LAW- PAGE 2
1. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?
(a) Section 366-A – procuration of minor girl.
(b) Section 372 – selling minor for prostitution.
(c) Section 376-B – sexual intercourse by a man with his wife during separation.
(d) Section 497 – enticing away a married woman with criminal intent.
Answer: Option D
2. According to Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code “nothing is an offence which is committed by a child under”
(a) 14 years of age
(b) 16 years of age
(c) 7 years of age
(d) 15 years of age
Answer: Option C
3. The offence of ‘dacoity’ under Indian Penal Code may be committed by way of
(a) theft only
(b) extortion only
(c) cheating only
(d) robbery only
Answer: Option D
4. Under which section of Indian Penal Code, “the punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment” is provided ?
(a) under Section 508
(b) under Section 509
(c) under Section 511
(d) under Section 510
Answer: Option C
5. The minimum number of persons to an agreement to be designated as criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A of the Indian Penal Code is
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer: Option A
6. Under the Indian Penal Code, whosoever by force compels, or by deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of
(a) kidnapping
(b) abduction
(c) wrongful restraint
(d) abetment
Answer: Option B
7. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by the deceased person at the time of his death, is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code is
(a) Section 402
(b) Section 403
(c) Section 405
(d) Section 404
Answer: Option D
8. According to Section 304-B of Indian Penal Code, whoever commits “dowry death” is punished with imprisonment which is not less than
(a) ten years
(b) seven years
(c) twelve years
(d) twenty years
Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following offence was not inserted in the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 ?
(a) Sexual harassment
(b) Stalking
(c) Voyeurism
(d) Lurking house-trespass
Answer: Option D
10. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code “voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid” is an offence ?
(a) Section 326
(b) Section 326-A
(c) Section 326-B
(d) Section 326-C
Answer: Option C
11. Laxmi Vs. Union of India (2014) 4 SCC 427 is a case which is related to the offence of
(a) acid attack
(b) dowry death
(c) murder
(d) rape
Answer: Option A
12. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the date of
(a) 6th October, 1860
(b) 1st March, 1874
(c) 15th March, 1872
(d) 1st September, 1872
Answer: Option C
13. Law of evidence consist of which of the followings ?
(a) ordinary rules of reasoning
(b) legal rules of evidence
(c) rules of logic
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option B
14. Which of the following is not included in the expression of “court” under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) All Judges
(b) All Magistrates
(c) All persons legally authorised to take evidence
(d) Arbitrator
Answer: Option D
15. “Any such fact which possesses probative force, is called evidence.” The definition belongs to whom of the following ?
(a) Salmond
(b) Stephen
(c) Phipson
(d) Bentham
Answer: Option B
16. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act makes relevant, the opinions as to existence of custom ?
(a) Section 47
(b) Section 49
(c) Section 48
(d) Section 50
Answer: Option C
17. Who can make an admission under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Person from whom interest is derived
(b) An independent person
(c) Witness to a proceeding
(d) The court
Answer: Option A
18. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to handwriting has been considered to be relevant ?
(a) Section 85-A
(b) Section 47
(c) Section-113 B
(d) Section 114-A
Answer: Option B
19. For an offence under Section 376 of Indian Penal Code, the evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 52
(b) Section 54
(c) Section 55
(d) Section 53-A
Answer: Option D
20. Dudhnath Pandey Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, is a case which is related in the law of evidence with the topic of
(a) Res Gestae
(b) Plea of Alibi
(c) Admission
(d) Accomplice
Answer: Option B
21. ‘Presumption of life’ is contained under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 108
(b) Section 106
(c) Section 104
(d) Section 107
Answer: Option D
22. ‘Relevancy’ and ‘admissibility’ under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are the terms which are
(a) synonymous
(b) co-extensive
(c) neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(d) synonymous and co-extensive both
Answer: Option C
23. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Motive
(b) Intention
(c) Preparation
(d) Conduct
Answer: Option B
24. Confession of 1 accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 ?
(a) Under Section 26
(b) Under Section 27
(c) Under Section 40
(d) Under Section 30
Answer: Option D
25. Oral evidence under section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 must be
(a) direct only
(b) hearsay
(c) both (a) and (b) of above
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option A
26. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on :
A:-International Commercial Arbitration Guidelines
B:-UNCITRAL Model Law
C:-Constitution of India
D:-Report of the Lok Sabha Committee on Arbitration and Conciliation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
27. The form of Alternate Dispute Resolution wherein the parties hire someone to review the evidence and make a decision that is binding upon the parties is called :
A:-Arbitration
B:-Conciliation
C:-Mediation
D:-Negotiation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
28. An arbitration agreement under section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 :
A:-Shall be in writing
B:-Shall be in writing and registered
C:-May be oral
D:-No agreement is necessary
Correct Answer:- Option-A
29. The provisions relating to which of the following has been introduced for the first time in India by the Companies Act, 2013?
A:-One person company
B:-Electronic voting
C:-Participation in Board meetings through video conferencing
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
30. Which school of jurisprudence stresses on the "politics of law" so as to be described as "legal leftism"?
A:-American Realism
B:-Critical Legal Studies Movement
C:-Liberal Legalism
D:-Feminist Legal Criticism
Correct Answer:- Option-B
(a) Section 366-A – procuration of minor girl.
(b) Section 372 – selling minor for prostitution.
(c) Section 376-B – sexual intercourse by a man with his wife during separation.
(d) Section 497 – enticing away a married woman with criminal intent.
Answer: Option D
2. According to Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code “nothing is an offence which is committed by a child under”
(a) 14 years of age
(b) 16 years of age
(c) 7 years of age
(d) 15 years of age
Answer: Option C
3. The offence of ‘dacoity’ under Indian Penal Code may be committed by way of
(a) theft only
(b) extortion only
(c) cheating only
(d) robbery only
Answer: Option D
4. Under which section of Indian Penal Code, “the punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment” is provided ?
(a) under Section 508
(b) under Section 509
(c) under Section 511
(d) under Section 510
Answer: Option C
5. The minimum number of persons to an agreement to be designated as criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A of the Indian Penal Code is
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer: Option A
6. Under the Indian Penal Code, whosoever by force compels, or by deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of
(a) kidnapping
(b) abduction
(c) wrongful restraint
(d) abetment
Answer: Option B
7. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by the deceased person at the time of his death, is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code is
(a) Section 402
(b) Section 403
(c) Section 405
(d) Section 404
Answer: Option D
8. According to Section 304-B of Indian Penal Code, whoever commits “dowry death” is punished with imprisonment which is not less than
(a) ten years
(b) seven years
(c) twelve years
(d) twenty years
Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following offence was not inserted in the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 ?
(a) Sexual harassment
(b) Stalking
(c) Voyeurism
(d) Lurking house-trespass
Answer: Option D
10. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code “voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid” is an offence ?
(a) Section 326
(b) Section 326-A
(c) Section 326-B
(d) Section 326-C
Answer: Option C
11. Laxmi Vs. Union of India (2014) 4 SCC 427 is a case which is related to the offence of
(a) acid attack
(b) dowry death
(c) murder
(d) rape
Answer: Option A
12. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the date of
(a) 6th October, 1860
(b) 1st March, 1874
(c) 15th March, 1872
(d) 1st September, 1872
Answer: Option C
13. Law of evidence consist of which of the followings ?
(a) ordinary rules of reasoning
(b) legal rules of evidence
(c) rules of logic
(d) All of the above
Answer: Option B
14. Which of the following is not included in the expression of “court” under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) All Judges
(b) All Magistrates
(c) All persons legally authorised to take evidence
(d) Arbitrator
Answer: Option D
15. “Any such fact which possesses probative force, is called evidence.” The definition belongs to whom of the following ?
(a) Salmond
(b) Stephen
(c) Phipson
(d) Bentham
Answer: Option B
16. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act makes relevant, the opinions as to existence of custom ?
(a) Section 47
(b) Section 49
(c) Section 48
(d) Section 50
Answer: Option C
17. Who can make an admission under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Person from whom interest is derived
(b) An independent person
(c) Witness to a proceeding
(d) The court
Answer: Option A
18. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to handwriting has been considered to be relevant ?
(a) Section 85-A
(b) Section 47
(c) Section-113 B
(d) Section 114-A
Answer: Option B
19. For an offence under Section 376 of Indian Penal Code, the evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 52
(b) Section 54
(c) Section 55
(d) Section 53-A
Answer: Option D
20. Dudhnath Pandey Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, is a case which is related in the law of evidence with the topic of
(a) Res Gestae
(b) Plea of Alibi
(c) Admission
(d) Accomplice
Answer: Option B
21. ‘Presumption of life’ is contained under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 108
(b) Section 106
(c) Section 104
(d) Section 107
Answer: Option D
22. ‘Relevancy’ and ‘admissibility’ under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are the terms which are
(a) synonymous
(b) co-extensive
(c) neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(d) synonymous and co-extensive both
Answer: Option C
23. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Motive
(b) Intention
(c) Preparation
(d) Conduct
Answer: Option B
24. Confession of 1 accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 ?
(a) Under Section 26
(b) Under Section 27
(c) Under Section 40
(d) Under Section 30
Answer: Option D
25. Oral evidence under section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 must be
(a) direct only
(b) hearsay
(c) both (a) and (b) of above
(d) None of the above
Answer: Option A
26. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on :
A:-International Commercial Arbitration Guidelines
B:-UNCITRAL Model Law
C:-Constitution of India
D:-Report of the Lok Sabha Committee on Arbitration and Conciliation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
27. The form of Alternate Dispute Resolution wherein the parties hire someone to review the evidence and make a decision that is binding upon the parties is called :
A:-Arbitration
B:-Conciliation
C:-Mediation
D:-Negotiation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
28. An arbitration agreement under section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 :
A:-Shall be in writing
B:-Shall be in writing and registered
C:-May be oral
D:-No agreement is necessary
Correct Answer:- Option-A
29. The provisions relating to which of the following has been introduced for the first time in India by the Companies Act, 2013?
A:-One person company
B:-Electronic voting
C:-Participation in Board meetings through video conferencing
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
30. Which school of jurisprudence stresses on the "politics of law" so as to be described as "legal leftism"?
A:-American Realism
B:-Critical Legal Studies Movement
C:-Liberal Legalism
D:-Feminist Legal Criticism
Correct Answer:- Option-B
31. The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is :
(A) To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
(B) To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles.
(C) To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants.
(D) To establish air laboratory for air quality standards.
Ans: A
32. The definition of ‘environmental pollution’ under the Environment (Protection Act) is :
(A) Any pollution of air, water and soil
(B) The presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that causes injuries to man
(C) The presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant
(D) Any pollution in land, sea and air
Ans: C
33. Assertion (A) : A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits.
Reason (R) : The court decided that the company could not be held liable under Water Act, 1974.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
34. The National Environment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liability in the cases of
I. Death of any person
II. Injury to any person
III. Death and injury to workman
IV. Damage to any property
Codes :
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) IV only is correct.
(D) I, II and IV are correct.
Ans: D
35. Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine under Environment law. Use the code given below :
I. M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath
II. M.I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu
III. Hinch lal Tiwari Vs. Kamala Devi
IV. Intellectual Forum, Thirupathi Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
Codes : (A) IV, III, I, II
(B) III, II, IV, I
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
36. Match items in List – I with items in List – II using codes given below : List – I List – II
a. Intergenerational Equity i. Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15
b. Sustainable Development ii. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 16.
c. Precautionary Principle iii. Stockholm Declaration 1972, Principles 1 & 2
d. Polluter Pays Principle iv. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 3
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
37. For which special purpose a conditional permit for hunting any wild animal, cannot be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act ? (A) Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs.
(B) Collection of specimen for zoos and museums.
(C) Scientific research.
(D) Research in traditional and established Universities.
Ans: D
38. Under whose specification the recycling of plastic is undertaken as per the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999 ?
(A) Indian Standard Institution
(B) Bureau of Indian Standards
(C) Indian Standard Organisation
(D) Indian Plastic Bureau
Ans: D
39. “International law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the International Community in their mutual relations”. Who has given this definition of Public International Law ?
(A) J.G. Starke (B) Charles G. Fenwick
(C) Whiteman (D) Torsten Gihl
Ans: B
40. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Name of Cases) List – II (Popular Names)
a. Portugal Vs. India 1. The Asylum Case
b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali 2. Fisheries Jurisdiction Case
c. Spain Vs. Canada 3. Frontier Dispute Case
d. Columbia Vs. Peru 4. Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: B
41. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below : List – I List – II
a. Recognition clothes the recognized State with rights and duties under International law. 1. De Facto Recognition
b. Recognition is merely a formal acknowledgement through which established facts are accepted 2. Constitutive Theory of Recognition
c. State recognized possesses the essential elements of statehood and fit to be subject of international law. 3. De-Jure Recognition
d. Recognition is final and once granted cannot be withdrawn 4. Declaratory Theory of Recognition
Codes : a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: A
42. The Estrada Doctrine was propounded by
(A) The Home Minister of Mexico (B) The Foreign Minister of Mexico
(C) The External Secretary of U.S.A. (D) The Prime Minister of U.K.
Ans: B
43. Provision, “that the U.N.O. has no competence to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State”, has been provided under which Article of U.N. Charter ?
(A) Article 1(7) (B) Article 2(7) (C) Article 7(2) (D) Article 98(7)
Ans: B
44. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Name of Cases) List – II (Years of decision)
a. Lether Vs. Sagor 1. 1939
b. Bank of Ethiopia Vs. National Bank of Egypt 2. 1942
c. Arantzazu Mendi Case 3. 1937
d. U.S. Vs. Pink 4. 1921
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
45. Give the chronological order of the following in which they came into existence :
a. Charter of United Nations.
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
c. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
d. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
Codes :
(A) a c b d (B) d b a c (C) a b d c (D) c d b a
Ans: C
46. Propositions are :
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct ?
(A) I and III are correct, but II is incorrect. (B) II and III are correct, but I is incorrect.
(C) I and III are incorrect, but II is correct. (D) I and II are incorrect, but III is correct.
Ans: B
47. As per Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the essential conditions of a Hindu marriage are :
I. Monogamy
II. Mental capacity
III. The bridegroom has completed the age of 21 years and the bride of 18 years
IV. No prohibited degree and sapinda relationship unless saved by custom.
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV (B) II, III, and IV
(C) I, II and III (D) I, II, III and IV
Ans: D
48. Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was held to be ‘intra-vires’ the Constitution by the Supreme Court in the case of
(A) T. Sareetha Vs. T.V. Subbhiah
(B) Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan
(C) Harvinder Kaur Vs. Harmandar Singh
(D) Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
Ans: B
49. A Muslim has given Triple Talaaq to his wife and now wants to marry her again. He can do so
(A) without any restriction
(B) only on request of such wife
(C) cannot marry her
(D) only if such woman marry another man, the marriage is consummated and he has [second Husband] divorced her
Ans: D
50. In giving a child in adoption by the Hindu father, the requirement of the consent of the mother, can be dispensed with if
I. She has been declared to be of unsound mind by the Court of Competent jurisdiction.
II. She has finally and completely renounced the world.
III. She has ceased to be a Hindu.
IV. Her age is less than 18 years.
Codes :
(A) II, III and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, II and III
(D) I, III and IV
Ans: C
(A) To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
(B) To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles.
(C) To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants.
(D) To establish air laboratory for air quality standards.
Ans: A
32. The definition of ‘environmental pollution’ under the Environment (Protection Act) is :
(A) Any pollution of air, water and soil
(B) The presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that causes injuries to man
(C) The presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant
(D) Any pollution in land, sea and air
Ans: C
33. Assertion (A) : A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits.
Reason (R) : The court decided that the company could not be held liable under Water Act, 1974.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
34. The National Environment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liability in the cases of
I. Death of any person
II. Injury to any person
III. Death and injury to workman
IV. Damage to any property
Codes :
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) IV only is correct.
(D) I, II and IV are correct.
Ans: D
35. Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine under Environment law. Use the code given below :
I. M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath
II. M.I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu
III. Hinch lal Tiwari Vs. Kamala Devi
IV. Intellectual Forum, Thirupathi Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
Codes : (A) IV, III, I, II
(B) III, II, IV, I
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) I, II, III, IV
Ans: D
36. Match items in List – I with items in List – II using codes given below : List – I List – II
a. Intergenerational Equity i. Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15
b. Sustainable Development ii. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 16.
c. Precautionary Principle iii. Stockholm Declaration 1972, Principles 1 & 2
d. Polluter Pays Principle iv. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 3
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
37. For which special purpose a conditional permit for hunting any wild animal, cannot be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act ? (A) Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs.
(B) Collection of specimen for zoos and museums.
(C) Scientific research.
(D) Research in traditional and established Universities.
Ans: D
38. Under whose specification the recycling of plastic is undertaken as per the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999 ?
(A) Indian Standard Institution
(B) Bureau of Indian Standards
(C) Indian Standard Organisation
(D) Indian Plastic Bureau
Ans: D
39. “International law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the International Community in their mutual relations”. Who has given this definition of Public International Law ?
(A) J.G. Starke (B) Charles G. Fenwick
(C) Whiteman (D) Torsten Gihl
Ans: B
40. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Name of Cases) List – II (Popular Names)
a. Portugal Vs. India 1. The Asylum Case
b. Burkina Faso Vs. Mali 2. Fisheries Jurisdiction Case
c. Spain Vs. Canada 3. Frontier Dispute Case
d. Columbia Vs. Peru 4. Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: B
41. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below : List – I List – II
a. Recognition clothes the recognized State with rights and duties under International law. 1. De Facto Recognition
b. Recognition is merely a formal acknowledgement through which established facts are accepted 2. Constitutive Theory of Recognition
c. State recognized possesses the essential elements of statehood and fit to be subject of international law. 3. De-Jure Recognition
d. Recognition is final and once granted cannot be withdrawn 4. Declaratory Theory of Recognition
Codes : a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: A
42. The Estrada Doctrine was propounded by
(A) The Home Minister of Mexico (B) The Foreign Minister of Mexico
(C) The External Secretary of U.S.A. (D) The Prime Minister of U.K.
Ans: B
43. Provision, “that the U.N.O. has no competence to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State”, has been provided under which Article of U.N. Charter ?
(A) Article 1(7) (B) Article 2(7) (C) Article 7(2) (D) Article 98(7)
Ans: B
44. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Name of Cases) List – II (Years of decision)
a. Lether Vs. Sagor 1. 1939
b. Bank of Ethiopia Vs. National Bank of Egypt 2. 1942
c. Arantzazu Mendi Case 3. 1937
d. U.S. Vs. Pink 4. 1921
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
45. Give the chronological order of the following in which they came into existence :
a. Charter of United Nations.
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
c. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
d. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
Codes :
(A) a c b d (B) d b a c (C) a b d c (D) c d b a
Ans: C
46. Propositions are :
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct ?
(A) I and III are correct, but II is incorrect. (B) II and III are correct, but I is incorrect.
(C) I and III are incorrect, but II is correct. (D) I and II are incorrect, but III is correct.
Ans: B
47. As per Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the essential conditions of a Hindu marriage are :
I. Monogamy
II. Mental capacity
III. The bridegroom has completed the age of 21 years and the bride of 18 years
IV. No prohibited degree and sapinda relationship unless saved by custom.
Codes :
(A) I, II and IV (B) II, III, and IV
(C) I, II and III (D) I, II, III and IV
Ans: D
48. Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was held to be ‘intra-vires’ the Constitution by the Supreme Court in the case of
(A) T. Sareetha Vs. T.V. Subbhiah
(B) Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan
(C) Harvinder Kaur Vs. Harmandar Singh
(D) Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
Ans: B
49. A Muslim has given Triple Talaaq to his wife and now wants to marry her again. He can do so
(A) without any restriction
(B) only on request of such wife
(C) cannot marry her
(D) only if such woman marry another man, the marriage is consummated and he has [second Husband] divorced her
Ans: D
50. In giving a child in adoption by the Hindu father, the requirement of the consent of the mother, can be dispensed with if
I. She has been declared to be of unsound mind by the Court of Competent jurisdiction.
II. She has finally and completely renounced the world.
III. She has ceased to be a Hindu.
IV. Her age is less than 18 years.
Codes :
(A) II, III and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, II and III
(D) I, III and IV
Ans: C
51. “A Hindu mother can be natural guardian of her minor child during the life of father of the child if he is not taking due care of the child.” This was held by the Supreme court of India in case of
(A) M.M. Ganguli Vs. Jayanti Ganguli
(B) Jijabai Vs. Pathan Khan
(C) Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
(D) Githa Hariharan Vs. Reserve Bank of India
Ans: D
52. Match List – I with List – II in the light of Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Imprisonment of Husband i. Sec. 2(vii)
b. Option of puberty ii. Sec. 2(iii)
c. Husband missing iii. Sec. 2(v)
d. Impotency of husband iv. Sec. 2(i)
Codes : a b c d (A) ii i iv iii (B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv ii i iii (D) iii i ii iv
Ans: A
53. Which of the following has not yet been statutorily recognized as a theory of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(A) Fault Theory (B) Will Theory (C) Breakdown Theory (D) Mutual Consent Theory
Ans: B
54. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Human Rights are regarded as those fundamental but alienable rights which are preferred for life as human being.
Reason (R) : Change is general rule of life. Therefore legislatures are free to change human rights according to changing needs and circumstances.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) Both(A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not correct reason for (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: C
55. Which of the following statements are wrong ? Answer using codes :
i. Human rights are created by legislation.
ii. Legal duty to protect human rights is not duty to respect them.
iii. International concern with human rights as enshrined in the Untied Nations Charter is a modern innovation.
iv. A human right violation is now conceived as violation of those personally and directly aggrieved, but not of everyone.
Codes :
(A) i, ii
(B) ii, iii
(C) iii, iv
(D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: D
56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The purpose of the United Nation is to maintain national security and peace.
Reason (R) : Because Article – I of the Charter of the United Nations says so.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: B
57. Right to nationality, right to marry and to found a family are the rights under
i. Only women rights
ii. Social and cultural rights
iii. Civil and political rights
iv. Inherent rights
Codes :
(A) i, ii and iv
(B) ii, iii and iv
(C) ii and iii
(D) iii
Ans: D
58. Which of the following court normally is/are notified by the State Governments to act as Human Rights Court for speedy trial of offences violating Human Rights?
i. Munsiff Courts
ii. Lok Adalats
iii. Senior Civil Judge Court
iv. Sessions Court
Codes :
(A) i and iv
(B) i, iii and iv
(C) ii and iv
(D) iv
Ans: D
59. The power of ‘enquiry and investigation’ was given to Human Rights Commission under the following sections of the protection of Human Rights Act 1993 i. Sec. 13 ii. Sec. 14 iii. Sec. 9 iv. Sec. 10
Codes :
(A) i and ii
(B) i and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) iii and iv
Ans: A
60. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A refugee means any person who, owing to well-founded fear of being prosecuted for reason of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality.
Reason (R) : Because the United Nations Convention on the Refugees 1951 in its Article 1A says so.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason of (A).
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(D) Both(R) and (A) are wrong.
Ans: D
61. Match the List – I (Name of Maxim) with List – II (Meaning of Maxim) by using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Scienti non fit injuria i. Where there is remedy there is a right
b. Qui facit per alium facit per seii. He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself.
c. Ubi jus ibi remedium iii. No injury is done to one who knowingly does an act
d. Ubi remedium ibi jus iv. Where there is wrong there is remedy
Codes : a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii iv I
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: C
62. Which of the following is an effective defence in the tort of nuisance ?
I. Public good II. Prescription III. Statutory authority IV. Reasonable care
Codes : (A) I and III are correct.
(B) II and IV are correct.
(C) II and III are correct.
(D) I and IV are correct.
Ans: C
63. Assertion (A) : Negligence as a tort is the breach of legal duty to take care which results in damage.
Reason (R) : In the tort of negligence law takes cognizance of carelessness only if it is supported by the legal duty to care.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
64. In the tort of slander it is essential that some special damage has been resulted from the use of word by the defendant. In which of the following case an action of slander may be maintained, without proof of special damage ? Answer using the codes :
I. Words imputing criminal offence to the plaintiff.
II. Words imputing to the plaintiff that he has an infectious disease.
III. Words prejudice the plaintiff in his office, profession etc.
IV. Words imputing unchastity to a woman.
Codes : (A) I and II are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) I, II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct.
Ans: D
65. Which of the following is not an exception to the strict liability principle laid down in Rylands Vs. Flecher ?
(A) Independent contractor (B) Statutory authority (C) Act of God (D) Consent of the plaintiff
Ans: A
66. Which of the following is the right of the consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
I. Right to consumer education
II. Right to seek redressal
III. Access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices
IV. Take goods and services free of cost
Codes :
(A) I and III are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) I and II are correct.
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct.
Ans: B
67. What is the pecuniary jurisdiction of the State Commission under the Consumer Protection Act ?
(A) Exceeds rupees fifty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
(B) Exceeds rupees twenty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
(C) Exceeds rupees ten lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crorre.
(D) Exceeds rupees one crore.
Ans: B
68. According to Section 12 of the Partnership Act, any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business of partnership may be decided by
(A) the seniormost partner
(B) an arbitrator
(C) a majority of partners
(D) a judge
Ans: C
69. Which are essentials of a contract of sale of goods ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Offer ii. Acceptance of offer iii. Exchange of goods for money iv. Transfer of property in goods from seller to buyer
Codes :
(A) Only i and ii (B) Only iii and iv
(C) Only ii and iii (D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: D
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes below :
Assertion (A) : Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods has passed to the buyer and the buyer wrongfully neglects to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract, the buyer may sue the seller for the price of the goods.
Reason (R) : The seller is entitled to get the contractual price.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
Ans: C
71. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Intention of parties to pass property in goods a. Ghasiram Vs. State
ii. Ascertainment of intention to pass property in goods b. Badriprasad Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
iii. Passing of property in goods c. United Breweries Ltd. Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
iv. Specific goods in deliverable State d. Usha Beltron Ltd. Vs. State of Punjab
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c
(B) c a b d
(C) a c d b
(D) c a d b
Ans: D
72. Which one statement is correct from the following statements :
(A) If the contract is inconsistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may be set the outdoor working of the company.
(B) If the contract is consistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may be set the indoor working of the company.
(C) The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against the outsider.
(D) The doctrine of ultra vires seeks to protect the outsider against internal irregularities of the company.
Ans: B
73. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Directors with unlimited liability a. Section 202 and 203 of the Companies Act
ii. Prevention of management of a company by undesirable persons. b. Section 312 of the Companies Act.
iii. A director cannot assign his office in favour of any one else. c. Section 322 and 323 of the Companies Act.
iv. Appointment to a place of profit under the company. d. Section 314 of the Companies Act
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) a c b d (B) c a b d
(C) c a d b (D) b d a c
Ans: B
74. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Inchoate stamped instrument a. Union Bank of India Vs. Ankur Corp.
ii. Liability of acceptor of a negotiable instrument b. Section 31 of the Negotiable Instrument Act
iii. Liability of an endorser c. Section 35 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
iv. Liability of the drawee of a cheque. d. Section 20 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) a d c b
(B) d a c b
(C) d a b c
(D) c b a d
Ans: B
75. Which of the following statements are correct ? Answer using codes given below : In order that a person can be called a holder in due course, he must show :
i. that he is the drawer of the negotiable instrument.
ii. that he has obtained it without consideration.
iii. that he has obtained it before the maturity of the negotiable instrument.
iv. that he has obtained the negotiable instrument in good faith.
Codes :
(A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iii are correct.
(C) iii and iv are correct.
(D) i and iv are correct.
Ans: C
76. “Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act should be substituted by an ‘Industrial Relations Committee’ to promote in-house dispute settlement.” This recommendation was made by
(A) Royal Commission on Labour (B) National Commission on Labour 1969
(C) National Commission on Labour 2002 (D) National Commission for enterprises in the Unorganised Sector
Ans: C
77. Who is a protected workman under the Industrial Disputes Act ? Answer from the codes given below :
1. A workman who is a member of a registered Trade Union.
2. Recognised by the Registrar of the Trade Union as protected workman.
3. A workman who is a member of the Executive or other office bearer of a registered Trade Union connected with the establishment.
4. Recognised as protected workman under the rules applicable to the establishment.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
Ans: C
78. Failure of the conciliation proceedings under the Industrial Disputes Act leads to refer the matter to adjudication by
(A) the conciliation officer
(B) both employer and employee
(C) the employer
(D) the appropriate government
Ans: D
79. The power of the Government to refer a Dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act is
(A) Mandatory
(B) Discretionary
(C) Recommendatory
(D) Either mandatory or discretionary
Ans: B
80. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Write the correct answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The conciliation officer has no power under the Industrial Disputes Act when neither industrial disputes exists or apprehended.
Reason (R) : Conciliation officer only investigates the Industrial disputes which exists or apprehended.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is correct and(R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and(R) is correct.
Ans: B
(A) M.M. Ganguli Vs. Jayanti Ganguli
(B) Jijabai Vs. Pathan Khan
(C) Sarla Mudgil Vs. Union of India
(D) Githa Hariharan Vs. Reserve Bank of India
Ans: D
52. Match List – I with List – II in the light of Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Imprisonment of Husband i. Sec. 2(vii)
b. Option of puberty ii. Sec. 2(iii)
c. Husband missing iii. Sec. 2(v)
d. Impotency of husband iv. Sec. 2(i)
Codes : a b c d (A) ii i iv iii (B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv ii i iii (D) iii i ii iv
Ans: A
53. Which of the following has not yet been statutorily recognized as a theory of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(A) Fault Theory (B) Will Theory (C) Breakdown Theory (D) Mutual Consent Theory
Ans: B
54. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Human Rights are regarded as those fundamental but alienable rights which are preferred for life as human being.
Reason (R) : Change is general rule of life. Therefore legislatures are free to change human rights according to changing needs and circumstances.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) Both(A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not correct reason for (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: C
55. Which of the following statements are wrong ? Answer using codes :
i. Human rights are created by legislation.
ii. Legal duty to protect human rights is not duty to respect them.
iii. International concern with human rights as enshrined in the Untied Nations Charter is a modern innovation.
iv. A human right violation is now conceived as violation of those personally and directly aggrieved, but not of everyone.
Codes :
(A) i, ii
(B) ii, iii
(C) iii, iv
(D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: D
56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The purpose of the United Nation is to maintain national security and peace.
Reason (R) : Because Article – I of the Charter of the United Nations says so.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: B
57. Right to nationality, right to marry and to found a family are the rights under
i. Only women rights
ii. Social and cultural rights
iii. Civil and political rights
iv. Inherent rights
Codes :
(A) i, ii and iv
(B) ii, iii and iv
(C) ii and iii
(D) iii
Ans: D
58. Which of the following court normally is/are notified by the State Governments to act as Human Rights Court for speedy trial of offences violating Human Rights?
i. Munsiff Courts
ii. Lok Adalats
iii. Senior Civil Judge Court
iv. Sessions Court
Codes :
(A) i and iv
(B) i, iii and iv
(C) ii and iv
(D) iv
Ans: D
59. The power of ‘enquiry and investigation’ was given to Human Rights Commission under the following sections of the protection of Human Rights Act 1993 i. Sec. 13 ii. Sec. 14 iii. Sec. 9 iv. Sec. 10
Codes :
(A) i and ii
(B) i and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) iii and iv
Ans: A
60. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : A refugee means any person who, owing to well-founded fear of being prosecuted for reason of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality.
Reason (R) : Because the United Nations Convention on the Refugees 1951 in its Article 1A says so.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason of (A).
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(D) Both(R) and (A) are wrong.
Ans: D
61. Match the List – I (Name of Maxim) with List – II (Meaning of Maxim) by using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Scienti non fit injuria i. Where there is remedy there is a right
b. Qui facit per alium facit per seii. He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself.
c. Ubi jus ibi remedium iii. No injury is done to one who knowingly does an act
d. Ubi remedium ibi jus iv. Where there is wrong there is remedy
Codes : a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii iv I
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: C
62. Which of the following is an effective defence in the tort of nuisance ?
I. Public good II. Prescription III. Statutory authority IV. Reasonable care
Codes : (A) I and III are correct.
(B) II and IV are correct.
(C) II and III are correct.
(D) I and IV are correct.
Ans: C
63. Assertion (A) : Negligence as a tort is the breach of legal duty to take care which results in damage.
Reason (R) : In the tort of negligence law takes cognizance of carelessness only if it is supported by the legal duty to care.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
64. In the tort of slander it is essential that some special damage has been resulted from the use of word by the defendant. In which of the following case an action of slander may be maintained, without proof of special damage ? Answer using the codes :
I. Words imputing criminal offence to the plaintiff.
II. Words imputing to the plaintiff that he has an infectious disease.
III. Words prejudice the plaintiff in his office, profession etc.
IV. Words imputing unchastity to a woman.
Codes : (A) I and II are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) I, II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct.
Ans: D
65. Which of the following is not an exception to the strict liability principle laid down in Rylands Vs. Flecher ?
(A) Independent contractor (B) Statutory authority (C) Act of God (D) Consent of the plaintiff
Ans: A
66. Which of the following is the right of the consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
I. Right to consumer education
II. Right to seek redressal
III. Access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices
IV. Take goods and services free of cost
Codes :
(A) I and III are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) I and II are correct.
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct.
Ans: B
67. What is the pecuniary jurisdiction of the State Commission under the Consumer Protection Act ?
(A) Exceeds rupees fifty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
(B) Exceeds rupees twenty lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crore.
(C) Exceeds rupees ten lakhs but does not exceed rupees one crorre.
(D) Exceeds rupees one crore.
Ans: B
68. According to Section 12 of the Partnership Act, any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business of partnership may be decided by
(A) the seniormost partner
(B) an arbitrator
(C) a majority of partners
(D) a judge
Ans: C
69. Which are essentials of a contract of sale of goods ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Offer ii. Acceptance of offer iii. Exchange of goods for money iv. Transfer of property in goods from seller to buyer
Codes :
(A) Only i and ii (B) Only iii and iv
(C) Only ii and iii (D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: D
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes below :
Assertion (A) : Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods has passed to the buyer and the buyer wrongfully neglects to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract, the buyer may sue the seller for the price of the goods.
Reason (R) : The seller is entitled to get the contractual price.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
Ans: C
71. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Intention of parties to pass property in goods a. Ghasiram Vs. State
ii. Ascertainment of intention to pass property in goods b. Badriprasad Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
iii. Passing of property in goods c. United Breweries Ltd. Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
iv. Specific goods in deliverable State d. Usha Beltron Ltd. Vs. State of Punjab
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c
(B) c a b d
(C) a c d b
(D) c a d b
Ans: D
72. Which one statement is correct from the following statements :
(A) If the contract is inconsistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may be set the outdoor working of the company.
(B) If the contract is consistent with the public documents, the person contracting will not be prejudiced by irregularities that may be set the indoor working of the company.
(C) The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against the outsider.
(D) The doctrine of ultra vires seeks to protect the outsider against internal irregularities of the company.
Ans: B
73. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Directors with unlimited liability a. Section 202 and 203 of the Companies Act
ii. Prevention of management of a company by undesirable persons. b. Section 312 of the Companies Act.
iii. A director cannot assign his office in favour of any one else. c. Section 322 and 323 of the Companies Act.
iv. Appointment to a place of profit under the company. d. Section 314 of the Companies Act
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) a c b d (B) c a b d
(C) c a d b (D) b d a c
Ans: B
74. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
i. Inchoate stamped instrument a. Union Bank of India Vs. Ankur Corp.
ii. Liability of acceptor of a negotiable instrument b. Section 31 of the Negotiable Instrument Act
iii. Liability of an endorser c. Section 35 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
iv. Liability of the drawee of a cheque. d. Section 20 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) a d c b
(B) d a c b
(C) d a b c
(D) c b a d
Ans: B
75. Which of the following statements are correct ? Answer using codes given below : In order that a person can be called a holder in due course, he must show :
i. that he is the drawer of the negotiable instrument.
ii. that he has obtained it without consideration.
iii. that he has obtained it before the maturity of the negotiable instrument.
iv. that he has obtained the negotiable instrument in good faith.
Codes :
(A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iii are correct.
(C) iii and iv are correct.
(D) i and iv are correct.
Ans: C
76. “Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act should be substituted by an ‘Industrial Relations Committee’ to promote in-house dispute settlement.” This recommendation was made by
(A) Royal Commission on Labour (B) National Commission on Labour 1969
(C) National Commission on Labour 2002 (D) National Commission for enterprises in the Unorganised Sector
Ans: C
77. Who is a protected workman under the Industrial Disputes Act ? Answer from the codes given below :
1. A workman who is a member of a registered Trade Union.
2. Recognised by the Registrar of the Trade Union as protected workman.
3. A workman who is a member of the Executive or other office bearer of a registered Trade Union connected with the establishment.
4. Recognised as protected workman under the rules applicable to the establishment.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
Ans: C
78. Failure of the conciliation proceedings under the Industrial Disputes Act leads to refer the matter to adjudication by
(A) the conciliation officer
(B) both employer and employee
(C) the employer
(D) the appropriate government
Ans: D
79. The power of the Government to refer a Dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act is
(A) Mandatory
(B) Discretionary
(C) Recommendatory
(D) Either mandatory or discretionary
Ans: B
80. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Write the correct answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The conciliation officer has no power under the Industrial Disputes Act when neither industrial disputes exists or apprehended.
Reason (R) : Conciliation officer only investigates the Industrial disputes which exists or apprehended.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is correct and(R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and(R) is correct.
Ans: B
81. Who among the following expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is Federal as much as it establishes what may be called a dual polity ?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Sir Ivor Jennings (C) Prof. K.C. Wheare (D) Sir B.N. Rau
Ans: A
82. In which of the following amendment the words ‘Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under Article 368’ were inserted ?
(A) 22nd Amendment (B) 24th Amendment (C) 42nd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment
Ans: B
83. The Supreme Court of India held in which of the following case that the views expressed by it in exercise of its advisory jurisdiction are binding on all courts within the territory of India ?
(A) In Re-Berubari case (B) In Re-Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal case (C) In Re-Kerala Education Bill (D) In Re-Special Courts Bill
Ans: D
84. In which one of the following case has the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) introducing Article 15(5) ?
(A) TMA Pai Foundation Vs. State of Karnataka (B) Indra Sawhney Vs. Union of India
(C) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India (D) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
Ans: C
85. Match List ‘A’ with List ‘B’ and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – ‘A’ List – ‘B’
a. Independence of the Judiciary i. Administrative adjudication
b. Executive Legislation ii. Parliamentary form of Government
c. QuasiJudicial function iii. Appointment of Judges
d. Collective responsibility iv. Ordinance
Codes : a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii i iv ii
Ans: B
86. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers is the hub of the Parliamentary form of Government.
Reason (R) : The Government is formed from the majority party.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
87. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A) The President of India (B) The President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and Chief Justice of India
(C) The Parliament by resolution (D) The Parliament by law.
Ans: D
88. What are exceptions to the rule of natural justice ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Exclusion by statutory provisions. ii. Exclusion by Constitutional provision.
iii. Exclusion in case of legislative act. iv. Exclusion in public interest.
Codes :
(A) Only i is correct.
(B) Only i and ii are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
Ans: D
89. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : In India the order passed in violation of the principles of natural justice is void.
Reason (R) : In India there is void in the area of principles of justice by nature.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: C
90. In which of the following conditions, the abuse of discretionary power is inferred ?
i. Use for improper purpose
ii. Mala fide
iii. Relevant consideration
iv. Leaving out irrelevant consideration Answer using codes given below :
Codes : (A) Only i is correct.
(B) Only i and ii are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
Ans: B
91. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Reason (R) : Article 14 of the Indian Constitution prevents arbitrary discretion being vested in the executive.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
92. The writ of habeas corpus will be issued if
(A) Detention is legal. (B) Detention is prima facie legal. (C) Detention is prima facie illegal. (D) Detention is primarily illegal.
Ans: C
93. Reading Assertion (A) and Reason (R), select correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Lokpal is the demand of time.
Reason (R) : Lokpal is a time saving institution.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
94. “Administrative Law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.” This definition of Administrative Law is given by :
(A) Ivor Jenning (B) Garner (C) K.C. Davis (D) Wade
Ans: C
95. In which of the following grounds, a writ of certiorari may be issued ?
(A) Error of jurisdiction (B) Error apparent on face of record (C) Violation of natural justice (D) All of the above
Ans: D
96. Who propounded the Doctrine of ‘Moral Reasoning’ ?
(A) Kohler (B) Pound (C) H.L.A. Hart (D) Kant
Ans: A
97. Which of the following avoid any dogmatic formulation and concentrate on the decisions given by law courts ?
(A) Realist school (B) Analytical school (C) Philosophical school (D) Sociological school
Ans: A
98. ‘Jus civile’, ‘Jus gentium’ and ‘Jus naturale’ are found in
(A) American Law (B) Greek Law (C) Roman Law (D) French Law
Ans: C
99. Match the following : a. Ancient theories i. Grotius, Hobbes & Locke
b. Modern theories ii. Thomas Acquinas
c. Renaissance theories iii. Stamler & Kohler
d. Medieval theories iv. Socrates, Aristotle and Plato
Codes : a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i (B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii iii iv i (D) iv iii i ii
Ans: D
100. “Law is without doubt a remedy for greater evil, yet it brings with it evils of its own.” Who said it ?
(A) Blackstone (B) Friedman (C) Salmond (D) Hobbes
Ans: C
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Sir Ivor Jennings (C) Prof. K.C. Wheare (D) Sir B.N. Rau
Ans: A
82. In which of the following amendment the words ‘Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under Article 368’ were inserted ?
(A) 22nd Amendment (B) 24th Amendment (C) 42nd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment
Ans: B
83. The Supreme Court of India held in which of the following case that the views expressed by it in exercise of its advisory jurisdiction are binding on all courts within the territory of India ?
(A) In Re-Berubari case (B) In Re-Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal case (C) In Re-Kerala Education Bill (D) In Re-Special Courts Bill
Ans: D
84. In which one of the following case has the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) introducing Article 15(5) ?
(A) TMA Pai Foundation Vs. State of Karnataka (B) Indra Sawhney Vs. Union of India
(C) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India (D) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
Ans: C
85. Match List ‘A’ with List ‘B’ and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – ‘A’ List – ‘B’
a. Independence of the Judiciary i. Administrative adjudication
b. Executive Legislation ii. Parliamentary form of Government
c. QuasiJudicial function iii. Appointment of Judges
d. Collective responsibility iv. Ordinance
Codes : a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii i iv ii
Ans: B
86. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers is the hub of the Parliamentary form of Government.
Reason (R) : The Government is formed from the majority party.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
87. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A) The President of India (B) The President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and Chief Justice of India
(C) The Parliament by resolution (D) The Parliament by law.
Ans: D
88. What are exceptions to the rule of natural justice ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Exclusion by statutory provisions. ii. Exclusion by Constitutional provision.
iii. Exclusion in case of legislative act. iv. Exclusion in public interest.
Codes :
(A) Only i is correct.
(B) Only i and ii are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
Ans: D
89. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : In India the order passed in violation of the principles of natural justice is void.
Reason (R) : In India there is void in the area of principles of justice by nature.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: C
90. In which of the following conditions, the abuse of discretionary power is inferred ?
i. Use for improper purpose
ii. Mala fide
iii. Relevant consideration
iv. Leaving out irrelevant consideration Answer using codes given below :
Codes : (A) Only i is correct.
(B) Only i and ii are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
Ans: B
91. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Reason (R) : Article 14 of the Indian Constitution prevents arbitrary discretion being vested in the executive.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
92. The writ of habeas corpus will be issued if
(A) Detention is legal. (B) Detention is prima facie legal. (C) Detention is prima facie illegal. (D) Detention is primarily illegal.
Ans: C
93. Reading Assertion (A) and Reason (R), select correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Lokpal is the demand of time.
Reason (R) : Lokpal is a time saving institution.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
94. “Administrative Law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.” This definition of Administrative Law is given by :
(A) Ivor Jenning (B) Garner (C) K.C. Davis (D) Wade
Ans: C
95. In which of the following grounds, a writ of certiorari may be issued ?
(A) Error of jurisdiction (B) Error apparent on face of record (C) Violation of natural justice (D) All of the above
Ans: D
96. Who propounded the Doctrine of ‘Moral Reasoning’ ?
(A) Kohler (B) Pound (C) H.L.A. Hart (D) Kant
Ans: A
97. Which of the following avoid any dogmatic formulation and concentrate on the decisions given by law courts ?
(A) Realist school (B) Analytical school (C) Philosophical school (D) Sociological school
Ans: A
98. ‘Jus civile’, ‘Jus gentium’ and ‘Jus naturale’ are found in
(A) American Law (B) Greek Law (C) Roman Law (D) French Law
Ans: C
99. Match the following : a. Ancient theories i. Grotius, Hobbes & Locke
b. Modern theories ii. Thomas Acquinas
c. Renaissance theories iii. Stamler & Kohler
d. Medieval theories iv. Socrates, Aristotle and Plato
Codes : a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i (B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii iii iv i (D) iv iii i ii
Ans: D
100. “Law is without doubt a remedy for greater evil, yet it brings with it evils of its own.” Who said it ?
(A) Blackstone (B) Friedman (C) Salmond (D) Hobbes
Ans: C