PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
UPSC Public Administration MCQs
1. The book ‘The Intellectual Crisis in American Public Administration’ deals with
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Ecological Approach
(C) Developmental Approach
(D) Public Choice Approach
Ans: D
2. Which one of the following is not Taylor’s mechanisms of Management?
(A) Using a routing system
(B) Employing a mnemonic system
(C) Employing a modern cost system
(D) Using a gang plank.
Ans: D
3. Which is not true about the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
(A) Two Dominions were constituted – India and Pakistan.
(B) The Suzerainty of His Majesty over the Indian States would lapse.
(C) The Constituent Assembly would function as the Legislative Assembly for the interim period.
(D) The Governor General would have limited power to assent to any Bill in the name of His Majesty.
Ans: D
4. The Royal Commission on Decentralisation was headed by
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord HobHouse
(C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Mayo
Ans: B
5. Who of the following has described authority as the supreme co-ordinating power?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) F.W. Riggs
(C) Max Weber
(D) Mooney and Reiley
Ans: D
6. Which of the following are correct?
(i) Theory of Social and Economic Organisation: Max Weber
(ii) Models of Man: H.A. Simon
(iii) Organisation and Management: F.W. Taylor
(iv) Elements of Public Administration: F.M. Marx
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv), (i) and (iii)
Ans: A
7. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Downs’ categorization of Bureaucrats?
(A) Climbers
(B) Voters
(C) Advocates
(D) Statesmen
Ans: B
8. The phrase ‘developmental bureaucracy’ was coined by
(A) La Palambora
(B) Fred. W. Riggs
(C) William Siffin
(D) Edward Weidner
Ans: A
9. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Vice-President of India?
(A) He may be removed by Impeachment.
(B) He may resign by writing to the President.
(C) He may be removed by a Rajya Sabha Resolution and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(D) He may seek re-election for any number of times.
Ans: A
10. The creation of the post of Policy Adviser in each department of England was suggested by
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Royal Committee
(C) Priestly Committee
(D) Appleby Committee
Ans: A
11. Who called the Indian Civil Services as the Steel frame of Indian Constitution?
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Govind Ballabh Pant
Ans: B
12. What is not an advantage of seniority principle of promotion?
(A) It is more objective and easier in application.
(B) It eliminates internal strife for advancement.
(C) It promotes general morale of the personnel.
(D) It affects the self-improvement efforts of personnel.
Ans: D
13. A public personnel may face disciplinary action on the following basis:
(i) Inattention to duty
(ii) Inefficiency
(iii) Insubordination
(iv) Integrity
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: A
14. Which of the following motion is not related when the demand for grants are considered and passed by the Lok Sabha?
(A) Policy Cut Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Economy Cut Motion
(D) Token Cut Motion
Ans: B
15. What is not true about a Money Bill?
(A) It can be introduced in any of the House.
(B) The Speaker has the final power to decide its character.
(C) The President or Governor, as the case may be, has limited powers in case of a Money Bill.
(D) It shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President or Governor, as the case may be.
Ans: A
16. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) University Grants Commission
(D) Election Commission
Ans: C
17. The Statutory Status was given to the erstwhile Minorities Commission in the year:
(A) 1994
(B) 1978
(C) 1993
(D) 1990
Ans: A
18. Which Independent State merged into Indian Union with the consent of the people?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Goa
(D) Hyderabad
Ans: B
19. Who opposed the entry of Political Parties to the Local Bodies Election?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Jaiprakash Narayan
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad
Ans: B
20. Which one of the following Institutions is responsible for Social Audit?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Intermediate Panchayat (Panchayat Samiti)
(D) District Panchayat (Zila Parishad)
Ans: A
21. Assertion (A): Public Administration is concerned with the management of public programmes.
Reason (R): Public Administration is policy-making.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): The Chief Secretary at the State level does not have a fixed tenure.
Reason (R): The First Administrative Reforms Commission did not make a specific recommendation in this regard.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
23. Assertion (A): Kautilya’s King is the fountain of justice.
Reason (R): The King administers justice in accordance with edicts and evidence.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
24. Assertion (A): According to Bernard, authority resides in the relationship between a superior and its acceptance by a subordinate.
Reason (R): To Barnard, authority is the character of an order in an organization by virtue of which it is accepted.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
25. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. has no machinery analogous to the Whitley Councils of the U.K.
Reason (R): The U.S.A. is a traditional home of patronage bureaucracy.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
26. Assertion (A): Methods of legislative control over administration in a parliamentary system are different from those in a presidential one.
Reason (R): In the presidential system of the United States, powers of administration are vested in the President.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
27. Assertion (A): Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) promotes harmony between the employees and employer.
Reason (R): Redressal of employees grievances boosts up their moral.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
28. Assertion (A): The relationship of a Minister and a Civil Servant is that of a Master and a Servant.
Reason (R): A Civil Servant is required to render honest advice to the Minister.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
29. Assertion (A): Transparency in administration is a salient feature of good governance.
Reason (R): The R.T.I. Act, 2005 has contributed in ensuring good governance.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
30. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj Institutions could not become effective even after 73rdConstitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): State Governments have not given adequate powers, finances and personnel to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
31. What is correct about the formation of new State/s in Indian Union? Use the codes given below for correct answer:
(i) It can be done by separation of territory from any existing State.
(ii) It can be done by uniting two or more States or part of States.
(iii) The creation of new States can be accomplished by an ordinary legislation.
(iv) The Parliament cannot alter the territory of the States without their consent.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
32. Arrange the following in correct sequence of their evolution in the discipline of Public Administration. Use the codes given below for answer:
(i) Motivation – Hygiene Theory
(ii) Ecological Approach
(iii) Needs Hierarchy Theory
(iv) Scientific Management Approach
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Ans: C
33. Arrange the following works in their chronological order. Use the codes given below for answer:
(i) Papers for the Science of Administration
(ii) The Principles of Scientific Management
(iii) Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence
(iv) Motivation and Personality
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B
34. Arrange Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in descending order:
(i) Social Needs
(ii) Self-actualisation Needs
(iii) Physiological Needs
(iv) Ego Needs
(v) Security Needs
Codes:
(A) (iii), (v), (i), (iv) and (ii)
(B) (iii), (v), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) and (v)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i), (v) and (iii)
Ans: D
35. Arrange the following experiments conducted by Elton Mayo in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Mass interviewing programme
(ii) Textile Mill Experiment
(iii) Illumination Experiment
(iv) Bank Wiring Experience
Codes:
(A) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
Ans: A
36. What is the correct sequence of Scientific Research? Answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Formulation of Hypothesis
(ii) Selection of Problem
(iii) Generalization
(iv) Collection and Analysis of data
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Ans: B
37. Arrange the following in order of sequence regarding requirements for a rational policy:
(i) Identification of policy alternatives to attain goals.
(ii) Analysing cost benefits of policy alternatives.
(iii) Selecting the most efficient policy alternatives.
(iv) Identification and ranking of goals.
Codes:
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii) , (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Ans: B
38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Chester Barnard i. Models of Man
b. Herbert Simon ii. The Human Side of Enterprise
c. M.P. Follett iii. The Functions of the Executive
d. Douglas McGregor iv. Creative Experience
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: C
39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Classical Theory i. Interaction between Organisation and Environment
b. Behavioural Approach ii. Shop floor activities of Organisation
c. Systems Approach iii. Formulation of Principles of Organisation
d. Scientific Management iv. People in the Organisation
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) i ii iv iii
Ans: C
40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. M.P. Follett i. The Ecology of Public Administration
b. Hergberg ii. Dynamic Administration
c. F.W. Riggs iii. Motivation and Personality
d. A. Maslow iv. The Motivation to work
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Ans: A
41. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Autocratic decision making i. Making decision with participation
b. Democratic decision making ii. Making decision with little consultation
c. Rational decision making iii.Making decisions on the basis of calculation and choosing the best option
d. Consultative decision making iv Making decision by inviting opinions
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: B
42. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Theory – X i. Integration of behaviour is the key process in Management.
b. Theory – Y ii. Calls for vertical job loading.
c. Job Enrichment iii. Based on the traditional conception of control and command.
d. Job Enlargement iv. To provide more control over one’s activities and greater participation in decisions.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) i iv ii iii
Ans: B
43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. R. Blake and J. Mouton i. Path-goal Theory
b. Fred Fiedler ii. Managerial grid
c. Robert House iii. Life Cycle Theory
d. P. Hersey and K. Blanchard iv. Theory of Leadership Effectiveness
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) i ii iv iii
Ans: A
44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Power of the Union or the State to frame recruitment rules for public services i. Article 309
b. Safeguards and protection of civil servants against arbitrary executive orders ii. Article 310
c. Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States iii. Article 311
d. Creation of All India Services iv. Article 312
v. Article 315
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii v
(B) ii iii v iv
(C) ii iii iv v
(D) i iii v iv
Ans: D
45. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Dismissal i. Is not a punishment and an employee cannot claim protection against it under Article 311.
b. Removal ii. Does not make one unfit for reemployment under the Government
c. Suspension iii. Makes one ineligible for reemployment under the Government
d. Compulsory Retirement iv. Does not attract the safeguard of Article 311(2)
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: C
46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Public Accounts Committee i. Suggests alternative policies for bringing efficiency and economy in administration.
b. Estimates Committee ii. Comprises of members from both the Houses.
c. Committee on Public Undertakings iii. Scrutinizes the report of CAG in regard to the appropriation accounts of the Government.
d. Joint Parliamentary Committee iv. An adhoc Committee of the Parliament.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: C
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage (47 – 50):
Kautilya’s Arthashastra is a treatise concerned with political science and public administration as much as it is with statecraft, economy and diplomacy. It is written with the practical aim of showing how the Government ought to be run. It is also a highly polemical discourse that has astonished scholars, particularly on the themes of violence, conspiracies, espionage, etc. From that point of view, it is highly embarrassing to put forth the Arthashastra as the symbol of Indian political thought together with what Greece has to offer by way of Plato’s Republic and Laws, and Aristotle’s Politics. However, the fact remains that Kautilya recommended such measures only against enemies and traitors in emergencies. His proposition was that politics and ethics do not mix easily. That does not mean that Kautilya disregarded ethics or morality. What he meant was that there is a difference between individual and public morality. Kautilya made no serious attempt at theory building. At best, he described and discussed empirical reality and was normative and prescriptive in his treatment. He was keen on efficiency and rationality aspects of administration. His maxims of administration include characteristics like hierarchy, defined competence of each office, selection by merit, promotion by seniority, compensation, training and discipline. The Arthashastra has many insights and lessons to offer even to the present-day students and practitioners of public administration.
47. Explain the main focus of Arthashastra.
(A) It is concerned with statecraft, economy and diplomacy.
(B) It is only a concept formation.
(C) It is not a practical guide to administration.
(D) It is not a symbol of Indian Political Thought.
Ans: A
48. Why Kautilya insists the themes of violence, conspiracies and espionage
(A) It is a practical way to run Government.
(B) It is a diplomatic strategy.
(C) It is a matter of normal administration.
(D) It is concerned with morality.
Ans: A
49. Analyse the relation between politics and ethics as mentioned by Arthashastra.
(A) The phenomena of politics and ethics are separate.
(B) Politics and ethics do not go together easily.
(C) Kautilya disregards ethics.
(D) Kautilya insists morality.
Ans: B
50. Kautilya concentrates more on practical administration but not on
(A) Theory building.
(B) Efficiency in administration.
(C) Maximus of administration.
(D) The rationality of administration.
Ans: A
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Ecological Approach
(C) Developmental Approach
(D) Public Choice Approach
Ans: D
2. Which one of the following is not Taylor’s mechanisms of Management?
(A) Using a routing system
(B) Employing a mnemonic system
(C) Employing a modern cost system
(D) Using a gang plank.
Ans: D
3. Which is not true about the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
(A) Two Dominions were constituted – India and Pakistan.
(B) The Suzerainty of His Majesty over the Indian States would lapse.
(C) The Constituent Assembly would function as the Legislative Assembly for the interim period.
(D) The Governor General would have limited power to assent to any Bill in the name of His Majesty.
Ans: D
4. The Royal Commission on Decentralisation was headed by
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord HobHouse
(C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Mayo
Ans: B
5. Who of the following has described authority as the supreme co-ordinating power?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) F.W. Riggs
(C) Max Weber
(D) Mooney and Reiley
Ans: D
6. Which of the following are correct?
(i) Theory of Social and Economic Organisation: Max Weber
(ii) Models of Man: H.A. Simon
(iii) Organisation and Management: F.W. Taylor
(iv) Elements of Public Administration: F.M. Marx
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv), (i) and (iii)
Ans: A
7. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Downs’ categorization of Bureaucrats?
(A) Climbers
(B) Voters
(C) Advocates
(D) Statesmen
Ans: B
8. The phrase ‘developmental bureaucracy’ was coined by
(A) La Palambora
(B) Fred. W. Riggs
(C) William Siffin
(D) Edward Weidner
Ans: A
9. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Vice-President of India?
(A) He may be removed by Impeachment.
(B) He may resign by writing to the President.
(C) He may be removed by a Rajya Sabha Resolution and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(D) He may seek re-election for any number of times.
Ans: A
10. The creation of the post of Policy Adviser in each department of England was suggested by
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Royal Committee
(C) Priestly Committee
(D) Appleby Committee
Ans: A
11. Who called the Indian Civil Services as the Steel frame of Indian Constitution?
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Govind Ballabh Pant
Ans: B
12. What is not an advantage of seniority principle of promotion?
(A) It is more objective and easier in application.
(B) It eliminates internal strife for advancement.
(C) It promotes general morale of the personnel.
(D) It affects the self-improvement efforts of personnel.
Ans: D
13. A public personnel may face disciplinary action on the following basis:
(i) Inattention to duty
(ii) Inefficiency
(iii) Insubordination
(iv) Integrity
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: A
14. Which of the following motion is not related when the demand for grants are considered and passed by the Lok Sabha?
(A) Policy Cut Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Economy Cut Motion
(D) Token Cut Motion
Ans: B
15. What is not true about a Money Bill?
(A) It can be introduced in any of the House.
(B) The Speaker has the final power to decide its character.
(C) The President or Governor, as the case may be, has limited powers in case of a Money Bill.
(D) It shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President or Governor, as the case may be.
Ans: A
16. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) University Grants Commission
(D) Election Commission
Ans: C
17. The Statutory Status was given to the erstwhile Minorities Commission in the year:
(A) 1994
(B) 1978
(C) 1993
(D) 1990
Ans: A
18. Which Independent State merged into Indian Union with the consent of the people?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Goa
(D) Hyderabad
Ans: B
19. Who opposed the entry of Political Parties to the Local Bodies Election?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Jaiprakash Narayan
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad
Ans: B
20. Which one of the following Institutions is responsible for Social Audit?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Intermediate Panchayat (Panchayat Samiti)
(D) District Panchayat (Zila Parishad)
Ans: A
21. Assertion (A): Public Administration is concerned with the management of public programmes.
Reason (R): Public Administration is policy-making.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): The Chief Secretary at the State level does not have a fixed tenure.
Reason (R): The First Administrative Reforms Commission did not make a specific recommendation in this regard.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
23. Assertion (A): Kautilya’s King is the fountain of justice.
Reason (R): The King administers justice in accordance with edicts and evidence.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
24. Assertion (A): According to Bernard, authority resides in the relationship between a superior and its acceptance by a subordinate.
Reason (R): To Barnard, authority is the character of an order in an organization by virtue of which it is accepted.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
25. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. has no machinery analogous to the Whitley Councils of the U.K.
Reason (R): The U.S.A. is a traditional home of patronage bureaucracy.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
26. Assertion (A): Methods of legislative control over administration in a parliamentary system are different from those in a presidential one.
Reason (R): In the presidential system of the United States, powers of administration are vested in the President.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
27. Assertion (A): Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) promotes harmony between the employees and employer.
Reason (R): Redressal of employees grievances boosts up their moral.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
28. Assertion (A): The relationship of a Minister and a Civil Servant is that of a Master and a Servant.
Reason (R): A Civil Servant is required to render honest advice to the Minister.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
29. Assertion (A): Transparency in administration is a salient feature of good governance.
Reason (R): The R.T.I. Act, 2005 has contributed in ensuring good governance.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
30. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj Institutions could not become effective even after 73rdConstitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): State Governments have not given adequate powers, finances and personnel to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
31. What is correct about the formation of new State/s in Indian Union? Use the codes given below for correct answer:
(i) It can be done by separation of territory from any existing State.
(ii) It can be done by uniting two or more States or part of States.
(iii) The creation of new States can be accomplished by an ordinary legislation.
(iv) The Parliament cannot alter the territory of the States without their consent.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
32. Arrange the following in correct sequence of their evolution in the discipline of Public Administration. Use the codes given below for answer:
(i) Motivation – Hygiene Theory
(ii) Ecological Approach
(iii) Needs Hierarchy Theory
(iv) Scientific Management Approach
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Ans: C
33. Arrange the following works in their chronological order. Use the codes given below for answer:
(i) Papers for the Science of Administration
(ii) The Principles of Scientific Management
(iii) Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence
(iv) Motivation and Personality
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B
34. Arrange Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in descending order:
(i) Social Needs
(ii) Self-actualisation Needs
(iii) Physiological Needs
(iv) Ego Needs
(v) Security Needs
Codes:
(A) (iii), (v), (i), (iv) and (ii)
(B) (iii), (v), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) and (v)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i), (v) and (iii)
Ans: D
35. Arrange the following experiments conducted by Elton Mayo in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Mass interviewing programme
(ii) Textile Mill Experiment
(iii) Illumination Experiment
(iv) Bank Wiring Experience
Codes:
(A) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
Ans: A
36. What is the correct sequence of Scientific Research? Answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Formulation of Hypothesis
(ii) Selection of Problem
(iii) Generalization
(iv) Collection and Analysis of data
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Ans: B
37. Arrange the following in order of sequence regarding requirements for a rational policy:
(i) Identification of policy alternatives to attain goals.
(ii) Analysing cost benefits of policy alternatives.
(iii) Selecting the most efficient policy alternatives.
(iv) Identification and ranking of goals.
Codes:
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii) , (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Ans: B
38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Chester Barnard i. Models of Man
b. Herbert Simon ii. The Human Side of Enterprise
c. M.P. Follett iii. The Functions of the Executive
d. Douglas McGregor iv. Creative Experience
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: C
39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Classical Theory i. Interaction between Organisation and Environment
b. Behavioural Approach ii. Shop floor activities of Organisation
c. Systems Approach iii. Formulation of Principles of Organisation
d. Scientific Management iv. People in the Organisation
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) i ii iv iii
Ans: C
40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. M.P. Follett i. The Ecology of Public Administration
b. Hergberg ii. Dynamic Administration
c. F.W. Riggs iii. Motivation and Personality
d. A. Maslow iv. The Motivation to work
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Ans: A
41. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Autocratic decision making i. Making decision with participation
b. Democratic decision making ii. Making decision with little consultation
c. Rational decision making iii.Making decisions on the basis of calculation and choosing the best option
d. Consultative decision making iv Making decision by inviting opinions
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: B
42. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Theory – X i. Integration of behaviour is the key process in Management.
b. Theory – Y ii. Calls for vertical job loading.
c. Job Enrichment iii. Based on the traditional conception of control and command.
d. Job Enlargement iv. To provide more control over one’s activities and greater participation in decisions.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) i iv ii iii
Ans: B
43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. R. Blake and J. Mouton i. Path-goal Theory
b. Fred Fiedler ii. Managerial grid
c. Robert House iii. Life Cycle Theory
d. P. Hersey and K. Blanchard iv. Theory of Leadership Effectiveness
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) i ii iv iii
Ans: A
44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Power of the Union or the State to frame recruitment rules for public services i. Article 309
b. Safeguards and protection of civil servants against arbitrary executive orders ii. Article 310
c. Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States iii. Article 311
d. Creation of All India Services iv. Article 312
v. Article 315
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii v
(B) ii iii v iv
(C) ii iii iv v
(D) i iii v iv
Ans: D
45. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Dismissal i. Is not a punishment and an employee cannot claim protection against it under Article 311.
b. Removal ii. Does not make one unfit for reemployment under the Government
c. Suspension iii. Makes one ineligible for reemployment under the Government
d. Compulsory Retirement iv. Does not attract the safeguard of Article 311(2)
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: C
46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Public Accounts Committee i. Suggests alternative policies for bringing efficiency and economy in administration.
b. Estimates Committee ii. Comprises of members from both the Houses.
c. Committee on Public Undertakings iii. Scrutinizes the report of CAG in regard to the appropriation accounts of the Government.
d. Joint Parliamentary Committee iv. An adhoc Committee of the Parliament.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: C
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage (47 – 50):
Kautilya’s Arthashastra is a treatise concerned with political science and public administration as much as it is with statecraft, economy and diplomacy. It is written with the practical aim of showing how the Government ought to be run. It is also a highly polemical discourse that has astonished scholars, particularly on the themes of violence, conspiracies, espionage, etc. From that point of view, it is highly embarrassing to put forth the Arthashastra as the symbol of Indian political thought together with what Greece has to offer by way of Plato’s Republic and Laws, and Aristotle’s Politics. However, the fact remains that Kautilya recommended such measures only against enemies and traitors in emergencies. His proposition was that politics and ethics do not mix easily. That does not mean that Kautilya disregarded ethics or morality. What he meant was that there is a difference between individual and public morality. Kautilya made no serious attempt at theory building. At best, he described and discussed empirical reality and was normative and prescriptive in his treatment. He was keen on efficiency and rationality aspects of administration. His maxims of administration include characteristics like hierarchy, defined competence of each office, selection by merit, promotion by seniority, compensation, training and discipline. The Arthashastra has many insights and lessons to offer even to the present-day students and practitioners of public administration.
47. Explain the main focus of Arthashastra.
(A) It is concerned with statecraft, economy and diplomacy.
(B) It is only a concept formation.
(C) It is not a practical guide to administration.
(D) It is not a symbol of Indian Political Thought.
Ans: A
48. Why Kautilya insists the themes of violence, conspiracies and espionage
(A) It is a practical way to run Government.
(B) It is a diplomatic strategy.
(C) It is a matter of normal administration.
(D) It is concerned with morality.
Ans: A
49. Analyse the relation between politics and ethics as mentioned by Arthashastra.
(A) The phenomena of politics and ethics are separate.
(B) Politics and ethics do not go together easily.
(C) Kautilya disregards ethics.
(D) Kautilya insists morality.
Ans: B
50. Kautilya concentrates more on practical administration but not on
(A) Theory building.
(B) Efficiency in administration.
(C) Maximus of administration.
(D) The rationality of administration.
Ans: A
51. Which of the following observation about actual engagement behaviour of workers on job with machine is termed as
(A) Simple observation
(B) Systematic observation
(C) Participant observation
(D) Non-participant observation
Ans: B
52. Which of the following is not a type of Attitude Scale?
(A) Summated Rating Scale
(B) Thurston’s Equal Appearing Interval Scale
(C) Graphic Scale
(D) Bagardus Social Distance Scale
Ans: C
53. Consider the following statements regarding interview method of data collection and select the incorrect one.
(A) It is the most common method for collecting qualitative information.
(B) It is a method which is usually conducted face to face and involves one interviewer and one interviewee.
(C) It is technique designed to elicit a detailed view point of the informants.
(D) Interviewer’s notes may not be considered as research data.
Ans: D
54. Public Methodology affording testing of conclusions is an inherent article of faith of Scientific Method. The reasons are:
(i) It helps in replication of results.
(ii) It explains the context and conditions of Social Science Research.
(iii) It fulfils the scientific obligations for bringing improvements in research tools.
(iv) It helps in exposing inconsistencies in the Social Science Research.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
55. Which report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related to ‘State and District Administration’?
(A) 12th
(B) 13th
(C) 14th
(D) 15th
Ans: D
56. Which of the following body remarked that the ‘Block Development Office’ should be spinal cord of the rural development process?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) K. Santhanam Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) G.V.K. Rao Committee
Ans: D
57. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections as per
(A) Article 325
(B) Article 241
(C) Article 243-K
(D) Article 245-D
Ans: C
58. K. Shanthanam Committee (1963) was set up to look into
(A) Personnel of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Finances of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) Personnel of Urban Local Self Government
(D) Finances of Urban Local Self Government
Ans: B
59. Which of the following are parts of the classification of Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes made by National Urbanization Commission?
(i) Programmes for employment generation.
(ii) Shelter and Physical environment related programmes.
(iii) Nutrition supplement programmes.
(iv) Development of institutional capacities of service agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
60. “As the periodicity of constitution of the Central Finance commission is predictable, the State should time the constitution of their State Finance Commissions suitably.” It was observed by
(A) 10th Finance Commission
(B) 11th Finance Commission
(C) 12th Finance Commission
(D) 13th Finance Commission
Ans: C
61. “Gram Sabha means a body consisting of persons registered in electoral rolls relating to a village comprised with area of panchayat at the village level.” Which of the following has given above description of Gram Sabha?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) L.M. Singvi Committee
(D) Constitution of India
Ans: D
62. The term ‘Social Justice’ is originally based on the teachings of
(A) St. Thomas Aquinas
(B) Karl Marx
(C) John Rawls
(D) B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: A
63. The Central Social Welfare Board was established by:
(A) Parliamentary enactment
(B) Resolution of Cabinet
(C) Registration under company Act, 1956
(D) The order of the President
Ans: C
64. The interaction between Government and NGOs in India mostly relates to
(i) Policies and legislation related to disadvantaged sections.
(ii) Economic policies
(iii) Operational collaboration for programmes with or without Government funding.
(iv) Peaceful protest movement of people in which NGOs are involved.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
65. What is the name of the integrated scheme for women empowerment being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development?
(A) TRYSEM
(B) DWACRA
(C) Swayamsidha
(D) Swabhiman
Ans: C
66. Policy monitoring may lead to which of the following actions?
(i) Strengthening and improving the policy programmes.
(ii) Replanning of the policy programme.
(iii) Cancellation of the policy programme.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (iii)
Ans: C
67. Assertion (A): Public Policy is whatever Governments choose to do or not to do.
Reason (R): Policy making is clearly related to decision making.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
68. Arrange the following steps in Policy Analysis in the correct sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Problem identification
(ii) Forecasting and evaluating the alternatives.
(iii) Determining alternative courses of action.
(iv) Policy choice
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Ans: B
69. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Thomas R. Dye 1. Policy Analysis for the Real World
b. B.W. Hogwood and L.A. Gunn 2. Speaking Truth ‘to power the Art and Craft of Policy Analysis
c. A. Wildavsky 3. Managing the Public Sector
d. A. Massey 4. Understanding Public Policy
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans: B
70. Which of the following states does not have 50 percentage seats reserved for women in the local self-government institutions/Panchayati Raj Institutions as on March, 2012?
(A) Tripura
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: B
71. Which of the following does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Delhi
(D) Lakshadweep
Ans: C
72. Which of the following committees recommended the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act?
(A) B.D. Sharma Committee
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) M.M. Punchhi Commission
(D) Dileep Singh Bhuria Committee
Ans: D
73. In which part of the Constitution of India, ‘Economic and Social Planning’ is included?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Eighth Schedule
Ans: C
74. How many Public Sector Undertakings were recognized as ‘Maharatnas’ in India till the year 2011?
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Nine
Ans: B
75. Which one of the following is not the correct form and method of Public Private Partnership?
(A) Lease, Concessions, Greenfield Projects and Divestiture.
(B) Management Contract, Lease, Brown field Project and Concessions.
(C) B.O.O., B.O.T., B.O.O.M., and Management Contract
(D) Divestiture, Lease, Greenfield Projects and Public Services.
Ans: D
76. Assertion (A): The UPSC is the designated recruitment agency for the All India Services.
Reason (R): The All India Services provide a valuable link between the Union and the State Governments.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
77. Assertion (A): Planning, Programming, Budgeting was an attempt to integrate budgeting with overall planning for the Government as a whole.
Reason (R): It combines long range planning with results oriented programmes and evaluation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
78. Assertion (A): The Public Accounts Committee should satisfy itself that the money shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for and applicable to the service of purpose to which they have been charged.
Reason (R): The Public Accounts Committee suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
79. Assertion (A): Judicial Activism is an effective mean of judicial control over Public Administration.
Reason (R): The PILs have enhanced the judicial control over public administration.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
80. Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is the watchdog of public finance.
Reason (R): The CAG is a constitutional body.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
81. What is the correct sequence regarding the evolution of the discipline of Public Administration? Use the codes given below:
(i) Crisis of identity
(ii) The era of Politics – Administration dichotomy
(iii) Principles of Administration
(iv) Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Ans: B
82. Arrange the following in chronological order of their origin. Use the codes given below:
(i) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission
(ii) 3rd Minnowbrook Conference
(iii) K. Santhanam Committee
(iv) Sarkaria Commission
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(C) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(D) (iii) (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: C
83. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in the ascending order of Maslow’s needs’ hierarchy?
(i) Esteem needs
(ii) Affiliation needs
(iii) Self-actualization needs
(iv) Physiological needs
(v) Safety needs
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (iv), (v), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i), (v)
Ans: B
84. Which is the correct sequence in descending order of following organization? Give correct answer from codes given below:
(i) Cabinet Secretariat
(ii) Department
(iii) Ministry
(iv) Directorate
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Ans: C
85. Arrange the following in their chronological order. Use the codes given below:
(i) Paul H. Appleby Report
(ii) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Report
(iii) N.N. Vohra Report
(iv) Raja J. Chelliah Report
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans: C
86. What is the correct sequence of execution of Budget? Answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Disbursement of Funds
(ii) Custody of Public Funds
(iii) Assessment and Collection
(iv) Accounting and Audit
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Ans: C
87. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) L.D. White (i) Principles of Public Administration
(b) W.F. Willoughby (ii) Papers on the Science of Administration
(c) L. Gulick and L. Urwick (iii) The Study of Public Administration
(d) Dwight Waldo (iv) Introduction to the Study of Public Administration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Ans: B
88. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Ecological Approach (i) Chris Argyris
(b) Behavioural Approach (ii) W. Niskanen
(c) Public Choice Approach (iii) F.W. Riggs
(d) Systems Approach (iv) David Easton
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: C
89. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Aitchison Commission (i) 1935
(b) Federal Public Service Commission (ii) 1924
(c) Islington Commission (iii) 1886
(d) Lee Commission (iv) 1912
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: A
90. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Parliamentary Commissioner (i) France
(b) Administrative Courts (ii) Russia
(c) Ombudsman (iii) Britain
(d) Procurator System (iv) USA
(v) Sweden
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
Ans: C
91. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (i) Bangaluru
(b) National Police Academy (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service School (iii) Shimla
(d) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iv) Hyderabad
(v) Mussoorie
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (v) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: B
92. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Y. Dror (i) Mixed Scanning Approach
(b) A. Etzioni (ii) Normative Optimum Model
(c) David Truman (iii) Governmental Process (Group Theory)
(d) V. Ostrom (iv) Public Choice Theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
93. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Observation (i) Facilitates insight into the respondents.
(b) Interview (ii) Data collected are more reliable.
(c) Schedule (iii) The researcher fills up the information collected from respondents himself.
(d) Questionnaire (iv) The respondent has to himself fill the entries.
(v) The time and resources can be saved by selecting a smaller segment of respondents.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
94. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:
List – I List – II
(a) F.W. Riggs (i) Development Administration
(b) Lucian Pye (ii) Administrative Reform
(c) Gerald Caiden (iii) Frontiers of Development Administration
(d) O.P. Dwivedi (iv) Aspects of Political Development
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: C
95. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:
List – I List – II
(a) Mandamus (i) Writ will not be issued by a High Court to another High Court.
(b) Quo Warranto (ii) Writ will not be issued against the Governor of a State for the performance of his official duties.
(c) Prohibition (iii) Writ enables the court to examine the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
(d) Certiorari (iv) Writ cannot be issued against private persons or associations.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: D
96. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) B.R.G.F. (i) A scheme concerned with infra-structural development in 6 key areas.
(b) MNREGA (ii) A scheme to bridge the gap of requirements and availability of funds for development in rural areas.
(c) Bharat Nirman (iii) A scheme for universalization of elementary education
(d) R.M.S.A. (iv) A scheme for assured employment of at least 100 days
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: D
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage: (97 – 100)
The main function of civil service is formulation and implementation of public policy. The civil service engages itself in collection of relevant data and information in order to identify the crux of the problem. The civil service, especially at the secretariat level, is considered as the ‘think tank’ of the Government and it helps in making sound and effective policies. The civil servants also administer the law of the land. They are to implement and execute the law of the land faithfully and impartially. In finance, the civil servants not only prepare the budget but also influence the taxation and expenditure policy of the government to a great extent. Today they perform quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial functions also. Public relations have become an important part of their official duties. Therefore, they are expected to explain the Government policy to the people and to win their co-operation in its implementation. In a country like India, civil servants are entrusted the responsibility of implementing various programmes of rural development and welfare measures.
Recent decades have seen a shift towards a reduced role for the Government in all countries. Thatcherism in UK and Reaganomics in USA tried to pull out the State from the morass of over-involvement. The decline of Communism in Eastern Europe has furthered the trend towards economic liberalization and disinvestment in public sector enterprises. India could not have remained unaffected by these global trends.
97. Which one of the following is not the area of Civil Servants?
(A) Collection of Data
(B) Identification of problem
(C) Think-tank of the Government
(D) Enactment of Law
Ans: D
98. Civil Servants are not discharging the following:
(A) Execution of Law of the land
(B) Preparation of the budget
(C) Contacting the people and explaining the programmes of Government
(D) Judicial activities
Ans: D
99. Which one of the following factors has not contributed to the rise of globalization?
(A) Thatcherism in UK
(B) Reaganomics in USA
(C) Decline of Communism in Eastern Europe
(D) Growth of Social Legislation
Ans: D
100. Which one of the following areas is not the concern of the Government Policy in recent trends?
(A) Disinvestment in Public Enterprises
(B) Increasing the efficiency of Civil Servants
(C) Enlarging the role of Government
(D) Deregulation of Monopolies
Ans: C
(A) Simple observation
(B) Systematic observation
(C) Participant observation
(D) Non-participant observation
Ans: B
52. Which of the following is not a type of Attitude Scale?
(A) Summated Rating Scale
(B) Thurston’s Equal Appearing Interval Scale
(C) Graphic Scale
(D) Bagardus Social Distance Scale
Ans: C
53. Consider the following statements regarding interview method of data collection and select the incorrect one.
(A) It is the most common method for collecting qualitative information.
(B) It is a method which is usually conducted face to face and involves one interviewer and one interviewee.
(C) It is technique designed to elicit a detailed view point of the informants.
(D) Interviewer’s notes may not be considered as research data.
Ans: D
54. Public Methodology affording testing of conclusions is an inherent article of faith of Scientific Method. The reasons are:
(i) It helps in replication of results.
(ii) It explains the context and conditions of Social Science Research.
(iii) It fulfils the scientific obligations for bringing improvements in research tools.
(iv) It helps in exposing inconsistencies in the Social Science Research.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
55. Which report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related to ‘State and District Administration’?
(A) 12th
(B) 13th
(C) 14th
(D) 15th
Ans: D
56. Which of the following body remarked that the ‘Block Development Office’ should be spinal cord of the rural development process?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) K. Santhanam Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) G.V.K. Rao Committee
Ans: D
57. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections as per
(A) Article 325
(B) Article 241
(C) Article 243-K
(D) Article 245-D
Ans: C
58. K. Shanthanam Committee (1963) was set up to look into
(A) Personnel of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Finances of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) Personnel of Urban Local Self Government
(D) Finances of Urban Local Self Government
Ans: B
59. Which of the following are parts of the classification of Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes made by National Urbanization Commission?
(i) Programmes for employment generation.
(ii) Shelter and Physical environment related programmes.
(iii) Nutrition supplement programmes.
(iv) Development of institutional capacities of service agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
60. “As the periodicity of constitution of the Central Finance commission is predictable, the State should time the constitution of their State Finance Commissions suitably.” It was observed by
(A) 10th Finance Commission
(B) 11th Finance Commission
(C) 12th Finance Commission
(D) 13th Finance Commission
Ans: C
61. “Gram Sabha means a body consisting of persons registered in electoral rolls relating to a village comprised with area of panchayat at the village level.” Which of the following has given above description of Gram Sabha?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) L.M. Singvi Committee
(D) Constitution of India
Ans: D
62. The term ‘Social Justice’ is originally based on the teachings of
(A) St. Thomas Aquinas
(B) Karl Marx
(C) John Rawls
(D) B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: A
63. The Central Social Welfare Board was established by:
(A) Parliamentary enactment
(B) Resolution of Cabinet
(C) Registration under company Act, 1956
(D) The order of the President
Ans: C
64. The interaction between Government and NGOs in India mostly relates to
(i) Policies and legislation related to disadvantaged sections.
(ii) Economic policies
(iii) Operational collaboration for programmes with or without Government funding.
(iv) Peaceful protest movement of people in which NGOs are involved.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
65. What is the name of the integrated scheme for women empowerment being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development?
(A) TRYSEM
(B) DWACRA
(C) Swayamsidha
(D) Swabhiman
Ans: C
66. Policy monitoring may lead to which of the following actions?
(i) Strengthening and improving the policy programmes.
(ii) Replanning of the policy programme.
(iii) Cancellation of the policy programme.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (iii)
Ans: C
67. Assertion (A): Public Policy is whatever Governments choose to do or not to do.
Reason (R): Policy making is clearly related to decision making.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
68. Arrange the following steps in Policy Analysis in the correct sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Problem identification
(ii) Forecasting and evaluating the alternatives.
(iii) Determining alternative courses of action.
(iv) Policy choice
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Ans: B
69. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Thomas R. Dye 1. Policy Analysis for the Real World
b. B.W. Hogwood and L.A. Gunn 2. Speaking Truth ‘to power the Art and Craft of Policy Analysis
c. A. Wildavsky 3. Managing the Public Sector
d. A. Massey 4. Understanding Public Policy
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans: B
70. Which of the following states does not have 50 percentage seats reserved for women in the local self-government institutions/Panchayati Raj Institutions as on March, 2012?
(A) Tripura
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: B
71. Which of the following does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Delhi
(D) Lakshadweep
Ans: C
72. Which of the following committees recommended the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act?
(A) B.D. Sharma Committee
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) M.M. Punchhi Commission
(D) Dileep Singh Bhuria Committee
Ans: D
73. In which part of the Constitution of India, ‘Economic and Social Planning’ is included?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Eighth Schedule
Ans: C
74. How many Public Sector Undertakings were recognized as ‘Maharatnas’ in India till the year 2011?
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Nine
Ans: B
75. Which one of the following is not the correct form and method of Public Private Partnership?
(A) Lease, Concessions, Greenfield Projects and Divestiture.
(B) Management Contract, Lease, Brown field Project and Concessions.
(C) B.O.O., B.O.T., B.O.O.M., and Management Contract
(D) Divestiture, Lease, Greenfield Projects and Public Services.
Ans: D
76. Assertion (A): The UPSC is the designated recruitment agency for the All India Services.
Reason (R): The All India Services provide a valuable link between the Union and the State Governments.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
77. Assertion (A): Planning, Programming, Budgeting was an attempt to integrate budgeting with overall planning for the Government as a whole.
Reason (R): It combines long range planning with results oriented programmes and evaluation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
78. Assertion (A): The Public Accounts Committee should satisfy itself that the money shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for and applicable to the service of purpose to which they have been charged.
Reason (R): The Public Accounts Committee suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
79. Assertion (A): Judicial Activism is an effective mean of judicial control over Public Administration.
Reason (R): The PILs have enhanced the judicial control over public administration.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
80. Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is the watchdog of public finance.
Reason (R): The CAG is a constitutional body.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
81. What is the correct sequence regarding the evolution of the discipline of Public Administration? Use the codes given below:
(i) Crisis of identity
(ii) The era of Politics – Administration dichotomy
(iii) Principles of Administration
(iv) Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Ans: B
82. Arrange the following in chronological order of their origin. Use the codes given below:
(i) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission
(ii) 3rd Minnowbrook Conference
(iii) K. Santhanam Committee
(iv) Sarkaria Commission
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(C) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(D) (iii) (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: C
83. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in the ascending order of Maslow’s needs’ hierarchy?
(i) Esteem needs
(ii) Affiliation needs
(iii) Self-actualization needs
(iv) Physiological needs
(v) Safety needs
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (iv), (v), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i), (v)
Ans: B
84. Which is the correct sequence in descending order of following organization? Give correct answer from codes given below:
(i) Cabinet Secretariat
(ii) Department
(iii) Ministry
(iv) Directorate
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Ans: C
85. Arrange the following in their chronological order. Use the codes given below:
(i) Paul H. Appleby Report
(ii) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Report
(iii) N.N. Vohra Report
(iv) Raja J. Chelliah Report
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans: C
86. What is the correct sequence of execution of Budget? Answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Disbursement of Funds
(ii) Custody of Public Funds
(iii) Assessment and Collection
(iv) Accounting and Audit
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Ans: C
87. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) L.D. White (i) Principles of Public Administration
(b) W.F. Willoughby (ii) Papers on the Science of Administration
(c) L. Gulick and L. Urwick (iii) The Study of Public Administration
(d) Dwight Waldo (iv) Introduction to the Study of Public Administration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Ans: B
88. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Ecological Approach (i) Chris Argyris
(b) Behavioural Approach (ii) W. Niskanen
(c) Public Choice Approach (iii) F.W. Riggs
(d) Systems Approach (iv) David Easton
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: C
89. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Aitchison Commission (i) 1935
(b) Federal Public Service Commission (ii) 1924
(c) Islington Commission (iii) 1886
(d) Lee Commission (iv) 1912
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: A
90. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Parliamentary Commissioner (i) France
(b) Administrative Courts (ii) Russia
(c) Ombudsman (iii) Britain
(d) Procurator System (iv) USA
(v) Sweden
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
Ans: C
91. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (i) Bangaluru
(b) National Police Academy (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service School (iii) Shimla
(d) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iv) Hyderabad
(v) Mussoorie
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (v) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: B
92. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Y. Dror (i) Mixed Scanning Approach
(b) A. Etzioni (ii) Normative Optimum Model
(c) David Truman (iii) Governmental Process (Group Theory)
(d) V. Ostrom (iv) Public Choice Theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
93. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Observation (i) Facilitates insight into the respondents.
(b) Interview (ii) Data collected are more reliable.
(c) Schedule (iii) The researcher fills up the information collected from respondents himself.
(d) Questionnaire (iv) The respondent has to himself fill the entries.
(v) The time and resources can be saved by selecting a smaller segment of respondents.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
94. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:
List – I List – II
(a) F.W. Riggs (i) Development Administration
(b) Lucian Pye (ii) Administrative Reform
(c) Gerald Caiden (iii) Frontiers of Development Administration
(d) O.P. Dwivedi (iv) Aspects of Political Development
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: C
95. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:
List – I List – II
(a) Mandamus (i) Writ will not be issued by a High Court to another High Court.
(b) Quo Warranto (ii) Writ will not be issued against the Governor of a State for the performance of his official duties.
(c) Prohibition (iii) Writ enables the court to examine the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
(d) Certiorari (iv) Writ cannot be issued against private persons or associations.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: D
96. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) B.R.G.F. (i) A scheme concerned with infra-structural development in 6 key areas.
(b) MNREGA (ii) A scheme to bridge the gap of requirements and availability of funds for development in rural areas.
(c) Bharat Nirman (iii) A scheme for universalization of elementary education
(d) R.M.S.A. (iv) A scheme for assured employment of at least 100 days
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: D
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage: (97 – 100)
The main function of civil service is formulation and implementation of public policy. The civil service engages itself in collection of relevant data and information in order to identify the crux of the problem. The civil service, especially at the secretariat level, is considered as the ‘think tank’ of the Government and it helps in making sound and effective policies. The civil servants also administer the law of the land. They are to implement and execute the law of the land faithfully and impartially. In finance, the civil servants not only prepare the budget but also influence the taxation and expenditure policy of the government to a great extent. Today they perform quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial functions also. Public relations have become an important part of their official duties. Therefore, they are expected to explain the Government policy to the people and to win their co-operation in its implementation. In a country like India, civil servants are entrusted the responsibility of implementing various programmes of rural development and welfare measures.
Recent decades have seen a shift towards a reduced role for the Government in all countries. Thatcherism in UK and Reaganomics in USA tried to pull out the State from the morass of over-involvement. The decline of Communism in Eastern Europe has furthered the trend towards economic liberalization and disinvestment in public sector enterprises. India could not have remained unaffected by these global trends.
97. Which one of the following is not the area of Civil Servants?
(A) Collection of Data
(B) Identification of problem
(C) Think-tank of the Government
(D) Enactment of Law
Ans: D
98. Civil Servants are not discharging the following:
(A) Execution of Law of the land
(B) Preparation of the budget
(C) Contacting the people and explaining the programmes of Government
(D) Judicial activities
Ans: D
99. Which one of the following factors has not contributed to the rise of globalization?
(A) Thatcherism in UK
(B) Reaganomics in USA
(C) Decline of Communism in Eastern Europe
(D) Growth of Social Legislation
Ans: D
100. Which one of the following areas is not the concern of the Government Policy in recent trends?
(A) Disinvestment in Public Enterprises
(B) Increasing the efficiency of Civil Servants
(C) Enlarging the role of Government
(D) Deregulation of Monopolies
Ans: C