LAW- PAGE 3
1. Public documents are mentioned under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
(a) Section 72
(b) Section 73
(c) Section 74
(d) Section 75
Answer: Option C
2. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under law of evidence ?
(a) Dying declaration
(b) res gestae
(c) confession
(d) expert’s opinion
Answer: Option D
3. ‘Test identification parade’ under the law of evidence is
(a) substantive evidence
(b) corroborative evidence
(c) hearsay evidence
(d) no evidence
Answer: Option B
4. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading questions to it’s own witness ?
(a) In examination-in-chief
(b) When witness is declared hostile
(c) In re-examination
(d) In no circumstances
Answer: Option A
5. Which of the following section/s of Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications ? (a) Section 128 only
(b) Section 130 only
(c) Section 133 and Section 134
(d) Section 126 and Section 127
Answer: Option D
6. Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113-B of Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives.
(b) Such cruelty or harassment was for or in connection of any demand for dowry.
(c) Victim had illicit relationship with other male person.
(d) Such cruelty or harassment was done within seven years of marriage.
Answer: Option C
7. The principle that ‘possession is prima facie proof of ownership” is contained under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
(a) Section 111
(b) Section 110
(c) Section 116
(d) Section 117
Answer: Option B
8. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a public document can be proved by
(a) Oral evidence
(b) affidavit of giver of document
(c) Certified copy
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
9. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be
(a) documentary evidence
(b) oral evidence
(c) circumstantial evidence
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
10. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies where there is a dispute regarding the
(a) maternity of a child
(b) paternity of a child
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
11. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 relates to which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 53-A, 113-A, 113-B, 114-A
(b) Section 53-A, 113-B, 114-A
(c) Section 53-A, 113-A, 114, 146
(d) Section 53-A, 114-A, 119, 146
Answer: Option D
12. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits a
(a) Cognizable offence
(b) Non-bailable offence
(c) Cognizable and non-bailable offence
(d) Non-congnizable and non-bailable offence
Answer: Option C
13. Magistrate may convert summon case into warrant case during trial in the interest of justice, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term
(a) exceeding three years
(b) exceeding two years
(c) exceeding one year
(d) exceeding six months
Answer: Option D
14. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with not more than three years, after the expiry of
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) three years
(d) four years
Answer: Option C
15. Under Section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure :
(a) Conviction and sentence can be passed on the same day.
(b) Conviction and sentence cannot be passed on the same day.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Answer: Option B
16. In the writ petition of constable 243 C.P. Mohan Singh & Others Vs. State of Uttarakhand & Others (2014) Utt.H.C., the fact-in-issue is related to
(a) promotion
(b) suspension
(c) dismissal
(d) superannuation
Answer: Option A
17. Which section of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 defines ‘witness’ ?
(a) Section 2(a)
(b) Section 2(b)
(c) Section 2(zb)
(d) Section 2(zc)
Answer: Option D
18. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, who is empowered to create Railway Police Districts ?
(a) Director General of Police
(b) Superintendent of Police
(c) State Government
(d) Governor
Answer: Option C
19. Who can make regulations for prevention or investigation of crimes and maintenance of law and order ?
(a) Subject to the approval of State Government, the Director General of Police
(b) Director General of Police independently
(c) Governor
(d) Home Secretary
Answer: Option A
20. Before whom the Annual Report of the State Police Complaints Authority shall be laid ?
(a) State Police Board
(b) State Human Rights Commission
(c) State Assembly
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option C
21. Who shall be the chairperson of Uttarakhand State Police Board ?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Director General of Police
(d) Governor
Answer: Option B
22. Who shall be the chairperson of Police Establishment Committee ?
(a) Home Minister
(b) Home Secretary
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option D
23. In exceptional circumstances, who is authorised to direct the police force and armed police units in Revenue Police Area ?
(a) Governor
(b) Director General of Police
(c) District Magistrate
(d) Home Secretary
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following sections of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, permits the police officer to take charge of unclaimed movable property not being a case-property ?
(a) Section 44
(b) Section 46
(c) Section 45
(d) Section 43
Answer: Option B
25. Who is empowered to frame rules for witness protection as a measure of human rights protection ?
(a) State Government
(b) State Human Rights Commission
(c) Governor
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option A
(a) Section 72
(b) Section 73
(c) Section 74
(d) Section 75
Answer: Option C
2. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under law of evidence ?
(a) Dying declaration
(b) res gestae
(c) confession
(d) expert’s opinion
Answer: Option D
3. ‘Test identification parade’ under the law of evidence is
(a) substantive evidence
(b) corroborative evidence
(c) hearsay evidence
(d) no evidence
Answer: Option B
4. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading questions to it’s own witness ?
(a) In examination-in-chief
(b) When witness is declared hostile
(c) In re-examination
(d) In no circumstances
Answer: Option A
5. Which of the following section/s of Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications ? (a) Section 128 only
(b) Section 130 only
(c) Section 133 and Section 134
(d) Section 126 and Section 127
Answer: Option D
6. Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113-B of Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives.
(b) Such cruelty or harassment was for or in connection of any demand for dowry.
(c) Victim had illicit relationship with other male person.
(d) Such cruelty or harassment was done within seven years of marriage.
Answer: Option C
7. The principle that ‘possession is prima facie proof of ownership” is contained under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
(a) Section 111
(b) Section 110
(c) Section 116
(d) Section 117
Answer: Option B
8. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a public document can be proved by
(a) Oral evidence
(b) affidavit of giver of document
(c) Certified copy
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option C
9. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be
(a) documentary evidence
(b) oral evidence
(c) circumstantial evidence
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
10. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies where there is a dispute regarding the
(a) maternity of a child
(b) paternity of a child
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option B
11. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 relates to which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 53-A, 113-A, 113-B, 114-A
(b) Section 53-A, 113-B, 114-A
(c) Section 53-A, 113-A, 114, 146
(d) Section 53-A, 114-A, 119, 146
Answer: Option D
12. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits a
(a) Cognizable offence
(b) Non-bailable offence
(c) Cognizable and non-bailable offence
(d) Non-congnizable and non-bailable offence
Answer: Option C
13. Magistrate may convert summon case into warrant case during trial in the interest of justice, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term
(a) exceeding three years
(b) exceeding two years
(c) exceeding one year
(d) exceeding six months
Answer: Option D
14. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with not more than three years, after the expiry of
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) three years
(d) four years
Answer: Option C
15. Under Section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure :
(a) Conviction and sentence can be passed on the same day.
(b) Conviction and sentence cannot be passed on the same day.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Answer: Option B
16. In the writ petition of constable 243 C.P. Mohan Singh & Others Vs. State of Uttarakhand & Others (2014) Utt.H.C., the fact-in-issue is related to
(a) promotion
(b) suspension
(c) dismissal
(d) superannuation
Answer: Option A
17. Which section of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 defines ‘witness’ ?
(a) Section 2(a)
(b) Section 2(b)
(c) Section 2(zb)
(d) Section 2(zc)
Answer: Option D
18. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, who is empowered to create Railway Police Districts ?
(a) Director General of Police
(b) Superintendent of Police
(c) State Government
(d) Governor
Answer: Option C
19. Who can make regulations for prevention or investigation of crimes and maintenance of law and order ?
(a) Subject to the approval of State Government, the Director General of Police
(b) Director General of Police independently
(c) Governor
(d) Home Secretary
Answer: Option A
20. Before whom the Annual Report of the State Police Complaints Authority shall be laid ?
(a) State Police Board
(b) State Human Rights Commission
(c) State Assembly
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option C
21. Who shall be the chairperson of Uttarakhand State Police Board ?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Director General of Police
(d) Governor
Answer: Option B
22. Who shall be the chairperson of Police Establishment Committee ?
(a) Home Minister
(b) Home Secretary
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option D
23. In exceptional circumstances, who is authorised to direct the police force and armed police units in Revenue Police Area ?
(a) Governor
(b) Director General of Police
(c) District Magistrate
(d) Home Secretary
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following sections of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, permits the police officer to take charge of unclaimed movable property not being a case-property ?
(a) Section 44
(b) Section 46
(c) Section 45
(d) Section 43
Answer: Option B
25. Who is empowered to frame rules for witness protection as a measure of human rights protection ?
(a) State Government
(b) State Human Rights Commission
(c) Governor
(d) Director General of Police
Answer: Option A
26. Which form of talaq is revocable during period of ‘iddat’ ?
(A) Talaq-i-Ahsan
(B) Talaq-i-Hasan
(C) Triple Talaq
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
27. Essentials of valid contract is
(A) Meeting of minds
(B) Meeting of parties
(C) Meeting to discuss consideration
(D) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance
Ans: A
28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : A proposal, when accepted, results in an agreement.
Reason (R) : It is only after the acceptance of the proposal that a contract between the two parties can arise.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
29. A minor is son of a beggar. He is told by a law professor that he would not be liable for any goods he purchases. The minor purchases a car and a bread loaf. Decide liability for payment of car and bread loaf, using codes given below.
(A) The minor is liable to pay price of car and bread loaf.
(B) The minor is liable to pay reasonable compensation for car.
(C) The minor is liable to pay price of bread.
(D) The minor’s parent/guardian is liable to pay reasonable compensation for bread loaf.
Ans: D
30. Arrange following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below :
(i) Offer (ii) Acceptance (iii) Damage (iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
31. A contract may be vitiated by :
(i) Fraud (ii) Mistake (iii) Frustration (iv) Undue influence
Find correct answer, using codes :
Codes : (A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Ans: D
32. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below : Table – A Table – B a. Promise i. Section 56 b. Frustration ii. Section 2(d) c. Effect of refusal to accept offer of performance iii. Section 26 d. Agreement in restraint of marriage iv. Section 38
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c
(B) b a d c
(C) a b d c
(D) a b c d
Ans: B
33. P, owner of a car, asked his friend Q to drive the car to Bombay where he would join him. As the car was about five kilometres from Bombay, it hit a pedestrian R, on account of Q’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. R sued P for damages. In this case :
(A) P is not liable.
(B) The liability is solely of Q, as P was not accompanying him.
(C) Since Q was driving P’s car was under his authority, P is liable.
(D) P has the defence of inevitable accident.
Ans: C
34. “If it was lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases :
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christie Vs. Davey
(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans: A
35. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got a lift in R’s car, but on account of some mechanical defect in the car, of which R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away, and the car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his injuries. Q and P’s next kin sued R for damages for negligent driving. What defence R has ?
(A) Volenti non fit injuria (B) No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift
(C) Inevitable accident (D) No defence
Ans: C
36. In contributory negligence :
(A) Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.
(B) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
(C) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
(D) When lack of care is equal on both sides.
Ans: B
37. P shoot at Q with the view to kill him. When Q was being taken to hospital, a tree fell upon Q on the way and Q died in the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree caused Q’s death, then
(A) P shall be responsible for the death of Q.
(B) Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation.
(C) P is not liable to pay compensation to the dependents of Q.
(D) P is responsible for the death of Q as Q’s death was the direct consequence of P’s act.
Ans: B
38. Which one of the following has been laid down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher ?
(A) Fault liability (B) Conditional liability (C) Strict liability (D) Insurance liability
Ans: C
39. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below decide what offence if any was committed ?
Assertion – I : A and Z agree to fence with each other for a game. But because of foul, despite playing fairly, Z was injured.
Reason – II : a. No offence by virtue of consent between A and Z.
b. Consent was obtained in good faith to gain prize, so no offence by A.
c. A is criminally liable because he had knowledge about the likelihood of injury.
d. Despite implied consent the intention was bad so A is liable.
Codes :
(A) Reason ‘a’ is true when ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(B) Reason ‘b’ is true when ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(C) Reason ‘c’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(D) Reason ‘d’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are not asserted.
Ans: A
40. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer :
Assertion – I : Common intention is asserted.
Reason – II :
a. A period which is anterior in time among the offenders.
b. From the facts of pre-arranged plan.
c. From the act of conduct resulting from prior concert.
d. From the totality of circumstances in which the act was committed.
Codes :
(A) ‘a’ is false because ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ do not support it.
(B) ‘d’ is true as ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ support it.
(C) ‘c’ is true irrespective of support of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’.
(D) ‘b’ is true being supported by ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
Ans: B
41. Select the statement that is most suitable in law : Culpable homicide is not murder when one is deprived of the power of self-control resulting from :
(A) Grave and sudden provocation
(B) When death results by voluntary provocation.
(C) Where death results in course of obedience of law.
(D) When death results by mistake.
Ans: A
42. B a married man commits sex with C a girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has committed ?
(A) Adultery (B) Rape (C) No offence (D) Sexual outraging
Ans: C
43. Fill in the blank : Extortion is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to steal property (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint
Ans: C
44. Find answer of the following question : What is the distinctive feature between false information and false charging ?
(A) Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.
(B) To omit act which ought not to be done.
(C) A case for false information can only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by police.
(D) There is no real distinction.
Ans: B
45. Collective bargaining serves purposes :
(A) Regulating wages and conditions of service (B) Regulating labour management relations.
(C) Both (A) and (B). (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
46. In which country where statutes make it obligatory to negotiate nonperformance of the obligation invites penalty, failure to carry obligation is treated as unfair labour practice ?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans: B
47. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “there was no rule of thumb that in every case of termination of workman’s service in violation of Section 25F of ID Act relief of re-instatement should be granted ?
(A) Talwara Co-operative Credit & Service Society Ltd. Vs. Sushil Kumar (2009) I LLJ 326 S.C.
(B) Gujarat Steel Tubes Ltd. Vs. G.S.T. Mazdoor Sabha (1980) I LLJ 137 (S.C.)
(C) Mavji C. Lakum Vs. Central Bank of India (2008) III LLJ.1.(SC)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
48. The Registrar to Pensions Appeal Tribunal was appointed as presiding officer of a Labour Court. The appointment is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Void ab-initio
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I (Subject)
List – II (Provisions of ID Act)
a. Tribunal i. Section 2(ra)
b. Wages ii. Section 2(r)
c. Unfair Labour Practices iii. Section 2 (rb)
d. Village Industries iv. Section 2 (rr)
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: C
50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select correct answer :
Assertion (A) : Strike is individual stoppage of work to press management to get more pay.
Reason (R) : Individual has fundamental right of strike.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans: C
(A) Talaq-i-Ahsan
(B) Talaq-i-Hasan
(C) Triple Talaq
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
27. Essentials of valid contract is
(A) Meeting of minds
(B) Meeting of parties
(C) Meeting to discuss consideration
(D) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance
Ans: A
28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : A proposal, when accepted, results in an agreement.
Reason (R) : It is only after the acceptance of the proposal that a contract between the two parties can arise.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
29. A minor is son of a beggar. He is told by a law professor that he would not be liable for any goods he purchases. The minor purchases a car and a bread loaf. Decide liability for payment of car and bread loaf, using codes given below.
(A) The minor is liable to pay price of car and bread loaf.
(B) The minor is liable to pay reasonable compensation for car.
(C) The minor is liable to pay price of bread.
(D) The minor’s parent/guardian is liable to pay reasonable compensation for bread loaf.
Ans: D
30. Arrange following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below :
(i) Offer (ii) Acceptance (iii) Damage (iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
31. A contract may be vitiated by :
(i) Fraud (ii) Mistake (iii) Frustration (iv) Undue influence
Find correct answer, using codes :
Codes : (A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Ans: D
32. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below : Table – A Table – B a. Promise i. Section 56 b. Frustration ii. Section 2(d) c. Effect of refusal to accept offer of performance iii. Section 26 d. Agreement in restraint of marriage iv. Section 38
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c
(B) b a d c
(C) a b d c
(D) a b c d
Ans: B
33. P, owner of a car, asked his friend Q to drive the car to Bombay where he would join him. As the car was about five kilometres from Bombay, it hit a pedestrian R, on account of Q’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. R sued P for damages. In this case :
(A) P is not liable.
(B) The liability is solely of Q, as P was not accompanying him.
(C) Since Q was driving P’s car was under his authority, P is liable.
(D) P has the defence of inevitable accident.
Ans: C
34. “If it was lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases :
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christie Vs. Davey
(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans: A
35. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got a lift in R’s car, but on account of some mechanical defect in the car, of which R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away, and the car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his injuries. Q and P’s next kin sued R for damages for negligent driving. What defence R has ?
(A) Volenti non fit injuria (B) No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift
(C) Inevitable accident (D) No defence
Ans: C
36. In contributory negligence :
(A) Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.
(B) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
(C) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
(D) When lack of care is equal on both sides.
Ans: B
37. P shoot at Q with the view to kill him. When Q was being taken to hospital, a tree fell upon Q on the way and Q died in the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree caused Q’s death, then
(A) P shall be responsible for the death of Q.
(B) Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation.
(C) P is not liable to pay compensation to the dependents of Q.
(D) P is responsible for the death of Q as Q’s death was the direct consequence of P’s act.
Ans: B
38. Which one of the following has been laid down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher ?
(A) Fault liability (B) Conditional liability (C) Strict liability (D) Insurance liability
Ans: C
39. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below decide what offence if any was committed ?
Assertion – I : A and Z agree to fence with each other for a game. But because of foul, despite playing fairly, Z was injured.
Reason – II : a. No offence by virtue of consent between A and Z.
b. Consent was obtained in good faith to gain prize, so no offence by A.
c. A is criminally liable because he had knowledge about the likelihood of injury.
d. Despite implied consent the intention was bad so A is liable.
Codes :
(A) Reason ‘a’ is true when ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(B) Reason ‘b’ is true when ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(C) Reason ‘c’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(D) Reason ‘d’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are not asserted.
Ans: A
40. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer :
Assertion – I : Common intention is asserted.
Reason – II :
a. A period which is anterior in time among the offenders.
b. From the facts of pre-arranged plan.
c. From the act of conduct resulting from prior concert.
d. From the totality of circumstances in which the act was committed.
Codes :
(A) ‘a’ is false because ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ do not support it.
(B) ‘d’ is true as ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ support it.
(C) ‘c’ is true irrespective of support of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’.
(D) ‘b’ is true being supported by ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
Ans: B
41. Select the statement that is most suitable in law : Culpable homicide is not murder when one is deprived of the power of self-control resulting from :
(A) Grave and sudden provocation
(B) When death results by voluntary provocation.
(C) Where death results in course of obedience of law.
(D) When death results by mistake.
Ans: A
42. B a married man commits sex with C a girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has committed ?
(A) Adultery (B) Rape (C) No offence (D) Sexual outraging
Ans: C
43. Fill in the blank : Extortion is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to steal property (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint
Ans: C
44. Find answer of the following question : What is the distinctive feature between false information and false charging ?
(A) Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.
(B) To omit act which ought not to be done.
(C) A case for false information can only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by police.
(D) There is no real distinction.
Ans: B
45. Collective bargaining serves purposes :
(A) Regulating wages and conditions of service (B) Regulating labour management relations.
(C) Both (A) and (B). (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
46. In which country where statutes make it obligatory to negotiate nonperformance of the obligation invites penalty, failure to carry obligation is treated as unfair labour practice ?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans: B
47. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “there was no rule of thumb that in every case of termination of workman’s service in violation of Section 25F of ID Act relief of re-instatement should be granted ?
(A) Talwara Co-operative Credit & Service Society Ltd. Vs. Sushil Kumar (2009) I LLJ 326 S.C.
(B) Gujarat Steel Tubes Ltd. Vs. G.S.T. Mazdoor Sabha (1980) I LLJ 137 (S.C.)
(C) Mavji C. Lakum Vs. Central Bank of India (2008) III LLJ.1.(SC)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
48. The Registrar to Pensions Appeal Tribunal was appointed as presiding officer of a Labour Court. The appointment is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Void ab-initio
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I (Subject)
List – II (Provisions of ID Act)
a. Tribunal i. Section 2(ra)
b. Wages ii. Section 2(r)
c. Unfair Labour Practices iii. Section 2 (rb)
d. Village Industries iv. Section 2 (rr)
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: C
50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select correct answer :
Assertion (A) : Strike is individual stoppage of work to press management to get more pay.
Reason (R) : Individual has fundamental right of strike.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans: C
51. Social, economic and political Justice is
(A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
(D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court
Ans: A
52. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of
(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India (B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
(C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India (D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India
Ans: D
53. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
(A) Citizens of India
(B) Public Servants
(C) All those who run public and private sectors
(D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
Ans: A
54. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is
(A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition (D) Quo-Warranto
Ans: D
55. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Legislative power (B) Executive power (C) Quasi-judicial power (D) Judicial power
Ans: A
56. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A) The President of India (B) The Parliament by resolution
(C) The Parliament by Law (D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Ans: C
57. At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period of
(A) Fifteen days (B) Two months (C) One month (D) Six months
Ans: B
58. Legal Theory is based on
(A) a systematic study of positive laws (B) purely logical and empirical study
(C) concepts like morality, justice and ethics (D) total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries
Ans: C
59. Who separated jurisprudence from religion ?
(A) Kant (B) Hugo Grotius (C) Salmond (D) Jethro Brown
Ans: B
60. Under how many categories the five theories of punishment can be divided ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
Ans: D
61. On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership ?
(A) A right (B) Trademark (C) Movable property (D) A
Ans: C
62. “Sovereignty must be determinate, it is essential, is indivisible and is unlimited and illimitable.” Who conceived this about the sovereignty ?
(A) Hobbes (B) Austin (C) Jean Bodin (D) Plato
Ans: B
63. Consider the following statements :
1. Statements, which are not partaking of the character of ratio decidendi can be ignored while deciding the latter case.
2. The ratio decidendi is not the reason of decision.
3. Only that part of the judgment in an earlier decision is binding which constitutes the ratio decidendi of that case.
4. A judicial decision has a binding force for subsequent cases but the whole judgment is not binding, only a part of it is biding.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
64. “Case law is gold in the mine, a few grains of the precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use.” Who said these words ?
(A) Ihering (B) Austin (C) Kelson (D) Salmond
Ans: D
65. Which of the following statements are true ?
1. There is no rule to determine when usage shall give rise to a custom.
2. Customary rules of International law are diminishing and are being replaced by Treaties and Conventions.
3. Treaty contracts are not direct source of International law.
4. International law is a positive morality.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1 & 2
Ans: C
66. “The law of National or International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one-another.” This definition of International law was given by
(A) J.L. Brierly (B) Torsten Vitel
(C) Hackworth (D) None of the above
Ans: A
67. Match the following : List – I List – II
a. Recognition only and exclusively bestows a State with rights and duties under International Law. i. De-facto recognition
b. It is a first step towards final recognition. ii. De-Jure recognition
c. It is a final recognition by a State. iii. Declaratory Theory
d. International personality of a State does not depend upon recognition. iv. Constitutive Theory
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iv iii ii i (D) iii ii i iv
Ans: A
68. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by
(A) Five-third of the members of General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council only
(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N. including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations by a twothirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received .
(D) Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members.
Ans: D
69. In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule ?
(A) North Sea Continental Shelf case.
(B) The Lotus case.
(C) Both of the above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
70. Which organ of the United Nations has been given responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the realisation of human rights ?
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
71. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is entitled to maintenance ?
(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh (2003) 10 SCC 228.
(B) Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.
(C) Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4
(D) Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807
Ans: B
72. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of woman” ?
(A) Maina Bibi case
(B) Humara Bibi case
(C) Subrunnisan case
(D) Abdul Kadir case
Ans: C
73. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : “Option of Puberty” is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.
Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (B) (A) and (R) both are correct. (
C) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect. (D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Ans: B
74. ‘Tuhr’ means
(A) Period of menstruation (B) Period of iddat (C) Period between menstruation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
75. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Gujarat Women’s Workers Association Vs. Union of India i. Dower
b. Humara Bibi Vs. Zubaida Bibi ii. Triple Divorce
c. Anwari Begum Vs. Ziauddin iii. Uniform Civil Code d. Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain Fissalli iv. Maintenance
Codes : a b c d (A) i iv ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iii i ii iv (D) ii iii iv I
Ans: C
(A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
(D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court
Ans: A
52. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of
(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India (B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
(C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India (D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India
Ans: D
53. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
(A) Citizens of India
(B) Public Servants
(C) All those who run public and private sectors
(D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
Ans: A
54. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is
(A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition (D) Quo-Warranto
Ans: D
55. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Legislative power (B) Executive power (C) Quasi-judicial power (D) Judicial power
Ans: A
56. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A) The President of India (B) The Parliament by resolution
(C) The Parliament by Law (D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Ans: C
57. At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period of
(A) Fifteen days (B) Two months (C) One month (D) Six months
Ans: B
58. Legal Theory is based on
(A) a systematic study of positive laws (B) purely logical and empirical study
(C) concepts like morality, justice and ethics (D) total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries
Ans: C
59. Who separated jurisprudence from religion ?
(A) Kant (B) Hugo Grotius (C) Salmond (D) Jethro Brown
Ans: B
60. Under how many categories the five theories of punishment can be divided ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
Ans: D
61. On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership ?
(A) A right (B) Trademark (C) Movable property (D) A
Ans: C
62. “Sovereignty must be determinate, it is essential, is indivisible and is unlimited and illimitable.” Who conceived this about the sovereignty ?
(A) Hobbes (B) Austin (C) Jean Bodin (D) Plato
Ans: B
63. Consider the following statements :
1. Statements, which are not partaking of the character of ratio decidendi can be ignored while deciding the latter case.
2. The ratio decidendi is not the reason of decision.
3. Only that part of the judgment in an earlier decision is binding which constitutes the ratio decidendi of that case.
4. A judicial decision has a binding force for subsequent cases but the whole judgment is not binding, only a part of it is biding.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
64. “Case law is gold in the mine, a few grains of the precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use.” Who said these words ?
(A) Ihering (B) Austin (C) Kelson (D) Salmond
Ans: D
65. Which of the following statements are true ?
1. There is no rule to determine when usage shall give rise to a custom.
2. Customary rules of International law are diminishing and are being replaced by Treaties and Conventions.
3. Treaty contracts are not direct source of International law.
4. International law is a positive morality.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1 & 2
Ans: C
66. “The law of National or International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one-another.” This definition of International law was given by
(A) J.L. Brierly (B) Torsten Vitel
(C) Hackworth (D) None of the above
Ans: A
67. Match the following : List – I List – II
a. Recognition only and exclusively bestows a State with rights and duties under International Law. i. De-facto recognition
b. It is a first step towards final recognition. ii. De-Jure recognition
c. It is a final recognition by a State. iii. Declaratory Theory
d. International personality of a State does not depend upon recognition. iv. Constitutive Theory
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iv iii ii i (D) iii ii i iv
Ans: A
68. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by
(A) Five-third of the members of General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council only
(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N. including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations by a twothirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received .
(D) Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members.
Ans: D
69. In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule ?
(A) North Sea Continental Shelf case.
(B) The Lotus case.
(C) Both of the above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
70. Which organ of the United Nations has been given responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the realisation of human rights ?
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
71. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is entitled to maintenance ?
(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh (2003) 10 SCC 228.
(B) Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.
(C) Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4
(D) Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807
Ans: B
72. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of woman” ?
(A) Maina Bibi case
(B) Humara Bibi case
(C) Subrunnisan case
(D) Abdul Kadir case
Ans: C
73. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : “Option of Puberty” is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.
Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (B) (A) and (R) both are correct. (
C) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect. (D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Ans: B
74. ‘Tuhr’ means
(A) Period of menstruation (B) Period of iddat (C) Period between menstruation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
75. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Gujarat Women’s Workers Association Vs. Union of India i. Dower
b. Humara Bibi Vs. Zubaida Bibi ii. Triple Divorce
c. Anwari Begum Vs. Ziauddin iii. Uniform Civil Code d. Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain Fissalli iv. Maintenance
Codes : a b c d (A) i iv ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iii i ii iv (D) ii iii iv I
Ans: C
76. Demolishing a private structure standing encroached on a public street amounts to :
(A) Gain by unlawful means. (B) Wrongful gain for public purpose. (C) Wrongful loss by mischief. (D) None of above.
Ans: C
77. Assertion (A) : When an act is done dishonestly it does not require deception or concealment as its ingredient.
Reason (R) : Dishonesty requires an intention to cause wrongful loss or gain of property.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is not the reason.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true because (R) is the right reason of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are distinctive offences.
(D) (A) is false, while (R) is true.
Ans: B
78. Assertion (A) : Harbouring includes supplying a person with shelter, food, money or conveyance. Reason (R) : The supply must relate to evading apprehension.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct clarification but (R) is not the correct reason.
(B) (A) is not true while (R) is the correct explanation.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct proposition.
(D) Only in exceptional situation (R) is the reason of (A).
Ans: C
79. The real and abiding concern for the dignity of human life was decided in the case of :
(A) Rajendra Prasad v/s State of U.P.
(B) Mohindra Singh v/s Delhi Administration
(C) Javed Ahmed v/s State of Maharashtra.
(D) Bachan Singh v/s State of Punjab.
Ans: D
80. An unlawful assembly is a particular state of activity accompanied by the use of force or violence is riot, but it does not include :
(A) There must be five or more persons
(B) There must be animation by a common object
(C) Persons assembled for lawful purpose but started quarrelling without any previous intention.
(D) All of them.
Ans: C
81. Which of the following statements are not false evidence in discharge of public justice ?
(A) A false statement given under instigation.
(B) A statement known to be false.
(C) A statement not believed to be true.
(D) None of above.
Ans: A
82. A ceremonial pollution is an act relating to unclean worship and is known as the offence of _____.
(A) Insult to religion (B) Defilement (C) Anti secularism (D) Religious hatredness
Ans: B
83. One of the following case is popularly known as “Doon Valley case” :
(A) Pathumna v/s State of Kerala AIR 1978, 2 SCC.
(B) M.C. Metha v/s Union of India AIR 1987 SC.
(C) Unni Krishnan v/s State of A.P. AIR 1993, 1 SCC.
(D) R.L. & E. Kendra v/s State of UP AIR 1985 SC.
Ans: D
84. The polluter pays principle has been incorporated in
(A) Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
(B) Principle 27 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
(C) Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
(D) Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
Ans: D
85. Protection and Improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wild life is
(A) One of the Directive Principles of state policy
(B) A fundamental right
(C) Fundamental duty
(D) Both directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties
Ans: D
86. Two important Amendments were brought in the year 1976. One with reference to directive principles of state policy making the state responsible to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country. The other under fundamental duties making every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures. The relevant amendment is
(A) 49th Amendment
(B) 45th Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans: D
87. Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 enables a person to file a complaint in a criminal court after giving a notice to the Pollution Control Board. Once a complaint has been made, the board is bound to make available to the complaint all relevant reports to him on demand. The board may also refuse to disclose on public interest. Similar provisions are also available under
(A) Section 49 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 43 of the Air Act 1981
(B) Section 43 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 49 of the Air Act 1981
(C) Section 42 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 46 of the Air Act 1981
(D) Section 41 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 42 of the Air Act 1981
Ans: A
88. The Supreme Court of India ordered conversion from fuel to CNG on July 28, 1998. It also set up a committee to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001. The name of the committee is
(A) Bhurelal Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Mallimath Committee
(D) Madanlal Committee
Ans: A
89. “The public trust doctrine primarily rests on the principle that certain resources like air, sea, water and the forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole that it would be wholly injustified to make them a subject of private ownership.” The above Doctrine was discussed in detail in one of the following case :
(A) M.C. Metha v/s Kamalnath 1997 1 SCC.
(B) Rural litigation and Environment Kendra v/s Union of India AIR.1985 SC.
(C) Vellore Citizen’s welfare Forum v/s Union of India 1996, 5 SCC.
(D) M.C. Metha v/s Union of India AIR. 1987 SC.
Ans: A
90. “Form of rules accepted by civilized states as determining their conduct towards each other and each other’s subject, is defined as international law.” Above statement is attributed to :
(A) S.S. Lotus case (B) West Rand Central Gold Mining ltd. Co. v/s King
(C) Queen V. Keyn (D) L. Oppenheim
Ans: B
91. Assertion (A) : International convention is the most important source of law.
Reason (R) : International convention has generic wisdom.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
92. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) The community to be recognized as an international person should be organised one.
(B) Control of the community over definite territory is desirable.
(C) The control over the territory may be permanent.
(D) The community must be independent.
Ans: D
93. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Primary responsibility of international peacekeeping and security is on the General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council is a deliberative organ.
(C) Members may not accept and carry out the advice of the security council.
(D) Social and economic council is to discharge the responsibility of the states enshrined in Chapter IX from Articles 55-60. This council operates under the authority and supervision of general assembly.
Ans: D
94. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
i. Doctrine of forum prorogatum
a. Certain expenses case, ICJ Rep. 1962, p. 151
ii. Condition of reciprocity
b. Nicaragua v. US, ICJ Rep. 1984, pp. 392, 421-26
iii. Advisory jurisdiction
c. Interhandel case, ICJ Rep. 1959, p.6
iv. Reservations d. Corfu channel case, (Preliminary objection), ICJ Rep. 1948, p.28
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) c d a b
(B) d c a b
(C) d c b a
(D) a b d c
Ans: B
95. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) Mere counting of heads is enough to assess the degree of authority and credibility of a resolution of General Assembly.
(B) Mere counting of heads is not enough to assess the degree of authority and credibility of a resolution of General Assembly.
(C) Mere counting of heads is enough to assess integrity of General Assembly.
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
96. Assertion (A) : Recognition of a state is not the same as recognition of its government.
Reason (R) : Within existing states, governments come and go and normally the changes raise no question of recognition.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
97. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 if the husband has been insane for a period of : (A) 1 year (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 5 years
Ans: B
98. Which of the following is not essential for divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) They have been living separately for one year.
(B) They have not been able to live together.
(C) The wife has not received any maintenance.
(D) They have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved.
Ans: C
99. That the respondent was, at the time of the marriage, pregnant by some person other than the petitioner, is a ground for voidable marriages under
(A) Section-12(1)(a)
(B) Section-12(1)(b)
(C) Section-12(1)(c)
(D) Section-12(1)(d)
Ans: D
100. A petition for the dissolution of the marriage by a decree of divorce may be presented, if cohabitation as between the parties to the marriage, after the passing of a decree of judicial separation, is not resumed for a period of :
(A) One year or upwards
(B) Two years or upwards
(C) Six months or upwards
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
(A) Gain by unlawful means. (B) Wrongful gain for public purpose. (C) Wrongful loss by mischief. (D) None of above.
Ans: C
77. Assertion (A) : When an act is done dishonestly it does not require deception or concealment as its ingredient.
Reason (R) : Dishonesty requires an intention to cause wrongful loss or gain of property.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is not the reason.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true because (R) is the right reason of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are distinctive offences.
(D) (A) is false, while (R) is true.
Ans: B
78. Assertion (A) : Harbouring includes supplying a person with shelter, food, money or conveyance. Reason (R) : The supply must relate to evading apprehension.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct clarification but (R) is not the correct reason.
(B) (A) is not true while (R) is the correct explanation.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct proposition.
(D) Only in exceptional situation (R) is the reason of (A).
Ans: C
79. The real and abiding concern for the dignity of human life was decided in the case of :
(A) Rajendra Prasad v/s State of U.P.
(B) Mohindra Singh v/s Delhi Administration
(C) Javed Ahmed v/s State of Maharashtra.
(D) Bachan Singh v/s State of Punjab.
Ans: D
80. An unlawful assembly is a particular state of activity accompanied by the use of force or violence is riot, but it does not include :
(A) There must be five or more persons
(B) There must be animation by a common object
(C) Persons assembled for lawful purpose but started quarrelling without any previous intention.
(D) All of them.
Ans: C
81. Which of the following statements are not false evidence in discharge of public justice ?
(A) A false statement given under instigation.
(B) A statement known to be false.
(C) A statement not believed to be true.
(D) None of above.
Ans: A
82. A ceremonial pollution is an act relating to unclean worship and is known as the offence of _____.
(A) Insult to religion (B) Defilement (C) Anti secularism (D) Religious hatredness
Ans: B
83. One of the following case is popularly known as “Doon Valley case” :
(A) Pathumna v/s State of Kerala AIR 1978, 2 SCC.
(B) M.C. Metha v/s Union of India AIR 1987 SC.
(C) Unni Krishnan v/s State of A.P. AIR 1993, 1 SCC.
(D) R.L. & E. Kendra v/s State of UP AIR 1985 SC.
Ans: D
84. The polluter pays principle has been incorporated in
(A) Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
(B) Principle 27 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
(C) Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
(D) Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
Ans: D
85. Protection and Improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wild life is
(A) One of the Directive Principles of state policy
(B) A fundamental right
(C) Fundamental duty
(D) Both directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties
Ans: D
86. Two important Amendments were brought in the year 1976. One with reference to directive principles of state policy making the state responsible to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country. The other under fundamental duties making every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures. The relevant amendment is
(A) 49th Amendment
(B) 45th Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans: D
87. Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 enables a person to file a complaint in a criminal court after giving a notice to the Pollution Control Board. Once a complaint has been made, the board is bound to make available to the complaint all relevant reports to him on demand. The board may also refuse to disclose on public interest. Similar provisions are also available under
(A) Section 49 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 43 of the Air Act 1981
(B) Section 43 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 49 of the Air Act 1981
(C) Section 42 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 46 of the Air Act 1981
(D) Section 41 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 42 of the Air Act 1981
Ans: A
88. The Supreme Court of India ordered conversion from fuel to CNG on July 28, 1998. It also set up a committee to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001. The name of the committee is
(A) Bhurelal Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Mallimath Committee
(D) Madanlal Committee
Ans: A
89. “The public trust doctrine primarily rests on the principle that certain resources like air, sea, water and the forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole that it would be wholly injustified to make them a subject of private ownership.” The above Doctrine was discussed in detail in one of the following case :
(A) M.C. Metha v/s Kamalnath 1997 1 SCC.
(B) Rural litigation and Environment Kendra v/s Union of India AIR.1985 SC.
(C) Vellore Citizen’s welfare Forum v/s Union of India 1996, 5 SCC.
(D) M.C. Metha v/s Union of India AIR. 1987 SC.
Ans: A
90. “Form of rules accepted by civilized states as determining their conduct towards each other and each other’s subject, is defined as international law.” Above statement is attributed to :
(A) S.S. Lotus case (B) West Rand Central Gold Mining ltd. Co. v/s King
(C) Queen V. Keyn (D) L. Oppenheim
Ans: B
91. Assertion (A) : International convention is the most important source of law.
Reason (R) : International convention has generic wisdom.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
92. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) The community to be recognized as an international person should be organised one.
(B) Control of the community over definite territory is desirable.
(C) The control over the territory may be permanent.
(D) The community must be independent.
Ans: D
93. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Primary responsibility of international peacekeeping and security is on the General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council is a deliberative organ.
(C) Members may not accept and carry out the advice of the security council.
(D) Social and economic council is to discharge the responsibility of the states enshrined in Chapter IX from Articles 55-60. This council operates under the authority and supervision of general assembly.
Ans: D
94. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
i. Doctrine of forum prorogatum
a. Certain expenses case, ICJ Rep. 1962, p. 151
ii. Condition of reciprocity
b. Nicaragua v. US, ICJ Rep. 1984, pp. 392, 421-26
iii. Advisory jurisdiction
c. Interhandel case, ICJ Rep. 1959, p.6
iv. Reservations d. Corfu channel case, (Preliminary objection), ICJ Rep. 1948, p.28
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) c d a b
(B) d c a b
(C) d c b a
(D) a b d c
Ans: B
95. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) Mere counting of heads is enough to assess the degree of authority and credibility of a resolution of General Assembly.
(B) Mere counting of heads is not enough to assess the degree of authority and credibility of a resolution of General Assembly.
(C) Mere counting of heads is enough to assess integrity of General Assembly.
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
96. Assertion (A) : Recognition of a state is not the same as recognition of its government.
Reason (R) : Within existing states, governments come and go and normally the changes raise no question of recognition.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
97. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 if the husband has been insane for a period of : (A) 1 year (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 5 years
Ans: B
98. Which of the following is not essential for divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) They have been living separately for one year.
(B) They have not been able to live together.
(C) The wife has not received any maintenance.
(D) They have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved.
Ans: C
99. That the respondent was, at the time of the marriage, pregnant by some person other than the petitioner, is a ground for voidable marriages under
(A) Section-12(1)(a)
(B) Section-12(1)(b)
(C) Section-12(1)(c)
(D) Section-12(1)(d)
Ans: D
100. A petition for the dissolution of the marriage by a decree of divorce may be presented, if cohabitation as between the parties to the marriage, after the passing of a decree of judicial separation, is not resumed for a period of :
(A) One year or upwards
(B) Two years or upwards
(C) Six months or upwards
(D) None of the above
Ans: A