's D:-Anomic
Ans: A

25:-If CVA occurs in ____________ artery, the patient may experience aphasia, alexia, agraphia or visual field deficits.
A:-Internal carotid artery B:-Midd|e cerebral artery
C:-Anterior cerebral artery D:-Basi|ar artery
Ans: B

26:-Monopitch, monoloudness, short rushes of speech and reduced loudness are speech characteristics of
A:-Hyperkinetic Dysarthria B:-Flaccid Dysarthria
C:-Spastic Dysarthria D:-Hypokinetic Dysarthria
Ans: D

27:- _________ nerve functions as taste receptors to posterior l/3rd of the tongue, elevation of palate and larynx and helps in swallowing.
A:-Glossopharyngeal B:-Vagus C:-Hypoglossal D:-Trigeminal
Ans: A

28:- ___________ type of hyperkinesia is characterized by slow, irregular, coarse, writhing movements.
A:-Dystonia B:-Athetosis C:-Chorea D:-Myoclonus
Ans: B

29:-Which of the following statements is not correct about otoacoustic emissions?
A:-OAEs are measures of outer hair cell integrity B:-OAEs are electro physiologic
C:-OAEs are preneural D:-OAEs involve both inward and outward propagation
Ans: D

30:- ___________ is a lingualveolar, voiceless, fricative consonant.
A:-/s/ B:-/z/ C:-/f/ D:-/|/
Ans: A

31:-|n _________ process a child says/nets/for/nest/
A:-Metathesis B:-Pa|ata|ization C:-Assimilation D:-Dimunitization
Ans: A

32:-Larynx has __________number of paired cartilages.
A:-Two B:-Three C:-Four D:-None of them
Ans: B

33:-Lenticular nucleus or lentiform body is composed of
A:-Globus pallidus and putamen B:-Putamen and caudate nucleus
C:-Thalamus and caudate nucleus D:-Putamen and thalamus
Ans: A

34:-The basic structures of the face are distinguishable by ________ week of fetal life of the embryo.
A:-8th B:-9th C:-5th D:-4th
Ans: C

35:-Reduplicated babbling is seen by ___________of age.
A:-7 months B:-2 months C:-l8 months D:-12 months
Ans: A

36:-The /n/ in snow often is only partially voiced in the speech of most people because of
A:-vocal fatigue B:-the /s/ is voiceless
C:-the following vowel is voiceless D:-a misarticulation
Ans: B

37:-Which of the following approaches typically is not used in phonological therapy
A:-Minimal pairs approach B:-Cycles approaches C:-Traditional approach D:-Distinctive feature approach
Ans: C

38:-Which of the following would most likely cause a patient to speak almost entirely in neologisms?
A:-Damage to cranial nerves B:-Severe Wernicke's aphasia C:-Mixed dysarthria D:-F|accid dysarthria
Ans: B

39:-Which of the following is least used in apraxia treatment?
A:-Motor strengthening exercises B:-Exaggerated intonation as if singing
C:-Imitation exercises D:-Audio visual training
Ans: A

40:-Which does not describe a common disruption of phonation in dysarthria?
A:-Breathy voice B:-Aphonic voice C:-Harsh voice D:-|nconsistently higher pitch
Ans: D

41:-Advanced multiple sclerosis is most likely to result in which type of dysarthria
A:-Hyperkinetic dysarthria B:-F|accid dysarthria C:-Hypokinetic dysarthria D:-Variable dysarthria
Ans: D

42:-Ataxic dysarthria is most likely to occur from which of the following
A:-Damage to the cingulate gyrus B:-Cerebe||ar deterioration
C:-Blockage of middle cerebral artery D:-Alzheimers disease
Ans: B

43:-The primary motor area in the cortex is located in
A:-Brocas area B:-Corpus callosum C:-Precentralgyrus D:-Angular gyrus
Ans: C

44:-In classic anomic aphasia, the lesion site is usually in
A:-Wernickes B:-Right parietal region C:-Left angular gyrus D:-Left arcuate fasiculus
Ans: C

45:-What is the phonatory control center in the medulla oblongata?
A:-Substantianigra B:-Jugular ganglion C:-Medial geniculate bodies D:-Nucleus ambiguous
Ans: D

46:- _________ is used for diagnosing various infections and hemorrhages of the CNS that are not observable from CT scan.
A:-EGG B:-Doppler test C:-Lumbar puncture D:-ECG
Ans: C

47:-Which of the following is called as bradykinesia?
A:-Slow movement B:-Movements with limited range
C:-Involuntary movements characterized by tremor D:-Chorea
Ans: A

48:- __________ is characterized by violent, forceful flinging movements of the arms and legs.
A:-Ba|lism B:-Chorea C:-Dyskinesia D:-Bradykinesia
Ans: A

49:-The pharyngeal phase initiated as the bolus reaches
A:-tonsi|s B:-back of the tongue C:-esophagus D:-|ower sphincter
Ans: A

50:-Chronic diffuse swelling of superficial lamina propria of the vocal fold is known as
A:-Reinke's edema B:-Vocal nodules C:-Chronic laryngitis D:-Vocal polyp
Ans: A

51:-The number of new cases in a population during a specified period of time is
A:-prevalence B:-incidence C:-transmission D:-inheritance
Ans: B

52:- ___________ is an example of non-preventable cause of hearing loss.
A:-Middle ear infection B:-Rh incompatibility C:-Noise D:-Aging
Ans: D

53:-VRA procedure is an example of __________ type of conditioning.
A:-pure classical B:-pure operant C:-more classical than operant D:-more operant than classical
Ans: D

54:-A marked decrease in speech recognition ability with increasing intensity level is a feature of _________ pathology.
A:-cochlear B:-centra| C:-conductive D:-retrocochlear
Ans: D

55:-The communication between scala vestibule and scala tymapani is established through
A:-Helicotrema B:-Hamulus C:-Hebemula perforate D:-Scala media
Ans: A

56:-Consistency of results between repeated measures is known as
A:-validity B:-dependability C:-reliability D:-feedback
Ans: C

57:-Occlusion effect is found to be absent in cases with _____ loss.
A:-Uni|atera| B:-Functional C:-Conductive D:-Sensorineura|
Ans: C

58:-|nteraural attenuation for bone conduction is
A:-40 B:-10 C:-0 D:--10
Ans: C

59:-Auropalpebral reflex is another name for
A:-neck extension B:-eye blink C:-startle D:-head turn
Ans: B

60:-The ability of binaural listening to 'tune in' to a wanted signal and at the same time to minimize the interfering effects of unwanted background noise is referred to as __________effect.
A:-squelch B:-head shadow C:-precedence D:-summation
Ans: A

61:-Hearing loss sharply reduces the _______ that the child has and thus slows down the process of learning to talk.
A:-listening experiences B:-vocal experiences
C:-attention control D:-articulatory experience
Ans: A

62:-One of the important prerequisites for VRA includes
A:-development of head turn response B:-development of vocalization
C:-appropriate birth history D:-adequate speech skills
Ans: A

63:-An adult with a moderate degree of conductive hearing loss is likely to get ______ % scores on WRS testing.
A:-10-20 B:-30-50
C:-70-80 D:-95-100
Ans: C

64:-The presence of components in an output signal which are multiples of the input signal frequency is _______________ distortion.
A:-intermodulation B:-linear C:-harmonic D:-phase
Ans: D

65:-During EAC measurement, ___________ is measured with the volume control at the full-on position.
A:-Frequency range B:-Tota| Harmonic Distortion C:-Reference Test Gain D:-SSPL 90
Ans: B

66:-A coupler having a __________ cc cavity is used during hearing aid analysis.
A:-1.2
B:-2.0
C:-2.2
D:-6.0
Ans: B

67:-The advantage most readily apparent with binaural hearing aids is
A:-vastly better mid-frequency hearing B:-better cosmetic appeal C:-better unaided thresholds D:-improved localization
Ans: D

68:-A physical phenomenon which negatively affects the transmission of mid to high frequencies to the side of the far ear is _________ effect. A:-body baffle B:-precedence C:-transmission D:-head shadow
Ans: D

69:-An average adult REUR has a primary peak around ______ Hz of around ____________dB.
A:-1000, 4 B:-4200, 10
C:-2700, 17 D:-2900, 17
Ans: C

70:-Hearing aids in which both, the processing of the audio signals and the control for the processing is done by digital aids are __________aids.
A:-quasi-digital B:-programmable C:-a|l-digital D:-semi-digital
Ans: C

71:-BICROS is used in cases that have ________
A:-both ears unaidable B:-one ear aidable and the other ear unaidable
C:-one ear normal and the other ear unaidable D:-one ear aidable and the other ear with a high frequency loss
Ans: B

72:- __________ systems involve the transmission of radio frequency waves.
A:-Hardwire B:-FM C:-Loop induction D:-Infra red
Ans: B

73:-The ratio of the change in input SPL to the change in output SPL at a specified input level in an AGC system is called as
A:-Compression ratio B:-Slewing ratio C:-AGC ratio D:-Compression threshold
Ans: A

74:-Linear amplification is also described as
A:-High gain B:-Flexible gain C:-Constant gain D:-Saturating gain
Ans: C

75:-The acoupedic program insists on developing oral language through the use of
A:-auditory sense B:-multi-sensory input
C:-tactile sense D:-auditory and visual sense
Ans: A

76:-The dB scale belongs to the ___________scale of measurement.
A:-ratio B:-ordina| C:-interva| D:-nomina|
Ans: A

77:-The embryonic period usually terminates around the __________ week when the structure assumes a "human" appearance and is known as a fetus.
A:-6th B:-8th C:-7th D:-9th
Ans: B

78:-The human cochlea acquires normal adult function after __________ week of gestation.
A:-18 B:-19 C:-20 D:-21
Ans: C

79:-Which of the following develops first during the development of the inner ear?
A:-semicircular canals B:-cochlear duct C:-sensori cells in the cochlea D:-utricle and saccule
Ans: D

80:-ln high risk factors 'H' stands for
A:-High fever B:-Hyperbilirubinemia C:-Hyperthyroidism D:-Hypothyroidism
Ans: B

81:-A single number that summarizes the overall level of noise exposure "averaged" over its duration is called as
A:-Noise reduction rating B:-Noise reduction coefficient C:-Equivalent level D:-Noise dose
Ans: D

82:-Temporal auditory summation is a ___________ phenomenon.
A:-Cochlear B:-Conductive C:-Neural D:-|nner hair cells
Ans: C

83:-The probability that a truly hearing impaired will fail a hearing screening test is called
A:-Reliability B:-Specificity C:-Sensitivity D:-Validity
Ans: C

84:-What results when frequency of the driving force is the same as the frequency of the driven system?
A:-amplification B:-frequency compression C:-harmonic enhancement D:-resonance
Ans: D

85:-The restricted band of frequencies around a pure-tone that contributes to the masking of the tone is called
A:-critica| ratio
B:-spectrum of noise
C:-critica| band
D:-none of the above
Ans: C

86:-Middle ear contribution to hearing through bone conduction is more at
A:-Mid frequencies B:-Low frequencies C:-High frequencies D:-Mid and High frequencies
Ans: A

87:-The phenomenon of 'tonal perversion' is the basis of tone decay test given by
A:-Jerger B:-Green C:-Carthart D:-Owens
Ans: B

88:- __________ type of Bekesy audiogram is seen in individuals with cochlear hearing loss.
A:-Type lll B:-Type l C:-Type ll D:-Type IV
Ans: C

89:-Monaural Loudness Balance test can be administered in individuals having
A:-bi|atera| symmetrical hearing loss B:-unilateral hearing loss
C:-bi|atera| asymmetrical hearing loss D:-hearing loss with normal threshold at least at one frequency
Ans: D

90:-ABR is the method of choice for infant hearing screening because
A:-responses are not influenced by the infants condition B:-ear specific information can be obtained
C:-mild to moderate hearing loss can be determined D:-a|l of the above
Ans: D

91:-In ABR testing, a non-inverting electrode is called as _________ electrode.
A:-Ground B:-Positive C:-Negative D:-Reference
Ans: B

92:-E|ectrocochleography (EcochG) is the measurement of electrical potentials that are derived from
A:-brainstem function B:-middle ear function
C:-cochlear function D:-cortica| function
Ans: C

93:-DPOAEs are elicited by presenting two stimulus tones with different frequencies (f1 & f2). The frequency of DPOAE is equal to
A:-2fl - f2/2 B:-f1 - 2f2 C:-2fl - f2 D:-2f2 - f1
Ans: D

94:-The microphone used in OAEs recording should have
A:-high internal noise and narrow bandwidth B:-|ow internal noise and narrow bandwidth
C:-|ow internal noise and wide bandwidth D:-high internal noise and wide bandwidth
Ans: C

95:-Loudness is strongly dependent on
A:-Duration
B:-Spectrum
C:-Sound pressure
D:-Envelop
Ans: C

96:-What does a biphasic acoustic reflex (onset and offset) indicate?
A:-acoustic neuroma B:-ossicular discontinuity C:-otitis media D:-stapes fixation
Ans: D

97:-What happens when the stapedius muscle contracts?
A:-the impedance at the tympanic membrane increases
B:-the impedance at the tympanic membrane decreases
C:-the impedance and admittance at the tympanic membrane increases
D:-the impedance and admittance at the tympanic membrane decreases
Ans: A

98:-Bioler's notch is seen at ___________ frequency.
A:-2000 Hz B:-4000 Hz C:-3000 Hz D:-1000 Hz
Ans: B