LAW
UPSC CSE Law MCQs
1. Which chapter of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 is related to the police accountability ?
(a) Chapter VI
(b) Chapter VII
(c) Chapter VIII
(d) Chapter IX
Answer: Option C
2. ‘Police Personnel’ means such police officers, whose appointing authority is
(a) State Public Service Commission
(b) Director General of Police or Any Officer Subordinate to him
(c) Staff Selection Commission
(d) State Government
Answer: Option B
3. A person may be appointed as an Independent Member of State Police Board, for a term of
(a) 1 year
(b) 3 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 2 years
Answer: Option D
4. Who among the followings may establish Bureau of Police Research and Development ?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) State Government
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option C
5. The State Police Complaints Committee, shall forward the complaints of misconduct received by it for further action to the (a) Director General of Police
(b) State Police Board
(c) State Government
(d) State Administrative Tribunal
Answer: Option A
6. Directorate of Prosecution may be established by the
(a) Central Government
(b) High Court
(c) State Government
(d) State Government in consultation with Central Government only
Answer: Option C
7. Officer-in-charge of Police Station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant to
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) District Judge
(c) State Government
(d) District Magistrate
Answer: Option D
8. A warrant of arrest may be executed
(a) within the limits of police-station executing it
(b) within the jurisdiction of the court issued it
(c) at any place in India
(d) within the territory of that State only
Answer: Option C
9. Security for keeping peace and good behaviour from habitual offenders may be ordered by the
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Executive Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate I class
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option B
10. Imprisonment for failure to give security for keeping the peace, shall be
(a) rigorous
(b) simple
(c) either simple or rigorous
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
11. In which of following case, prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury
(a) Nitish Katara Case (2007)
(b) Priyadarshini Matto Case (2006)
(c) Jessica Lal Case (2007)
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
12. In which of the following case, it was held that High Court cannot directly entertain bail application of POTA accused without the refusal by special court ?
(a) State of Gujarat Vs. S.A. Sheikh
(b) State of Maharashtra Vs. S.K. Dunde
(c) State of Gujarat Vs. Santosh Kumar
(d) State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. S.N. Srivastav
Answer: Option A
13. In which of the following case, it was held that the provisions of Section 164 of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is to be strictly complied with ?
(a) Rajesh Ranjan Vs. C.B.I. 2007 SC. 451
(b) Babu Bhai Udai Singh Parmar Vs. State of Gujarat 2007 SC. 420
(c) Naveen Chandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal 2007 SC. 313
(d) Amit Sigh Vs. State of Punjab 2007 SC. 132
Answer: Option B
14. Right of an arrested indigent person to free legal aid and to be informed about was upheld in
(a) M.C.S. Rao Vs. State of Mysore (1972) Cr. LJ 405
(b) Vergese John Vs. State of Kerala (1995) KLT 374
(c) Khatri Vs. State of Bihar (1981) 1 SCC 627
(d) Lalita Kumari Vs. State of U.P. (2012) 4 SCC 1
Answer: Option C
15. Conditional order for removal of nuisance may be passed by
(a) Magistrate I Class
(b) District Judge
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, both
Answer: Option D
16. Under which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an order of “injunction” may be issued by the Executive Magistrate ?
(a) Section 141
(b) Section 142
(c) Section 143
(d) Section 144
Answer: Option B
17. Any Magistrate, who has made an order of detention under Section 167 Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall forward a copy of his order to
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Session Judge
(c) District Magistrate
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option A
18.During trial and before the charge has been framed if complainant does not appear on the date fixed for his appearance, the Magistrate may
(a) discharge the accused
(b) makeover the case
(c) acquit the accused
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option C
19. The composition of an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall have the effect of
(a) discharge
(b) acquittal
(c) release
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option B
20. Under the Indian Constitution, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has been kept in
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
21. In which of the following case it was held that identity of the victim is not to be disclosed even in the judgement of the court? (a) Navinchandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC. 363
(b) Shashikant Vs. C.B.I. AIR 2007 SC. 351
(c) Dinesh Vs. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC. 1267
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
22. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 came in force on
(a) 6th April 2013
(b) 3rd February 2013
(c) 7th January 2013
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
23. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(a) Police Report, Section 2(r)
(b) Cognizable Offence, Section 2(c)
(c) Bailable Offence, Section 2(b)
(d) Investigation, Section 2(h)
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has not been inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 ?
(a) Section 198-B
(b) Section 357-B
(c) Section 357-C
(d) Section 55-A
Answer: Option D
25. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides that court will not alter the judgement after signing on it ?
(a) Section 360
(b) Section 361
(c) Section 362
(d) Section 462
Answer: Option C
26. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The gist of conspiracy lies in forming the scheme between two or more persons to perform the overt act.
Reason (R) : The alleged agreement must provide circumstantial evidence about the participation by all to establish conspiracy.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
27. Which of these facts do not constitute the degree of knowledge for holding a person to be criminally liable for adducing false evidence ?
(A) A statement known to be false.
(B) A statement believed to be false.
(C) A statement not believed to be true.
(D) An offence committed but not affirmed.
Ans: D
28. What offence, if any, has been caused by the accused ‘X’ in the following facts : ‘X’ had some verbal wrangle with his wife ‘Y’ and incourse of that he gave her a blow with great force and after an interval for two hours ‘Y’ died. Medical evidence provided the causative factor as rapture in the spleen.”
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) Grievous hurt
(C) Homicide
(D) Simple hurt
Ans: B
29. Which of the following properties could not be held to be an offence of theft, when committed/taken by a person ?
(A) Durga Idol (B) Cooking Gas (C) Running Electricity (D) Forgotten Umbrella
Ans: C
30. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below, answer :
Assertion (A) : In criminal breach of trust, there is conversion of property held by a person in a fiduciary capacity.
Reason (R) : A person has a right to convert property held by him in a fiduciary capacity.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: B
(a) Chapter VI
(b) Chapter VII
(c) Chapter VIII
(d) Chapter IX
Answer: Option C
2. ‘Police Personnel’ means such police officers, whose appointing authority is
(a) State Public Service Commission
(b) Director General of Police or Any Officer Subordinate to him
(c) Staff Selection Commission
(d) State Government
Answer: Option B
3. A person may be appointed as an Independent Member of State Police Board, for a term of
(a) 1 year
(b) 3 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 2 years
Answer: Option D
4. Who among the followings may establish Bureau of Police Research and Development ?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) State Government
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option C
5. The State Police Complaints Committee, shall forward the complaints of misconduct received by it for further action to the (a) Director General of Police
(b) State Police Board
(c) State Government
(d) State Administrative Tribunal
Answer: Option A
6. Directorate of Prosecution may be established by the
(a) Central Government
(b) High Court
(c) State Government
(d) State Government in consultation with Central Government only
Answer: Option C
7. Officer-in-charge of Police Station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant to
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) District Judge
(c) State Government
(d) District Magistrate
Answer: Option D
8. A warrant of arrest may be executed
(a) within the limits of police-station executing it
(b) within the jurisdiction of the court issued it
(c) at any place in India
(d) within the territory of that State only
Answer: Option C
9. Security for keeping peace and good behaviour from habitual offenders may be ordered by the
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Executive Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate I class
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option B
10. Imprisonment for failure to give security for keeping the peace, shall be
(a) rigorous
(b) simple
(c) either simple or rigorous
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
11. In which of following case, prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury
(a) Nitish Katara Case (2007)
(b) Priyadarshini Matto Case (2006)
(c) Jessica Lal Case (2007)
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
12. In which of the following case, it was held that High Court cannot directly entertain bail application of POTA accused without the refusal by special court ?
(a) State of Gujarat Vs. S.A. Sheikh
(b) State of Maharashtra Vs. S.K. Dunde
(c) State of Gujarat Vs. Santosh Kumar
(d) State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. S.N. Srivastav
Answer: Option A
13. In which of the following case, it was held that the provisions of Section 164 of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is to be strictly complied with ?
(a) Rajesh Ranjan Vs. C.B.I. 2007 SC. 451
(b) Babu Bhai Udai Singh Parmar Vs. State of Gujarat 2007 SC. 420
(c) Naveen Chandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal 2007 SC. 313
(d) Amit Sigh Vs. State of Punjab 2007 SC. 132
Answer: Option B
14. Right of an arrested indigent person to free legal aid and to be informed about was upheld in
(a) M.C.S. Rao Vs. State of Mysore (1972) Cr. LJ 405
(b) Vergese John Vs. State of Kerala (1995) KLT 374
(c) Khatri Vs. State of Bihar (1981) 1 SCC 627
(d) Lalita Kumari Vs. State of U.P. (2012) 4 SCC 1
Answer: Option C
15. Conditional order for removal of nuisance may be passed by
(a) Magistrate I Class
(b) District Judge
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, both
Answer: Option D
16. Under which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an order of “injunction” may be issued by the Executive Magistrate ?
(a) Section 141
(b) Section 142
(c) Section 143
(d) Section 144
Answer: Option B
17. Any Magistrate, who has made an order of detention under Section 167 Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall forward a copy of his order to
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Session Judge
(c) District Magistrate
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option A
18.During trial and before the charge has been framed if complainant does not appear on the date fixed for his appearance, the Magistrate may
(a) discharge the accused
(b) makeover the case
(c) acquit the accused
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option C
19. The composition of an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall have the effect of
(a) discharge
(b) acquittal
(c) release
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option B
20. Under the Indian Constitution, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has been kept in
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
21. In which of the following case it was held that identity of the victim is not to be disclosed even in the judgement of the court? (a) Navinchandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC. 363
(b) Shashikant Vs. C.B.I. AIR 2007 SC. 351
(c) Dinesh Vs. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC. 1267
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
22. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 came in force on
(a) 6th April 2013
(b) 3rd February 2013
(c) 7th January 2013
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
23. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(a) Police Report, Section 2(r)
(b) Cognizable Offence, Section 2(c)
(c) Bailable Offence, Section 2(b)
(d) Investigation, Section 2(h)
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has not been inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 ?
(a) Section 198-B
(b) Section 357-B
(c) Section 357-C
(d) Section 55-A
Answer: Option D
25. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides that court will not alter the judgement after signing on it ?
(a) Section 360
(b) Section 361
(c) Section 362
(d) Section 462
Answer: Option C
26. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The gist of conspiracy lies in forming the scheme between two or more persons to perform the overt act.
Reason (R) : The alleged agreement must provide circumstantial evidence about the participation by all to establish conspiracy.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
27. Which of these facts do not constitute the degree of knowledge for holding a person to be criminally liable for adducing false evidence ?
(A) A statement known to be false.
(B) A statement believed to be false.
(C) A statement not believed to be true.
(D) An offence committed but not affirmed.
Ans: D
28. What offence, if any, has been caused by the accused ‘X’ in the following facts : ‘X’ had some verbal wrangle with his wife ‘Y’ and incourse of that he gave her a blow with great force and after an interval for two hours ‘Y’ died. Medical evidence provided the causative factor as rapture in the spleen.”
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) Grievous hurt
(C) Homicide
(D) Simple hurt
Ans: B
29. Which of the following properties could not be held to be an offence of theft, when committed/taken by a person ?
(A) Durga Idol (B) Cooking Gas (C) Running Electricity (D) Forgotten Umbrella
Ans: C
30. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below, answer :
Assertion (A) : In criminal breach of trust, there is conversion of property held by a person in a fiduciary capacity.
Reason (R) : A person has a right to convert property held by him in a fiduciary capacity.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: B
31. Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The writ of Habeas Corpus can be granted to enable the detainee to argue his case in person.
Reason (R) : Because R Vs. Secretary of State for Home Department ex parte Wynne (1992) decided so.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
(B) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: D
32. Which of the following are matched incorrectly ?
i. Habeas Corpus – ‘To produce the body’
ii. Quo warranto – ‘Issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a case’.
iii. Prohibition – ‘Issued to a lower court quashing a decision or order’
iv. Mandamus – ‘Commands a person to perform a public duty’.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii and iii (C) ii, iii and iv (D) ii and iv
Ans: B
33. Art. 51 A of the Constitution of India is confined to
(A) All citizens of India (B) All persons of India (C) All Non-Residents of India (D) All students of India
Ans: A
34. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Code of conduct has statutory force.
Reason (R) : Because Article 102 of the Constitution says so.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(D) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: B
35. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other. Reason (R) : Because in Annamalai University Vs. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A). (B) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right. (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: D
36. If the Government is defeated on the floor of Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence ?
(A) Parliament is dissolved. (B) Prime Minister has to submit his resignation.
(C) President’s rule is imposed immediately. (D) Nothing happens.
Ans: D
37. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The power under 368 of the Constitution is a constituent power subject to the constitutional scheme as to distribution of legislative power according to entries in the Seventh Schedule.
Reason (R) : Because Sasanka Sekhar Maity Vs. Union of India decided so.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not right reason for (A).
(C) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: A
38. Using codes given below, find out correct answers : Administrative law deals with i. the powers of constitutional authorities ii. the powers of judicial authorities iii. the powers of the administrative authorities iv. the powers of the legislative authorities.
Codes :
(A) Only i and ii are correct.
(B) Only ii is correct.
(C) Only iii is correct.
(D) i, ii, iii and iv are correct.
Ans: C
39. Match List – I with List – II using codes given below : List – I List – II
i. There is no rigid formula for principles of natural justice. a. R.S. Dass Vs. Union of India
ii. Choice of application of rules of natural justice. b. R.Vs. Sussex Justices
iii. Justice should not only be done, but manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done. c. Union of India Vs. P.K. Roy
iv. Meaning of bias d. Secy. to Govt. Transport Dept. Vs. Munuswamy
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c
(B) c a d b
(C) a c b d
(D) c a b d
Ans: D
40. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find out correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Legitimate expectation does not grant an absolute right to a claimant.
Reason (R) : Legitimate expectation protects the right of fair hearing before a decision which results in negating a promise or withdrawing an undertaking is taken.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and(R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: A
41. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Gullappalli Nageswara Rao Vs. State of AP, is about bias.
(B) K.L. Tripathi Vs. State Bank of India, is about right of cross examination.
(C) General Medical Council Vs. Spaekmen, is about irrelevance of principles of natural justice; if in reaching a decision, the principles make no difference.
(D) N. Kalindi Vs. Tata Locomotives, is about the right of representation by a lawyer being considered to be a part of natural justice and it can be claimed as of right.
Ans: B
42. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(A) While certiorari can be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, mandamus can be issued against administrative authorities also.
(B) Mandamus can be issued for a declaration that an Act is ultra vires the Constitution and certiorari can also be issued for correcting that defect.
(C) Certiorari can be issued against a quasi-judicial authority to prevent it from exercising jurisdiction not vested in it. Mandamus cannot be issued for that purpose.
(D) Certiorari cannot be issued against usurping a public officer, but Mandamus can be issued for that purpose.
Ans: A
43. Abuse of discretion can be inferred from the following circumstances. Find out the answer from the codes given below :
i. Non-application of mind. ii. Colourable exercise of power.
iii. Non-observance of audi alteram partem. iv. Irreevant considerations.
Codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) Only(ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
44. What was the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in A. K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India ? Find correct answer from the following statements :
(A) Rule of law is embedded in Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
(B) Judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Constitution.
(C) Principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings.
(D) Post-decisional hearing would be sufficient for the observance of principles of natural justice.
Ans: C
45. Find correct answer from the following statement :
(A) A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decision unless authorised by the statute.
(B) A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is grave error of law in it.
(C) A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is violation of natural justice.
(D) All tribunals may review their decisions.
Ans: A
46. Select the correct answer using the code given below on the following decided cases about possession :
1. Cartwright Vs. Green 2. R.Vs. Hudson 3. Daimler Co. Vs. Continental Tyre and Rubber Co.
Codes :
(A) 3 only (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 2
Ans: D
47. Austin described ownership as a right over determinate thing with reference to one of the following. Specify the correct answer.
(A) Restricted in point of disposition (B) Indefinite in point of user (C) Unlimited in point of duration (D) Unlimited in point of space
Ans: B
48. Consider the following statements regarding vested and contingent rights :
1. A vested right creates an immediate interest and is transferable and heritable.
2. A contingent right creates an immediate interest and is defeated when the required facts have not occurred.
Which of the Statement given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
49. There is a clear cut division between the spheres of legislature and judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which of the school propounds this doctrine ?
(A) Analytical jurisprudence (B) Historical jurisprudence (C) Sociological jurisprudence (D) Philosophical jurisprudence
Ans: A
Assertion (A) : The writ of Habeas Corpus can be granted to enable the detainee to argue his case in person.
Reason (R) : Because R Vs. Secretary of State for Home Department ex parte Wynne (1992) decided so.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
(B) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: D
32. Which of the following are matched incorrectly ?
i. Habeas Corpus – ‘To produce the body’
ii. Quo warranto – ‘Issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a case’.
iii. Prohibition – ‘Issued to a lower court quashing a decision or order’
iv. Mandamus – ‘Commands a person to perform a public duty’.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii and iii (C) ii, iii and iv (D) ii and iv
Ans: B
33. Art. 51 A of the Constitution of India is confined to
(A) All citizens of India (B) All persons of India (C) All Non-Residents of India (D) All students of India
Ans: A
34. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Code of conduct has statutory force.
Reason (R) : Because Article 102 of the Constitution says so.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(D) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: B
35. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other. Reason (R) : Because in Annamalai University Vs. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A). (B) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right. (D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: D
36. If the Government is defeated on the floor of Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence ?
(A) Parliament is dissolved. (B) Prime Minister has to submit his resignation.
(C) President’s rule is imposed immediately. (D) Nothing happens.
Ans: D
37. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The power under 368 of the Constitution is a constituent power subject to the constitutional scheme as to distribution of legislative power according to entries in the Seventh Schedule.
Reason (R) : Because Sasanka Sekhar Maity Vs. Union of India decided so.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not right reason for (A).
(C) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: A
38. Using codes given below, find out correct answers : Administrative law deals with i. the powers of constitutional authorities ii. the powers of judicial authorities iii. the powers of the administrative authorities iv. the powers of the legislative authorities.
Codes :
(A) Only i and ii are correct.
(B) Only ii is correct.
(C) Only iii is correct.
(D) i, ii, iii and iv are correct.
Ans: C
39. Match List – I with List – II using codes given below : List – I List – II
i. There is no rigid formula for principles of natural justice. a. R.S. Dass Vs. Union of India
ii. Choice of application of rules of natural justice. b. R.Vs. Sussex Justices
iii. Justice should not only be done, but manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done. c. Union of India Vs. P.K. Roy
iv. Meaning of bias d. Secy. to Govt. Transport Dept. Vs. Munuswamy
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c
(B) c a d b
(C) a c b d
(D) c a b d
Ans: D
40. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find out correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Legitimate expectation does not grant an absolute right to a claimant.
Reason (R) : Legitimate expectation protects the right of fair hearing before a decision which results in negating a promise or withdrawing an undertaking is taken.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and(R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: A
41. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Gullappalli Nageswara Rao Vs. State of AP, is about bias.
(B) K.L. Tripathi Vs. State Bank of India, is about right of cross examination.
(C) General Medical Council Vs. Spaekmen, is about irrelevance of principles of natural justice; if in reaching a decision, the principles make no difference.
(D) N. Kalindi Vs. Tata Locomotives, is about the right of representation by a lawyer being considered to be a part of natural justice and it can be claimed as of right.
Ans: B
42. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(A) While certiorari can be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, mandamus can be issued against administrative authorities also.
(B) Mandamus can be issued for a declaration that an Act is ultra vires the Constitution and certiorari can also be issued for correcting that defect.
(C) Certiorari can be issued against a quasi-judicial authority to prevent it from exercising jurisdiction not vested in it. Mandamus cannot be issued for that purpose.
(D) Certiorari cannot be issued against usurping a public officer, but Mandamus can be issued for that purpose.
Ans: A
43. Abuse of discretion can be inferred from the following circumstances. Find out the answer from the codes given below :
i. Non-application of mind. ii. Colourable exercise of power.
iii. Non-observance of audi alteram partem. iv. Irreevant considerations.
Codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) Only(ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
44. What was the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in A. K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India ? Find correct answer from the following statements :
(A) Rule of law is embedded in Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
(B) Judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Constitution.
(C) Principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings.
(D) Post-decisional hearing would be sufficient for the observance of principles of natural justice.
Ans: C
45. Find correct answer from the following statement :
(A) A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decision unless authorised by the statute.
(B) A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is grave error of law in it.
(C) A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is violation of natural justice.
(D) All tribunals may review their decisions.
Ans: A
46. Select the correct answer using the code given below on the following decided cases about possession :
1. Cartwright Vs. Green 2. R.Vs. Hudson 3. Daimler Co. Vs. Continental Tyre and Rubber Co.
Codes :
(A) 3 only (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 2
Ans: D
47. Austin described ownership as a right over determinate thing with reference to one of the following. Specify the correct answer.
(A) Restricted in point of disposition (B) Indefinite in point of user (C) Unlimited in point of duration (D) Unlimited in point of space
Ans: B
48. Consider the following statements regarding vested and contingent rights :
1. A vested right creates an immediate interest and is transferable and heritable.
2. A contingent right creates an immediate interest and is defeated when the required facts have not occurred.
Which of the Statement given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
49. There is a clear cut division between the spheres of legislature and judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which of the school propounds this doctrine ?
(A) Analytical jurisprudence (B) Historical jurisprudence (C) Sociological jurisprudence (D) Philosophical jurisprudence
Ans: A
50. In which one of the following cases was it observed by the Supreme court that precedent should not be petrified nor judicial dicta divorced from the socio-economic mores of the age ?
(A) Mamleshwar Vs. Kanahaiya Lal (B) Bengal Immunity Company ltd. Vs. State of Bihar
(C) State of West Bengal Vs. Corporation of Calcutta (D) K.C. Dora Vs. G. Annamanaidu
Ans: B
51. Who among the following divided the sources of Law into formal sources and material sources ?
(A) Gray (B) Keaton (C) Allen (D) Solmond
Ans: D
52. According to Professor Goodhart a ratio decidendi of a case is
(A) the principle of law laid down in a decision which is the decisive element
(B) the conclusion reached by the judge on the basis of the material facts of the case
(C) the reason given by the court for its decision
(D) any opinion of the court on a question of law
Ans: B
53. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Nullum Crimen is an injunction to the legislature not to implicate all the suspected persons to be prosecuted.
Reason (R) : To avoid impossibility and to settle the question, the legislature must have to use administrative ruling.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
54. Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence of common intention by all the persons to be prosecuted is necessary.
Reason (R) : Physical presence at the time of commission of crimes is not mandatory in all cases.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
55. Which of the mitigating factors do not justify the award of death penalty ?
(A) Where the murder has been previously planned.
(B) Such murder involves exceptional depravity.
(C) When such murder was against a public servant while on duty.
(D) When the offence was committed by the accused under the influence of extreme mental disturbance.
Ans: D
(A) Mamleshwar Vs. Kanahaiya Lal (B) Bengal Immunity Company ltd. Vs. State of Bihar
(C) State of West Bengal Vs. Corporation of Calcutta (D) K.C. Dora Vs. G. Annamanaidu
Ans: B
51. Who among the following divided the sources of Law into formal sources and material sources ?
(A) Gray (B) Keaton (C) Allen (D) Solmond
Ans: D
52. According to Professor Goodhart a ratio decidendi of a case is
(A) the principle of law laid down in a decision which is the decisive element
(B) the conclusion reached by the judge on the basis of the material facts of the case
(C) the reason given by the court for its decision
(D) any opinion of the court on a question of law
Ans: B
53. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Nullum Crimen is an injunction to the legislature not to implicate all the suspected persons to be prosecuted.
Reason (R) : To avoid impossibility and to settle the question, the legislature must have to use administrative ruling.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
54. Read Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and with the help of codes given below find the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : Participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence of common intention by all the persons to be prosecuted is necessary.
Reason (R) : Physical presence at the time of commission of crimes is not mandatory in all cases.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
55. Which of the mitigating factors do not justify the award of death penalty ?
(A) Where the murder has been previously planned.
(B) Such murder involves exceptional depravity.
(C) When such murder was against a public servant while on duty.
(D) When the offence was committed by the accused under the influence of extreme mental disturbance.
Ans: D
56. Which of the following statements is right ?
(A) Law consist of rules in accordance with reason and nature has formed the basis of imperative law.
(B) Natural law is a type of command.
(C) Law, according to positivist, is made through medium of courts.
(D) Hart talks in terms of conduct supplemented by an attitude of mind to the effect that the conduct in question is obligatory because it is required by rule.
Ans: D
57. Right in re aliena means a right over
(A) his own property (B) a property of someone else
(C) property situated in a foreign country (D) property situated in one’s own country
Ans: B
58. Assertion (A) : A perfect duty is one which a man not merely ought to perform, but may be justly compelled to perform.
Reason (R) : A perfect duty is one which is not merely recognised by law but enforced.
1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 alone
(D) 4 alone
Ans: C
59. Possession is prima facie evidence of tittle of ownership. Hence –
(A) long adverse possession confers tittle even to a property which originally belonged to another.
(B) in all cases possession leads to ownership.
(C) transfer of possession is not a mode of transferring ownership.
(D) long possession do not confer tittle to the property which originally belonged to government.
Ans: A
60. Who among the following said that there is in essence no difference between the legal personality of a company and that of an individual ?
(A) Maitland (B) Dicey (C) Gierke (D) Kelson
Ans: D
61. Ownership of Goodwill of a business is
(A) Limited ownership (B) Corporeal ownership (C) Incorporeal ownership (D) Beneficial ownership
Ans: C
62. It was remarked in ‘Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab’ that our ‘Preamble to the Constitution contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’ by one of the judges ?
(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer (B) Justice K. Subba Rao (C) Justice A.N. Ray (D) Justice H.R. Khanna
Ans: B
63. Right of eligible employees to be considered for promotion is virtually a part of Fundamental Right of employees, was decided by the Supreme Court in :
(A) Union of India Vs. Hemraj Singh Chauhan
(B) Supreme Court Employees Association Vs. Union of India
(C) John Vallamattam Vs. Union of India
(D) St. Stephens College Vs. University of Delhi
Ans: A
64. In Vishram Singh Raghubanshi Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR2011 SC2275) the court held that :
(A) It is the duty of Superior Courts to protect the reputation of judicial officers of subordinate courts.
(B) Procedure laid down in the appointment of officers of subordinate courts.
(C) Procedure laid down in the salaries and service conditions of the judicial officers of the lower judiciary.
(D) Transfer of the Judges of the High Court.
Ans: A
65. In which of these cases, Fundamental Duties are judicially invoked ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Prem Prakash Vs. Punjab University
ii. Suresh Koshy George Vs. University of Kerala
iii. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
iv. Shri Sachidanand Pandey Vs. State of West Bengal
Codes :
(A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iii are correct.
(C) iii and iv are correct.
(D) i, ii, iii and iv are correct.
Ans: C
66. Match List – I with List – II using codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Executive power must be exercised in accordance with the Constitution. a. H.H. Maharajadhiraja Madhav Rao Jivaji Rao Scindia Bahadur Vs. Union of India
ii. Executive power is the residue of functions of Government, which are not legislative or judicial b. Maganbhai Ishwarbhai Patel Vs. Union of India
iii. Executive power may be exercised without prior legislative support. c. Kehar Singh Vs. Union of India
iv. The President is not bound to hear a petitioner for mercy before he rejects the petition. d. A. Sanjeevi Naidu Vs. State of Madras Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) d a b c
(B) a d b c
(C) d a c b
(D) b c a d
Ans: A
67. The Supreme Court has laid down guidelines for imposing emergency under Art. 356 in one of the following cases :
(A) A.K. Roy Vs. Union of India
(B) S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
(C) State of Rajasthan Vs. Union of India
(D) Rameswar Prasad Vs. Union of India
Ans: B
68. By which constitutional amendment “The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the people” ?
(A) Ninety First (B) Ninety Second (C) Ninety Third (D) Ninety Fifth
Ans: A
69. Match List – I with List – II and give correct answers by using the codes given below :
List – I (Principles applied by the Courts) List – II (Cases)
1. Law must be based on justice, equity and good conscience a. R.V. Keyn
2. Subrogation b. Chorzaw Factory (Indemnity) Case
3. Res-Judicata c. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
4. Estoppel d. Barcelona Traction Case
Codes : a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: B
70. Who is not the Exponent of the Constitutive Theory of ‘Recognition’ ?
(A) Hegel (B) Oppenheim (C) Hall (D) Anzilloti
Ans: C
71. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Sources of Public International Law) List – II (Case-related)
1. General principles of law recognised by the civilized countries a. North Continental Self case
2. Juristic Work b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali
3. International Customs c. Portugal Vs. India
4. Justice and Equity d. Paquete Habaana case
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans: D
72. Statement – I : Subject to Rules of Jus Cogens, local customary law can supplement or derogate from general custom.
Statement – II : International law does not recognise the concept of local custom.
Using the codes given below give the correct answer :
(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement – II is the correct explanation of statement – I.
(B) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement – II is not the correct explanation of Statement – I.
(C) Statement – I is true, but Statement – II is false.
(D) Statement – I is false, but Statement – II is true.
Ans: C
73. Using the codes given below indicate the chronological sequence in which the following judgements were delivered by the International Court of Justice :
1. Right of passage over Indian Territory case.
2. South-West Africa case.
3. Frontier Dispute.
4. Temple of Preah Vihear
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 4, 1, 3
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3
(D) 3, 2, 4, 1
Ans: C
74. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Provisions under Statute of International Court of Justice) List – II (Related Articles)
1. Binding force of decrees of International Court of Justice a. Article 65
2. Methods of conferring Jurisdiction upon the court. b. Article 62
3. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Court. c. Article 59
4. Courts power to allow a state to intervene in case to which it is not a party d. Article 36
Codes : a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A
75. In which of the following cases, a child could not be a ‘Hindu’ under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was brought up as a Hindu.
II. If after the birth of a child both the parents convert to Buddhism.
III. Only one parent is Jain and the child was not brought up as a Jain.
IV. If after the birth of a child both the parents convert to Muslim religion and in the exercise of parental right the child is also converted to Muslim religion.
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV
(B) III and IV
(C) II and I
(D) I, II and III
Ans: B
76. When two Hindus are descendants of a common ancestress but by different husbands, they are said to be related to each other by
(A) Uterine Blood (B) Half Blood
(C) Full Blood (D) Fosterage
Ans: A
77. A ‘Muta’ marriage is :
I. A temporary marriage.
II. Recognized under Sunni law.
III. Recognized under Shia law.
IV. For a fixed period.
Codes :
(A) II and IV only (B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) II and III
Ans: C
78. A decree of judicial separation :
I. dissolve the matrimonial bond.
II. does not dissolve the matrimonial bond but merely suspends marital rights and obligations during the subsistence of the decree.
III. mandates that the parties still continue to be husband and wife but not obliged to live together.
IV. provides that if the parties have not resumed cohabitation for a period of one year either party may seek divorce.
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV (B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I and IV (D) II, III and IV
Ans: D
79. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Ijma a. Cancellation of marriage
ii. Faskh b. Opinion of one individual only
iii. Mahr-ul-misl c. Collective opinion of commentators
iv. Qiyas d. Customary dower
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) c a d b (B) a b c d
(C) c d b a (D) d b a c
Ans: A
80. Rules relating to spinda relationship are based on the principle of
(A) Polygyny (B) Endogamy (C) Exogamy (D) Polyandry
Ans: C
81. Divorce by Zihar is a species of
(A) actual divorce (B) inchoate divorce (C) khula divorce (D) constructive divorce
Ans: B
82. For a valid contract acceptance should be
(A) absolute and qualified (B) partial but unqualified (C) absolute and unqualified (D) absolutely qualified
Ans: C
83. According to Explanation 2 to Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, which of the following statements are correct ?
i. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is not freely given is valid because consideration is adequate.
ii. An agreement to which the consent of promisor is freely given is valid even if consideration is inadequate.
iii. Consideration must be legal.
iv. Consideration can be illegal.
Codes : (A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iii are correct.
(C) iii and iv are correct.
(D) i and iv are correct.
Ans: B
84. In Jyotindra Bhattacharjee Vs. Mrs. Sona Balon Bora, it was held that
(A) the onus of proving soundness of mind of a person always rests upon a person who alleges such state of mind of another person.
(B) the onus of proving unsoundness of mind of a person always rests upon a person who alleges such state of mind of another person.
(C) the onus of proving unsoundness of mind rests upon person of unsound mind.
(D) the onus of proving unsoundness of mind is on the judge deciding the case involving person of unsound mind.
Ans: B
85. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct explanation with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Agreement is void when both parties are under mistake as to the matter of law.
Reason (R) : Parties entering into a contract are legally obliged to know the law relating to the contract.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: D
86. Where, a law promulgated after the contract is made, makes the performance of the agreement impossible, the agreement becomes (A) Voidable (B) Valid
(C) Void (D) Absolutely binding
Ans: C
87. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
i. Damages arising in the usual course of things a. Ghaziabad Dev. Authority Vs. Union of India
ii. Compensation for mental anguish b. Hadley Vs. Baxendale
iii. Measure of damages c. M/s. Ganga Maruthi Vs. Nagaraj
iv. Compensation for breach of contract where penalty is stipulated for d. Jamal Vs. Moolla Dawood
Codes : i ii iii iv (A) b a d c (B) a b d c (C) b a c d (D) d c a b
Ans: A
88. Who is the propounder of ‘Pigeon hole’ theory ?
(A) Winfield (B) Salmond
(C) Flemming (D) Paton
Ans: B
89. The owner of the bus instructed the driver not to race and compete with other omnibuses on a particular route. Driver still tried to obstruct a rival omnibus and caused an accident. What shall be the nature of liability ?
(A) The driver shall be liable for the accident because he did not follow the instructions of his owner.
(B) It shall be the liability of the owner of bus because he has no authority to give instruction to his driver and his act was totally wrong.
(C) The owner of the bus shall be vicariously liable for the accident committed by his driver during the course of employment.
(D) Neither owner nor driver shall be liable.
Ans: C
90. Which of the following is NOT a sovereign function of the State ?
(A) Construction of military road.
(B) Injury to the plaintiff during the lathi-charge by the police to disperse the unlawful crowd.
(C) A Government jeep being taken from the workshop to the collector’s bungalow for his use.
(D) Distribution of meals to army personnel.
Ans: C
91. Assertion (A) : A wooden chair while being used by a guest, caused an injury to him due to defective manufacture. The guest is entitled to claim damages from the manufacturer.
Reason (R) : The manufacturer owes a duty to take care only towards the lawful buyer under the Consumer Protection Act.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
92. If a journalist publishes an article in a leading newspaper that all lawyers were thieves, no particular lawyer could sue him unless there is something to point to the particular individual. It refers to
(A) Defamation of a company
(B) Innuendo
(C) Defamation of public figures
(D) Defamation of class of persons
Ans: D
93. Match the List – I (Name of Case) with List – II (Name of Court) :
List – I List – II
1. Municipal Corporation Vs. Subhagwanti i. High Court of Madhya Pradesh
2. Roop Lal Vs. Union of India ii. High Court of Jammu & Kashmir
3. State Vs. Chironji Lal iii. High Court of Calcutta
4. Rural Transport Service Vs. Bezlum Bibi iv. Supreme Court
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) iv ii i iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i iii ii
Ans: A
94. The Revenue Inspector knowingly disobeys the direction to conduct enquiry at a place for demarcation, what offence, if any, has been caused by him under IPC ?
(A) An offence as per Sec. 166-A.
(B) For continuing to remain in an unlawful assembly as per Sec. 145.
(C) For touching any point material as per Sec. 199.
(D) For giving false information as per Sec. 201.
Ans: A
95. A man has committed physical contact involving unwelcome sexual overture against a female. What offence has been caused by him under IPC ?
(A) Requesting for sexual favour as per Sec. 354-A(1)(ii).
(B) Sexual harassment as per Sec. 354(1)(i).
(C) Out-raging of modesty as per Sec. 354.
(D) Attempt to rape as per Sec. 370(A).
Ans: B
96. Read the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) given below to answer the correct explanation using the codes :
Assertion (A) : The legal right involves freedom from penalty.
Reason (R) : A legal right is one which is either enforceable or recognised.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Assertion(A) is correct, but Reason(R) is wrong.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect because Reason (R) fixes liability when not enforceable or derecognised.
Ans: B
97. The maxim ‘ream linguam non facit nisi mens rea’ is propounded by
(A) Coke (B) Lord Kenyon (C) Augustine (D) Lord Arbinger
Ans: C
98. Fill in the gap : Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as crime by some ______.
(A) law (B) method (C) society (D) All the above
Ans: A
99. The Indian Penal Code prohibits fixing of liability on a person so long he is authorised or gives assent to it. But there is an exceptional situation arising out of :
(A) Libel (B) Public nuisance (C) Contempt of Court (D) All of them
Ans: D
100. Who among the following moved a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly recommending that the Government should introduce a legislation for registration and protection of Trade Union in the year 1921 ?
(A) B.P. Wadia (B) M.N. Joshi (C) N.M. Lokhanddey (D) V.V. Giri
Ans: B
(A) Law consist of rules in accordance with reason and nature has formed the basis of imperative law.
(B) Natural law is a type of command.
(C) Law, according to positivist, is made through medium of courts.
(D) Hart talks in terms of conduct supplemented by an attitude of mind to the effect that the conduct in question is obligatory because it is required by rule.
Ans: D
57. Right in re aliena means a right over
(A) his own property (B) a property of someone else
(C) property situated in a foreign country (D) property situated in one’s own country
Ans: B
58. Assertion (A) : A perfect duty is one which a man not merely ought to perform, but may be justly compelled to perform.
Reason (R) : A perfect duty is one which is not merely recognised by law but enforced.
1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 alone
(D) 4 alone
Ans: C
59. Possession is prima facie evidence of tittle of ownership. Hence –
(A) long adverse possession confers tittle even to a property which originally belonged to another.
(B) in all cases possession leads to ownership.
(C) transfer of possession is not a mode of transferring ownership.
(D) long possession do not confer tittle to the property which originally belonged to government.
Ans: A
60. Who among the following said that there is in essence no difference between the legal personality of a company and that of an individual ?
(A) Maitland (B) Dicey (C) Gierke (D) Kelson
Ans: D
61. Ownership of Goodwill of a business is
(A) Limited ownership (B) Corporeal ownership (C) Incorporeal ownership (D) Beneficial ownership
Ans: C
62. It was remarked in ‘Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab’ that our ‘Preamble to the Constitution contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’ by one of the judges ?
(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer (B) Justice K. Subba Rao (C) Justice A.N. Ray (D) Justice H.R. Khanna
Ans: B
63. Right of eligible employees to be considered for promotion is virtually a part of Fundamental Right of employees, was decided by the Supreme Court in :
(A) Union of India Vs. Hemraj Singh Chauhan
(B) Supreme Court Employees Association Vs. Union of India
(C) John Vallamattam Vs. Union of India
(D) St. Stephens College Vs. University of Delhi
Ans: A
64. In Vishram Singh Raghubanshi Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR2011 SC2275) the court held that :
(A) It is the duty of Superior Courts to protect the reputation of judicial officers of subordinate courts.
(B) Procedure laid down in the appointment of officers of subordinate courts.
(C) Procedure laid down in the salaries and service conditions of the judicial officers of the lower judiciary.
(D) Transfer of the Judges of the High Court.
Ans: A
65. In which of these cases, Fundamental Duties are judicially invoked ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Prem Prakash Vs. Punjab University
ii. Suresh Koshy George Vs. University of Kerala
iii. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
iv. Shri Sachidanand Pandey Vs. State of West Bengal
Codes :
(A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iii are correct.
(C) iii and iv are correct.
(D) i, ii, iii and iv are correct.
Ans: C
66. Match List – I with List – II using codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Executive power must be exercised in accordance with the Constitution. a. H.H. Maharajadhiraja Madhav Rao Jivaji Rao Scindia Bahadur Vs. Union of India
ii. Executive power is the residue of functions of Government, which are not legislative or judicial b. Maganbhai Ishwarbhai Patel Vs. Union of India
iii. Executive power may be exercised without prior legislative support. c. Kehar Singh Vs. Union of India
iv. The President is not bound to hear a petitioner for mercy before he rejects the petition. d. A. Sanjeevi Naidu Vs. State of Madras Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) d a b c
(B) a d b c
(C) d a c b
(D) b c a d
Ans: A
67. The Supreme Court has laid down guidelines for imposing emergency under Art. 356 in one of the following cases :
(A) A.K. Roy Vs. Union of India
(B) S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
(C) State of Rajasthan Vs. Union of India
(D) Rameswar Prasad Vs. Union of India
Ans: B
68. By which constitutional amendment “The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the people” ?
(A) Ninety First (B) Ninety Second (C) Ninety Third (D) Ninety Fifth
Ans: A
69. Match List – I with List – II and give correct answers by using the codes given below :
List – I (Principles applied by the Courts) List – II (Cases)
1. Law must be based on justice, equity and good conscience a. R.V. Keyn
2. Subrogation b. Chorzaw Factory (Indemnity) Case
3. Res-Judicata c. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
4. Estoppel d. Barcelona Traction Case
Codes : a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: B
70. Who is not the Exponent of the Constitutive Theory of ‘Recognition’ ?
(A) Hegel (B) Oppenheim (C) Hall (D) Anzilloti
Ans: C
71. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Sources of Public International Law) List – II (Case-related)
1. General principles of law recognised by the civilized countries a. North Continental Self case
2. Juristic Work b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali
3. International Customs c. Portugal Vs. India
4. Justice and Equity d. Paquete Habaana case
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans: D
72. Statement – I : Subject to Rules of Jus Cogens, local customary law can supplement or derogate from general custom.
Statement – II : International law does not recognise the concept of local custom.
Using the codes given below give the correct answer :
(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement – II is the correct explanation of statement – I.
(B) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement – II is not the correct explanation of Statement – I.
(C) Statement – I is true, but Statement – II is false.
(D) Statement – I is false, but Statement – II is true.
Ans: C
73. Using the codes given below indicate the chronological sequence in which the following judgements were delivered by the International Court of Justice :
1. Right of passage over Indian Territory case.
2. South-West Africa case.
3. Frontier Dispute.
4. Temple of Preah Vihear
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 4, 1, 3
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3
(D) 3, 2, 4, 1
Ans: C
74. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Provisions under Statute of International Court of Justice) List – II (Related Articles)
1. Binding force of decrees of International Court of Justice a. Article 65
2. Methods of conferring Jurisdiction upon the court. b. Article 62
3. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Court. c. Article 59
4. Courts power to allow a state to intervene in case to which it is not a party d. Article 36
Codes : a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A
75. In which of the following cases, a child could not be a ‘Hindu’ under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was brought up as a Hindu.
II. If after the birth of a child both the parents convert to Buddhism.
III. Only one parent is Jain and the child was not brought up as a Jain.
IV. If after the birth of a child both the parents convert to Muslim religion and in the exercise of parental right the child is also converted to Muslim religion.
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV
(B) III and IV
(C) II and I
(D) I, II and III
Ans: B
76. When two Hindus are descendants of a common ancestress but by different husbands, they are said to be related to each other by
(A) Uterine Blood (B) Half Blood
(C) Full Blood (D) Fosterage
Ans: A
77. A ‘Muta’ marriage is :
I. A temporary marriage.
II. Recognized under Sunni law.
III. Recognized under Shia law.
IV. For a fixed period.
Codes :
(A) II and IV only (B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) II and III
Ans: C
78. A decree of judicial separation :
I. dissolve the matrimonial bond.
II. does not dissolve the matrimonial bond but merely suspends marital rights and obligations during the subsistence of the decree.
III. mandates that the parties still continue to be husband and wife but not obliged to live together.
IV. provides that if the parties have not resumed cohabitation for a period of one year either party may seek divorce.
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV (B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I and IV (D) II, III and IV
Ans: D
79. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Ijma a. Cancellation of marriage
ii. Faskh b. Opinion of one individual only
iii. Mahr-ul-misl c. Collective opinion of commentators
iv. Qiyas d. Customary dower
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) c a d b (B) a b c d
(C) c d b a (D) d b a c
Ans: A
80. Rules relating to spinda relationship are based on the principle of
(A) Polygyny (B) Endogamy (C) Exogamy (D) Polyandry
Ans: C
81. Divorce by Zihar is a species of
(A) actual divorce (B) inchoate divorce (C) khula divorce (D) constructive divorce
Ans: B
82. For a valid contract acceptance should be
(A) absolute and qualified (B) partial but unqualified (C) absolute and unqualified (D) absolutely qualified
Ans: C
83. According to Explanation 2 to Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, which of the following statements are correct ?
i. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is not freely given is valid because consideration is adequate.
ii. An agreement to which the consent of promisor is freely given is valid even if consideration is inadequate.
iii. Consideration must be legal.
iv. Consideration can be illegal.
Codes : (A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iii are correct.
(C) iii and iv are correct.
(D) i and iv are correct.
Ans: B
84. In Jyotindra Bhattacharjee Vs. Mrs. Sona Balon Bora, it was held that
(A) the onus of proving soundness of mind of a person always rests upon a person who alleges such state of mind of another person.
(B) the onus of proving unsoundness of mind of a person always rests upon a person who alleges such state of mind of another person.
(C) the onus of proving unsoundness of mind rests upon person of unsound mind.
(D) the onus of proving unsoundness of mind is on the judge deciding the case involving person of unsound mind.
Ans: B
85. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct explanation with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Agreement is void when both parties are under mistake as to the matter of law.
Reason (R) : Parties entering into a contract are legally obliged to know the law relating to the contract.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: D
86. Where, a law promulgated after the contract is made, makes the performance of the agreement impossible, the agreement becomes (A) Voidable (B) Valid
(C) Void (D) Absolutely binding
Ans: C
87. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
i. Damages arising in the usual course of things a. Ghaziabad Dev. Authority Vs. Union of India
ii. Compensation for mental anguish b. Hadley Vs. Baxendale
iii. Measure of damages c. M/s. Ganga Maruthi Vs. Nagaraj
iv. Compensation for breach of contract where penalty is stipulated for d. Jamal Vs. Moolla Dawood
Codes : i ii iii iv (A) b a d c (B) a b d c (C) b a c d (D) d c a b
Ans: A
88. Who is the propounder of ‘Pigeon hole’ theory ?
(A) Winfield (B) Salmond
(C) Flemming (D) Paton
Ans: B
89. The owner of the bus instructed the driver not to race and compete with other omnibuses on a particular route. Driver still tried to obstruct a rival omnibus and caused an accident. What shall be the nature of liability ?
(A) The driver shall be liable for the accident because he did not follow the instructions of his owner.
(B) It shall be the liability of the owner of bus because he has no authority to give instruction to his driver and his act was totally wrong.
(C) The owner of the bus shall be vicariously liable for the accident committed by his driver during the course of employment.
(D) Neither owner nor driver shall be liable.
Ans: C
90. Which of the following is NOT a sovereign function of the State ?
(A) Construction of military road.
(B) Injury to the plaintiff during the lathi-charge by the police to disperse the unlawful crowd.
(C) A Government jeep being taken from the workshop to the collector’s bungalow for his use.
(D) Distribution of meals to army personnel.
Ans: C
91. Assertion (A) : A wooden chair while being used by a guest, caused an injury to him due to defective manufacture. The guest is entitled to claim damages from the manufacturer.
Reason (R) : The manufacturer owes a duty to take care only towards the lawful buyer under the Consumer Protection Act.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
92. If a journalist publishes an article in a leading newspaper that all lawyers were thieves, no particular lawyer could sue him unless there is something to point to the particular individual. It refers to
(A) Defamation of a company
(B) Innuendo
(C) Defamation of public figures
(D) Defamation of class of persons
Ans: D
93. Match the List – I (Name of Case) with List – II (Name of Court) :
List – I List – II
1. Municipal Corporation Vs. Subhagwanti i. High Court of Madhya Pradesh
2. Roop Lal Vs. Union of India ii. High Court of Jammu & Kashmir
3. State Vs. Chironji Lal iii. High Court of Calcutta
4. Rural Transport Service Vs. Bezlum Bibi iv. Supreme Court
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) iv ii i iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i iii ii
Ans: A
94. The Revenue Inspector knowingly disobeys the direction to conduct enquiry at a place for demarcation, what offence, if any, has been caused by him under IPC ?
(A) An offence as per Sec. 166-A.
(B) For continuing to remain in an unlawful assembly as per Sec. 145.
(C) For touching any point material as per Sec. 199.
(D) For giving false information as per Sec. 201.
Ans: A
95. A man has committed physical contact involving unwelcome sexual overture against a female. What offence has been caused by him under IPC ?
(A) Requesting for sexual favour as per Sec. 354-A(1)(ii).
(B) Sexual harassment as per Sec. 354(1)(i).
(C) Out-raging of modesty as per Sec. 354.
(D) Attempt to rape as per Sec. 370(A).
Ans: B
96. Read the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) given below to answer the correct explanation using the codes :
Assertion (A) : The legal right involves freedom from penalty.
Reason (R) : A legal right is one which is either enforceable or recognised.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Assertion(A) is correct, but Reason(R) is wrong.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect because Reason (R) fixes liability when not enforceable or derecognised.
Ans: B
97. The maxim ‘ream linguam non facit nisi mens rea’ is propounded by
(A) Coke (B) Lord Kenyon (C) Augustine (D) Lord Arbinger
Ans: C
98. Fill in the gap : Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as crime by some ______.
(A) law (B) method (C) society (D) All the above
Ans: A
99. The Indian Penal Code prohibits fixing of liability on a person so long he is authorised or gives assent to it. But there is an exceptional situation arising out of :
(A) Libel (B) Public nuisance (C) Contempt of Court (D) All of them
Ans: D
100. Who among the following moved a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly recommending that the Government should introduce a legislation for registration and protection of Trade Union in the year 1921 ?
(A) B.P. Wadia (B) M.N. Joshi (C) N.M. Lokhanddey (D) V.V. Giri
Ans: B
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