PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION- PAGE 1
UPSC Public Administration MCQs
1. “Administration, not the sword, is the key to enduring in the Great Society.” Who said it?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Charles A. Bernard
(C) Adams Brooks
(D) M.E. Dimock
Ans: B
2. Separation between Politics and Administration had become an ‘outworn credo’. Who said this?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) Frank J. Goodnow
(D) Herbert Simon
Ans: B
3. “In the Science of Administration, whether public or private, the basic good is efficiency.” Who among the following made this statement?
(A) L. Urwick
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) J.D. Mooney
Ans: B
4. Post-modern Public Administration is based on a trilogy of post-behaviour tenets of Public Administration. Which of the following is the trilogy?
(A) Critical Theory, New Left Ideology and Constructivism.
(B) New Public Administration, Critical Theory and New Public Management.
(C) New Public Administration, Public Choice Theory, and New Public Management.
(D) Critical Theory, Phenomenology and Structural Theory.
Ans: D
5. Benn and Gaus contend that Publicness and Privateness in society are comprised of three dimensions.
Identify the dimensions propounded by them.
(A) Agency, institution and person
(B) Agency, interest and access
(C) Institution, interest and person
(D) Interest, person and access
Ans: B
6. Public Management is the merger of normative orientation of traditional Public Administration and the instrumental orientation of General Management. Who said it?
(A) Christopher Hood
(B) Tullock
(C) Van ban-Lane
(D) Perry and Kramer
Ans: D
7. “We are living in the age of organization Man” who among the following had said it?
(A) W.H. White
(B) L.D. White
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Herold E. Dimock
Ans: A
8. Assertion (A): Open model theorists dislike the rigidity, inflexibility and anti-humanist view of bureaucracy.
Reason (R): Close-model theorists consider organization as a fluid network structure.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
9. Consider the following factors:
(i) Nature of work
(ii) Age of agency
(iii) Leadership
(iv) Location of the organizational units
Which one of the following principles of organization is determined by above stated factors?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Unity of command
(C) Span of control
(D) Authority
Ans: C
10. Who among the following has called staff agency as ‘it is her alter-ego’?
(A) James D. Mooney
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Pffifner and Presthus
(D) Dimock, Dimock and Koeing
Ans: C
11. The concept of ‘Unity of vision’ is a core theme of
(A) Matrix organisations
(B) Missionary agencies
(C) Field based offices
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
12. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Types of Leaders) (Attributes)
a. Climbers 1. Motivation and Commitment
b. Conservers 2. Maximisation of Roles and Resources
c. Zealots 3. Power, Income and Prestige
d. Advocates 4. Sense of Public Interest
5. Minimum change
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 5 1 2
(B) 2 4 1 2
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A
13. “The process of transfer of administrative authority from lower to higher level of government is called centralization, the converse, decentralization”. Who has given the above definition?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) L.D. White
(C) J.C. Charlesworth
(D) James W. Fester
Ans: B
14. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given follow:
List – I List – II
(Definitions) (Authors)
a. An employee should receive orders from one superior only. 1. Henry Fayol
b. A man cannot serve two masters. 2. Pfiffner and Presthus
c. Every member of an organization should report to one and only one leader. 3. Dimock and Dimock
d. Each employee should have only one boss. 4. Gullick and Urwick
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans: A
15. The term ‘Charisma’ used by Max Weber in the ideal type is taken from which of the following languages?
(A) German
(B) Greek
(C) Italian
(D) Roman
Ans: B
16. Match of the following statements are correct in relation to F.W. Taylor’s ‘Scientific Management’?
(i) Time and methods of study maybe used to find out the best way of performing a job.
(ii) Specialists may be employed to perform the tasks.
(iii) Workers must perform the job in whichever way they like.
(iv) Work place and incentives are not linked to output.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
17. Which of the following concepts are related to constructive conflict as suggested by Mary Parker Follet?
(i) Domination
(ii) Compromise
(iii) Integration
(iv) Delegation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
18. Assertion (A): The satisfying administrative man is different from the maximising man.
Reason (R): The administrative man does not search for the optimal decision but a satisfactory one
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
19. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Author) (Types of Leadership)
a. Mooneyand Reiley 1. Institutionalists, Specialists, Hybrids
b. Etzioni 2. Titular leaders, Controllers, true organizers
c. Marwick 3. Officials, Informal and formal leaders
d. Gowldner 4. Locals and Cosmopolitans
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: B
20. Clayton Alderfer attempted to rework Maslow’s need hierarchy to align it more closely with empirical research. His revised need hierarchy is labelled as
(A) Theory of Needs
(B) Self efficiency theory
(C) ERG theory
(D) Equity theory
Ans: C
21. Who is the author of the book titled ‘Bureaucrazy’?
(A) Michael Crozier
(B) M.K. Kaw
(C) P.N. Haxer
(D) Veerappa Moily
Ans: B
22. Which of the following is not the assumption of theory X?
(A) Most people must be corrected and controlled.
(B) The average human being prefers to be directed.
(C) Most of the people do not dislike work inherently.
(D) People have relatively little ambitions and wants.
Ans: C
23. Which of the following are the foci areas of research in Comparative Public Administration as identified by Ferrel Heady?
(i) Component approach
(ii) Modified traditional approach
(iii) Development system model
(iv) General system model
(v) Middle range theory
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
Ans: B
24. Which of the following are the features of Diffracted Society according to Fred Riggs”?
(i) Universalilsm
(ii) Ascription
(iii) Attainment
(iv) Particularism
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
25. Which one of the following is the concern of the Hatch Act 1919?
(A) Political activities of Civil Servants
(B) Right to strike
(C) Right to form association
(D) Machinery for Negotiation
Ans: A
26. Who is in-charge of the office of Public Service and Science in Britain?
(A) Lord Chancellor
(B) Chancellor of Exchequer
(C) The Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster
(D) Cabinet Secretary
Ans: C
27. In Britain, responsibility for Central Co-ordination and Management of Civil Services is divided between:
(A) Treasury and Home Department
(B) Prime Minister and Home Department
(C) Cabinet Office and Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Cabinet Office and Treasury
Ans: D
28. Comparative Public Administration is not concerned with
(i) Search for the theory of administration.
(ii) Practical application of knowledge.
(iii) Observance of Cultural factors
(iv) Study of ongoing problems of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
29. What type of budgetary method is used in the context of Development Administration?
(A) Performance Budget
(B) Block vote Budget Allocation System
(C) Zero-base Budget
(D) Line-Item Budget
Ans: A
30. Planning in Development Administration with the objective of optimal location of services like Schools, Hospitals and Banks etc. Is known as
(A) Local planning
(B) Spatial planning
(C) Vertical planning
(D) Horizontal planning
Ans: B
31. Catastrophe theory developed by Rene Thom for the study of development administration has been borrowed from
(A) Physics
(B) Applied Mathematics
(C) Applied Economics
(D) Disaster Management
Ans: B
32. Who expressed the view that development administration requires a parallel strengthening of the democratic and representative political process?
(A) F.W. Riggs
(B) Lucian Pye
(C) La Palombara
(D) George Cant
Ans: B
33. Which of the following features of Development Administration are shared by New Public Administration?
(i) Effective coordination
(ii) Change orientation
(iii) Temporal dimension
(iv) Goal orientation
(v) Ecological perspective
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (v)
(D) (iv) and (v)
Ans: A
34. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to promulgate an ordinance?
(A) Article 53
(B) Article 54
(C) Article 122
(D) Article 123
Ans: D
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The first Administrative Reforms Commission recommended that the number of Ministers including Prime Minister should be sixteen.
(ii) The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003 specify that the total number of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of people.
(iii) The Constitution has classified the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks.
(iv) The National Democratic Alliance Government (headed by Mr. A .B. Vajpai) had all the three types Ministers.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv)
Ans: A
36. Which of the following statements is not correct about the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO)?
(A) It was constituted in 2004 after Kargil War.
(B) If is located in P.M.O. under the supervision of National Defence Adviser.
(C) R.A.W., I.B., and Police Stations of the Country are interlinked with NTRO.
(D) It stocks technical intelligence reports.
Ans: C
37. What is the legal basis for the establishment of Cabinet Committees in India?
(A) Rules for Parliamentary procedure.
(B) Allocation of Business Rules, Government of India.
(C) Resolution of Cabinet.
(D) Decision of Prime Minister.
Ans: B
38. Which of the following has been described as ‘the master key to good governance’ by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission?
(A) Promoting e-governance
(B) Social Capital – A shared Destinity
(C) Ethics in Governance
(D) Right to information
Ans: D
39. ‘The Chief Secretary’s job is not a technicians’ or even a professionals’, he is not a knowledgeable engineer nor even a first class magistrate, he is a part of process of Government and in democratic republic, part of human process’. Who made this statement?
(A) Mohan Mukharjee
(B) Dharmvir
(C) E.N. Mangat Rai
(D) V.D. Murti
Ans: C
40. Which one of the following is the first law on Freedom of information?
(A) Freedom of Information Act (U.K.)
(B) Freedom of Press Act (Sweden)
(C) Freedom of Information Act (USA)
(D) Freedom of Information Act (India)
Ans: B
41. Arrange the following stages in Disciplinary proceedings for major penalty in a correct sequential order and select the answer from the codes given below:
(i) Compliant followed by Preliminary investigation.
(ii) Acceptance of charges or rejection of charges.
(iii) Appointment of Inquiry Officer.
(iv) Consultation with UPSC.
(v) Submission of Report by Investigation Officer.
(vi) Final order.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (vi)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi), (iv)
Ans: C
42. Consider the following statements regarding All India Services established as per the provision of Article 312.
(i) All India Services are created consequent upon a resolution of Council of States declaring that itis necessary and expedient in the national interest to create an All India Service.
(ii) The Parliament may provide for the creation of new All India Service by making a law as per the resolution of the council of states.
(iii) The Supreme Court has also directed the Government of India to take steps for setting up an All India Judicial Service.
(iv) All the services proposed to be established under the All India Service (Amendment) Act, 1963have been established.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
43. “The heart of an administrator must be located in his brain” – This statement is given by
(A) Paul H. Appleby
(B) S.V.B. Patel
(C) A.D. Gorwala
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: B
44. Which of the following Committee/Commissions recommended the repeal of Article 310 and Article 311 in the Indian Constitution.
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission.
(B) Rajamannar Committee
(C) P.C. Hota Committee
(D) Second Administrative Reforms Commission.
Ans: D
45. Under which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution an appropriate legislature may by law regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of Union or State Public Services?
(A) Article 308
(B) Article 309
(C) Article 310
(D) Article 311
Ans: B
46. Which one of the following recommended that the name of the Central Police Training College should be changed as the National Police Academy?
(A) Gore Committee
(B) National Police Commission
(C) The Kohli Committee
(D) First Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: C
47. Match List – I with List – II and selectthe correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concepts) (Explanations)
a. Capital expenditure 1. Expenditure towards normal running of Government
b. Revenue expenditure 2. Expenditure for creating concrete assets of a material character.
c. Gross Fiscal deficit 3. Increase in the net credit by Reserve Bank of India to Central Government
d. Monetary deficit 4. Resources gap in terms of excess of total Government expenditure over revenue receipts and grants.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans: B
48. Which of the following statements about Budget are correct?
(i) Budget is an economic horoscope of the country.
(ii) Budget is a political document which provides a glimpse of entire philosophy of Government.
(iii) Budget is formulated by legislature.
(iv) Budget is nut-bolt of public policy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: D
49. Which of the following statements about controller & Auditor General of India are correct?
(i) It is a British Legacy.
(ii) It is independent and autonomous to undertake public audit.
(iii) It does not have the power to determine the nature and extent of the audit.
(iv) It has the inherent right to determine what should be included in the audit report.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
50. Which of the following are considered as the criteria for selecting a research topic?
(i) Relevance
(ii) Utility
(iii) Feasibility
(iv) Ethical Acceptability
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Charles A. Bernard
(C) Adams Brooks
(D) M.E. Dimock
Ans: B
2. Separation between Politics and Administration had become an ‘outworn credo’. Who said this?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) Frank J. Goodnow
(D) Herbert Simon
Ans: B
3. “In the Science of Administration, whether public or private, the basic good is efficiency.” Who among the following made this statement?
(A) L. Urwick
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) J.D. Mooney
Ans: B
4. Post-modern Public Administration is based on a trilogy of post-behaviour tenets of Public Administration. Which of the following is the trilogy?
(A) Critical Theory, New Left Ideology and Constructivism.
(B) New Public Administration, Critical Theory and New Public Management.
(C) New Public Administration, Public Choice Theory, and New Public Management.
(D) Critical Theory, Phenomenology and Structural Theory.
Ans: D
5. Benn and Gaus contend that Publicness and Privateness in society are comprised of three dimensions.
Identify the dimensions propounded by them.
(A) Agency, institution and person
(B) Agency, interest and access
(C) Institution, interest and person
(D) Interest, person and access
Ans: B
6. Public Management is the merger of normative orientation of traditional Public Administration and the instrumental orientation of General Management. Who said it?
(A) Christopher Hood
(B) Tullock
(C) Van ban-Lane
(D) Perry and Kramer
Ans: D
7. “We are living in the age of organization Man” who among the following had said it?
(A) W.H. White
(B) L.D. White
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Herold E. Dimock
Ans: A
8. Assertion (A): Open model theorists dislike the rigidity, inflexibility and anti-humanist view of bureaucracy.
Reason (R): Close-model theorists consider organization as a fluid network structure.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
9. Consider the following factors:
(i) Nature of work
(ii) Age of agency
(iii) Leadership
(iv) Location of the organizational units
Which one of the following principles of organization is determined by above stated factors?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Unity of command
(C) Span of control
(D) Authority
Ans: C
10. Who among the following has called staff agency as ‘it is her alter-ego’?
(A) James D. Mooney
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Pffifner and Presthus
(D) Dimock, Dimock and Koeing
Ans: C
11. The concept of ‘Unity of vision’ is a core theme of
(A) Matrix organisations
(B) Missionary agencies
(C) Field based offices
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
12. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Types of Leaders) (Attributes)
a. Climbers 1. Motivation and Commitment
b. Conservers 2. Maximisation of Roles and Resources
c. Zealots 3. Power, Income and Prestige
d. Advocates 4. Sense of Public Interest
5. Minimum change
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 5 1 2
(B) 2 4 1 2
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A
13. “The process of transfer of administrative authority from lower to higher level of government is called centralization, the converse, decentralization”. Who has given the above definition?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) L.D. White
(C) J.C. Charlesworth
(D) James W. Fester
Ans: B
14. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given follow:
List – I List – II
(Definitions) (Authors)
a. An employee should receive orders from one superior only. 1. Henry Fayol
b. A man cannot serve two masters. 2. Pfiffner and Presthus
c. Every member of an organization should report to one and only one leader. 3. Dimock and Dimock
d. Each employee should have only one boss. 4. Gullick and Urwick
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans: A
15. The term ‘Charisma’ used by Max Weber in the ideal type is taken from which of the following languages?
(A) German
(B) Greek
(C) Italian
(D) Roman
Ans: B
16. Match of the following statements are correct in relation to F.W. Taylor’s ‘Scientific Management’?
(i) Time and methods of study maybe used to find out the best way of performing a job.
(ii) Specialists may be employed to perform the tasks.
(iii) Workers must perform the job in whichever way they like.
(iv) Work place and incentives are not linked to output.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
17. Which of the following concepts are related to constructive conflict as suggested by Mary Parker Follet?
(i) Domination
(ii) Compromise
(iii) Integration
(iv) Delegation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
18. Assertion (A): The satisfying administrative man is different from the maximising man.
Reason (R): The administrative man does not search for the optimal decision but a satisfactory one
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
19. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Author) (Types of Leadership)
a. Mooneyand Reiley 1. Institutionalists, Specialists, Hybrids
b. Etzioni 2. Titular leaders, Controllers, true organizers
c. Marwick 3. Officials, Informal and formal leaders
d. Gowldner 4. Locals and Cosmopolitans
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: B
20. Clayton Alderfer attempted to rework Maslow’s need hierarchy to align it more closely with empirical research. His revised need hierarchy is labelled as
(A) Theory of Needs
(B) Self efficiency theory
(C) ERG theory
(D) Equity theory
Ans: C
21. Who is the author of the book titled ‘Bureaucrazy’?
(A) Michael Crozier
(B) M.K. Kaw
(C) P.N. Haxer
(D) Veerappa Moily
Ans: B
22. Which of the following is not the assumption of theory X?
(A) Most people must be corrected and controlled.
(B) The average human being prefers to be directed.
(C) Most of the people do not dislike work inherently.
(D) People have relatively little ambitions and wants.
Ans: C
23. Which of the following are the foci areas of research in Comparative Public Administration as identified by Ferrel Heady?
(i) Component approach
(ii) Modified traditional approach
(iii) Development system model
(iv) General system model
(v) Middle range theory
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
Ans: B
24. Which of the following are the features of Diffracted Society according to Fred Riggs”?
(i) Universalilsm
(ii) Ascription
(iii) Attainment
(iv) Particularism
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
25. Which one of the following is the concern of the Hatch Act 1919?
(A) Political activities of Civil Servants
(B) Right to strike
(C) Right to form association
(D) Machinery for Negotiation
Ans: A
26. Who is in-charge of the office of Public Service and Science in Britain?
(A) Lord Chancellor
(B) Chancellor of Exchequer
(C) The Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster
(D) Cabinet Secretary
Ans: C
27. In Britain, responsibility for Central Co-ordination and Management of Civil Services is divided between:
(A) Treasury and Home Department
(B) Prime Minister and Home Department
(C) Cabinet Office and Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Cabinet Office and Treasury
Ans: D
28. Comparative Public Administration is not concerned with
(i) Search for the theory of administration.
(ii) Practical application of knowledge.
(iii) Observance of Cultural factors
(iv) Study of ongoing problems of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
29. What type of budgetary method is used in the context of Development Administration?
(A) Performance Budget
(B) Block vote Budget Allocation System
(C) Zero-base Budget
(D) Line-Item Budget
Ans: A
30. Planning in Development Administration with the objective of optimal location of services like Schools, Hospitals and Banks etc. Is known as
(A) Local planning
(B) Spatial planning
(C) Vertical planning
(D) Horizontal planning
Ans: B
31. Catastrophe theory developed by Rene Thom for the study of development administration has been borrowed from
(A) Physics
(B) Applied Mathematics
(C) Applied Economics
(D) Disaster Management
Ans: B
32. Who expressed the view that development administration requires a parallel strengthening of the democratic and representative political process?
(A) F.W. Riggs
(B) Lucian Pye
(C) La Palombara
(D) George Cant
Ans: B
33. Which of the following features of Development Administration are shared by New Public Administration?
(i) Effective coordination
(ii) Change orientation
(iii) Temporal dimension
(iv) Goal orientation
(v) Ecological perspective
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (v)
(D) (iv) and (v)
Ans: A
34. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to promulgate an ordinance?
(A) Article 53
(B) Article 54
(C) Article 122
(D) Article 123
Ans: D
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The first Administrative Reforms Commission recommended that the number of Ministers including Prime Minister should be sixteen.
(ii) The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003 specify that the total number of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of people.
(iii) The Constitution has classified the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks.
(iv) The National Democratic Alliance Government (headed by Mr. A .B. Vajpai) had all the three types Ministers.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv)
Ans: A
36. Which of the following statements is not correct about the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO)?
(A) It was constituted in 2004 after Kargil War.
(B) If is located in P.M.O. under the supervision of National Defence Adviser.
(C) R.A.W., I.B., and Police Stations of the Country are interlinked with NTRO.
(D) It stocks technical intelligence reports.
Ans: C
37. What is the legal basis for the establishment of Cabinet Committees in India?
(A) Rules for Parliamentary procedure.
(B) Allocation of Business Rules, Government of India.
(C) Resolution of Cabinet.
(D) Decision of Prime Minister.
Ans: B
38. Which of the following has been described as ‘the master key to good governance’ by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission?
(A) Promoting e-governance
(B) Social Capital – A shared Destinity
(C) Ethics in Governance
(D) Right to information
Ans: D
39. ‘The Chief Secretary’s job is not a technicians’ or even a professionals’, he is not a knowledgeable engineer nor even a first class magistrate, he is a part of process of Government and in democratic republic, part of human process’. Who made this statement?
(A) Mohan Mukharjee
(B) Dharmvir
(C) E.N. Mangat Rai
(D) V.D. Murti
Ans: C
40. Which one of the following is the first law on Freedom of information?
(A) Freedom of Information Act (U.K.)
(B) Freedom of Press Act (Sweden)
(C) Freedom of Information Act (USA)
(D) Freedom of Information Act (India)
Ans: B
41. Arrange the following stages in Disciplinary proceedings for major penalty in a correct sequential order and select the answer from the codes given below:
(i) Compliant followed by Preliminary investigation.
(ii) Acceptance of charges or rejection of charges.
(iii) Appointment of Inquiry Officer.
(iv) Consultation with UPSC.
(v) Submission of Report by Investigation Officer.
(vi) Final order.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (vi)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi), (iv)
Ans: C
42. Consider the following statements regarding All India Services established as per the provision of Article 312.
(i) All India Services are created consequent upon a resolution of Council of States declaring that itis necessary and expedient in the national interest to create an All India Service.
(ii) The Parliament may provide for the creation of new All India Service by making a law as per the resolution of the council of states.
(iii) The Supreme Court has also directed the Government of India to take steps for setting up an All India Judicial Service.
(iv) All the services proposed to be established under the All India Service (Amendment) Act, 1963have been established.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
43. “The heart of an administrator must be located in his brain” – This statement is given by
(A) Paul H. Appleby
(B) S.V.B. Patel
(C) A.D. Gorwala
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: B
44. Which of the following Committee/Commissions recommended the repeal of Article 310 and Article 311 in the Indian Constitution.
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission.
(B) Rajamannar Committee
(C) P.C. Hota Committee
(D) Second Administrative Reforms Commission.
Ans: D
45. Under which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution an appropriate legislature may by law regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of Union or State Public Services?
(A) Article 308
(B) Article 309
(C) Article 310
(D) Article 311
Ans: B
46. Which one of the following recommended that the name of the Central Police Training College should be changed as the National Police Academy?
(A) Gore Committee
(B) National Police Commission
(C) The Kohli Committee
(D) First Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: C
47. Match List – I with List – II and selectthe correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concepts) (Explanations)
a. Capital expenditure 1. Expenditure towards normal running of Government
b. Revenue expenditure 2. Expenditure for creating concrete assets of a material character.
c. Gross Fiscal deficit 3. Increase in the net credit by Reserve Bank of India to Central Government
d. Monetary deficit 4. Resources gap in terms of excess of total Government expenditure over revenue receipts and grants.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans: B
48. Which of the following statements about Budget are correct?
(i) Budget is an economic horoscope of the country.
(ii) Budget is a political document which provides a glimpse of entire philosophy of Government.
(iii) Budget is formulated by legislature.
(iv) Budget is nut-bolt of public policy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: D
49. Which of the following statements about controller & Auditor General of India are correct?
(i) It is a British Legacy.
(ii) It is independent and autonomous to undertake public audit.
(iii) It does not have the power to determine the nature and extent of the audit.
(iv) It has the inherent right to determine what should be included in the audit report.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
50. Which of the following are considered as the criteria for selecting a research topic?
(i) Relevance
(ii) Utility
(iii) Feasibility
(iv) Ethical Acceptability
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
51. Primarily, a researcher should possess which of the following qualities?
(A) Scientific Attitude
(B) Scientific Thinking
(C) Scientific Behaviour
(D) Scientific Feelings
Ans: A
52. ‘Interview is a process of social interaction.’ Who said it?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt
(D) V.M. Palmer
Ans: C
53. Select the correct research design indicated by the following characteristics:
(i) Describes the accurate features of a phenomenon.
(ii) Intends to find out the incidence of relationships between certain variables.
(iii) Makes certain specific predictions.
(A) Exploratory Research Design
(B) Descriptive Research Design
(C) Diagnostic Research Design
(D) Informal Experimental Design
Ans: B
54. According to Dale, a qualitative approach is not necessary in which of the following situations?
(A) When it is possible to study statistically representative samples of beneficiaries.
(B) When changes are the result of complex process.
(C) For the purpose of analyzing relevance due to the value of judgements involved.
(D) When studying the organizational issues pertaining to policy implementation
Ans: A
55. Probability and Non-probability sampling techniques are used to draw a sample of the population under study. Which include?
(i) Systematic random sampling
(ii) Stratified random sampling
(iii) Cluster sampling
(iv) Purposive sampling
(v) Quota sampling
Select the correct group of probability sampling techniques by using codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (v)
Ans: B
56. ‘District Administration’ means
(i) Collector’s Office
(ii) Conglomeration of all the district level administrative departments
(iii) A territory marked off for special administrative purpose
(iv) The total management of public affairs within the territorial unit.
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv)
Ans: D
57. Which report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related to local governance?
(A) 5th
(B) 6th
(C) 7th
(D) 8th
Ans: B
58. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the District Planning Committee?
(A) Article 242 ZD
(B) Article 243 ZA
(C) Article 243 ZD
(D) Article 244 ZA
Ans: C
59. What was one of the most significant recommendations of L.M. Shinghvi Committee on the Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Involvement of political parties in elections.
(B) Non-involvement of political parties in elections.
(C) Right to Recall
(D) Fixed term for PRIs.
Ans: B
60. What is the title of the United Nations Habitat 2006 Report?
(A) Urban Governance
(B) Urban Development
(C) Urban Millennium
(D) Urban Habitat
Ans: C
61. The Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes have been clearly classified into some categories by which of the following in India?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Ministry of Urban Development and Poverty Alleviation
(D) National Commission on Urbanization
Ans: B
62. Assertion (A): Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) is a ten years programme beginning from 2005-06
Reason (R): JNNURM’s main components are urban infrastructure, urban governance and basic services for the urban poor.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
63. Assertion (A): Social Welfare Administration generates awareness about the challenges of a society in transition where negative use of technologies and practices are impacting on the well- being of women and children.
Reason (R): Social Welfare Administration is the summation of social welfare institutions, policies and programmes.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B
64. The most acceptable explanation of Social Justice is
(A) Economic development
(B) Social development
(C) Uplift of specific sections
(D) Uplift of all the sections of society
Ans: D
65. Central Social Welfare Board at present is functioning under the administrative control of –
(A) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(B) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(C) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Ans: C
66. Assertion (A): Bio-ethics and Social Justice are interrelated.
Reason (R): Affordable access to health care especially for low income households and families refers to bio-ethics.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
67. ‘Association of Voluntary Agencies for Rural Development’ (AVARD) was established in the year:
(A) 1952
(B) 1958
(C) 1962
(D) 1968
Ans: B
68. Which of the following is not the policy implementation model as suggested by R. Elmore?
(A) Systems Management
(B) Conflict and Bargaining
(C) Organizational Development
(D) Policy Action Model
Ans: D
69. According to Poister, which of the following is the basis of Policy Evaluation?
(i) Effectiveness
(ii) Adequacy
(iii) Appropriateness
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii)
Ans: A
70. Which of the following is not the approach to policy evaluation?
(A) Evaluability Assessment
(B) Effectiveness Evaluation
(C) Evaluation Synthesis Approach
(D) Experimental method
Ans: D
71. Which of the following States does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tripura
(D) Nagaland
Ans: D
72. In which Article of the Constitution of India, the provision of ‘workers’ participation in management of undertakings is given?
(A) Article 42
(B) Article 42 A
(C) Article 43
(D) Article 43 A
Ans: D
73. Which among the following companies was not a ‘Maharatna’ company as on March, 2012?
(A) Coal India Limited
(B) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
(D) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
Ans: C
74. When did the Government of India first time accord ‘Maharatna Status’ to the Public Sector Undertakings?
(A) 1997
(B) 2001
(C) 2004
(D) 2009
Ans: D
75. Removal of poverty was stated as the dominant objective in which of the following Five Year Plan in India?
(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan
Ans: C
76. “The Civil Service should be manned by the most promising young men of the day by a competing (Literary) examination on a level with the highest description of education in this country.” This statement is made in
(A) The Macaulay Report
(B) The Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(C) The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission Report
(D) The Appleby Report
Ans: B
77. Consider the following about Prime Minister’s office:
(i) It is a think-tank of the Prime Minister.
(ii) It is an extra-constitutional body.
(iii) It was given status of a Department under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules.
(iv) Administratively it is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
Select correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
78. The tenure of the members of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament is:
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years
Ans: A
79. The district has been placed under the charge of district officer who is empowered to promulgate orders to prevent any danger of breach of public peace. While doing so, he/she is performing the duties as a
(A) District Collector
(B) Administrative Officer
(C) Coordinator
(D) District Magistrate
Ans: D
80. Which of the following is not the recommendation of 2nd ARC to modernize the office of the District Collector?
(A) Establishment of Management Information System
(B) Establishment of Computerized District Grievance Cell
(C) Establishment of Vigilance Committee in the office of the District Collector
(D) Establishment of a Forum to interact with civil society group and media
Ans: C
81. The Cantonment Boards are classified into how many categories?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans: C
82. “Only a committed bureaucracy could bring about social transformation envisaged in the Five-Year Plans and in progressive legislations.” This statement was made by
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) V.P. Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar
(D) Indira Gandhi
Ans: D
83. Which of the following statements about the functions of Kotwal under Moughal administration is not correct?
(A) He was the supreme authority in magisterial matters in the administration of a town.
(B) He exercised police powers at the municipal level.
(C) He was responsible for managing financial matters.
(D) He had regulatory role in educational affairs at the municipal level.
Ans: D
84. “Corruption may help in assimilating new groups into the system and thus serve as a substitute for reform.”
This statement belongs to
(A) Samuel Huntington
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) Ralph Braibanti
Ans: A
85. Assertion (A): Specialists are not fit for the post of Secretary of Government department.
Reason (R): Specialists possess a narrow vision.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
86. “Science begins with observation and must ultimately return to observation for its final validation.”
Who among the following made this statement?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) Nels Anderson
(C) William J. Goode & Paul K. Hatt
(D) Robert K. Merton
Ans: C
87. When the universe is heterogenous and too large, the best sampling method which can be adopted is
(A) Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Multi-stage Sampling
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
88. In which way theory is a tool of science?
(i) It defines the major orientation of science.
(ii) It offers conceptual scheme.
(iii) It summarizes facts into empirical generalizations.
(iv) It does predict facts.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: C
89. Which one of the following names is not associated with random numbers used for sampling process?
(A) L.H.C. Tippett
(B) William J. Goode
(C) M.G. Kendall
(D) B. Babington
Ans: B
90. Assertion (A): Welfare State is criticised as too expensive.
Reason (R): Financing the services has become a burden and the cost has to be borne by the middle and upper middle classes through the instrument of progressive taxation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
91. As per the Memorandum of Articles of Central Social Welfare Board
(i) In each of the participating States/UTs there has to be a State Social Welfare Board.
(ii) The State Board is to perform such functions as are entrusted to it by the Ministry of Social Welfare.
(iii) More than half the members of the State Social Welfare Board are to be nominated by State Governments/UTs.
(iv) The Chairman of the Board is preferably a woman social worker.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Ans: B
92. Which one among the following is not an example of Public-Private Partnership (PPP)?
(A) BOT – Built, Operate & Transfer
(B) BOLT – Built, Operate, Lease & Transfer
(C) BLOT – Built, Lease, Operate and Transfer
(D) BOOT – Built, Operate, Own and Transfer
Ans: C
93. Assertion (A): National Livelihood Mission is a part of social welfare in India.
Reason (R): National Rural Health Mission aims at the development of physical infrastructure in rural areas.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
94. Which one of the following is the incorrect distinction between Functional and Policy making Boards of Public Enterprises?
Functional Boards Policy-Making Boards
(A) Small in size – Comparatively large in size
(B) Only specialists members – Both specialists and generalists members
(C) Generally selection of members from within the enterprise – Generally selection of members from outside the enterprise
(D) Members are generally part-timer – Members are generally full-timer
Ans: D
95. Which of the following should be the functions of the District and Metropolitan Planning Committees according to the 2nd ARC?
(i) Integration of spatial economic development.
(ii) Concerted rural and urban planning.
(iii) Advice and assistance to local bodies in the preparation of development plans and their effective implementation.
(iv) Advice to the Planning Commission in the preparation of Five Year Plans.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: A
96. ‘In case of a Metropolitan Corporation, a separate Ombudsman should be constituted.’
This recommendation is made by
(A) National Commission on Urban Affairs
(B) P.C. Hota Committee
(C) Veerappa Moily Committee
(D) First Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: C
97. ‘Government of India should draft and place before Parliament a Framework law for local governments.’ This recommendation was made by
(A) National Law Commission
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) Justice Panchhi Commission
(D) Sarkaria Commission
Ans: B
98. Which of the following statements about the composition of Ward Committee in a municipal area is not correct?
(A) Composition and the territorial area of a Ward Committee may be provided by the Law of State Legislative.
(B) State Legislative may also make a provision regarding the manner in which the seats in a Ward Committee should be filled.
(C) In case of multiple-wards, the Chairman of the Ward Committee shall be elected by the members of the Ward Committee.
(D) In case of two or more wards, the Chairman of that Ward Committee shall be nominated by the State Government.
Ans: D
99. The State Finance Commission is provided for in which of the following provisions of the Constitution?
(A) Art. 243(H)
(B) Art. 243(I)
(C) Art. 243(M)
(D) Art. 243(O)
Ans: B
100. Which of the following has defined “Panchayat as an association of village people for doing administrative, judicial or the other public works’?
(A) Jai Prakash Narain
(B) John Mathai
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) A.S. Altekar
Ans: B
(A) Scientific Attitude
(B) Scientific Thinking
(C) Scientific Behaviour
(D) Scientific Feelings
Ans: A
52. ‘Interview is a process of social interaction.’ Who said it?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt
(D) V.M. Palmer
Ans: C
53. Select the correct research design indicated by the following characteristics:
(i) Describes the accurate features of a phenomenon.
(ii) Intends to find out the incidence of relationships between certain variables.
(iii) Makes certain specific predictions.
(A) Exploratory Research Design
(B) Descriptive Research Design
(C) Diagnostic Research Design
(D) Informal Experimental Design
Ans: B
54. According to Dale, a qualitative approach is not necessary in which of the following situations?
(A) When it is possible to study statistically representative samples of beneficiaries.
(B) When changes are the result of complex process.
(C) For the purpose of analyzing relevance due to the value of judgements involved.
(D) When studying the organizational issues pertaining to policy implementation
Ans: A
55. Probability and Non-probability sampling techniques are used to draw a sample of the population under study. Which include?
(i) Systematic random sampling
(ii) Stratified random sampling
(iii) Cluster sampling
(iv) Purposive sampling
(v) Quota sampling
Select the correct group of probability sampling techniques by using codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (v)
Ans: B
56. ‘District Administration’ means
(i) Collector’s Office
(ii) Conglomeration of all the district level administrative departments
(iii) A territory marked off for special administrative purpose
(iv) The total management of public affairs within the territorial unit.
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv)
Ans: D
57. Which report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related to local governance?
(A) 5th
(B) 6th
(C) 7th
(D) 8th
Ans: B
58. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the District Planning Committee?
(A) Article 242 ZD
(B) Article 243 ZA
(C) Article 243 ZD
(D) Article 244 ZA
Ans: C
59. What was one of the most significant recommendations of L.M. Shinghvi Committee on the Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Involvement of political parties in elections.
(B) Non-involvement of political parties in elections.
(C) Right to Recall
(D) Fixed term for PRIs.
Ans: B
60. What is the title of the United Nations Habitat 2006 Report?
(A) Urban Governance
(B) Urban Development
(C) Urban Millennium
(D) Urban Habitat
Ans: C
61. The Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes have been clearly classified into some categories by which of the following in India?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Ministry of Urban Development and Poverty Alleviation
(D) National Commission on Urbanization
Ans: B
62. Assertion (A): Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) is a ten years programme beginning from 2005-06
Reason (R): JNNURM’s main components are urban infrastructure, urban governance and basic services for the urban poor.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
63. Assertion (A): Social Welfare Administration generates awareness about the challenges of a society in transition where negative use of technologies and practices are impacting on the well- being of women and children.
Reason (R): Social Welfare Administration is the summation of social welfare institutions, policies and programmes.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B
64. The most acceptable explanation of Social Justice is
(A) Economic development
(B) Social development
(C) Uplift of specific sections
(D) Uplift of all the sections of society
Ans: D
65. Central Social Welfare Board at present is functioning under the administrative control of –
(A) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(B) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(C) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Ans: C
66. Assertion (A): Bio-ethics and Social Justice are interrelated.
Reason (R): Affordable access to health care especially for low income households and families refers to bio-ethics.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
67. ‘Association of Voluntary Agencies for Rural Development’ (AVARD) was established in the year:
(A) 1952
(B) 1958
(C) 1962
(D) 1968
Ans: B
68. Which of the following is not the policy implementation model as suggested by R. Elmore?
(A) Systems Management
(B) Conflict and Bargaining
(C) Organizational Development
(D) Policy Action Model
Ans: D
69. According to Poister, which of the following is the basis of Policy Evaluation?
(i) Effectiveness
(ii) Adequacy
(iii) Appropriateness
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii)
Ans: A
70. Which of the following is not the approach to policy evaluation?
(A) Evaluability Assessment
(B) Effectiveness Evaluation
(C) Evaluation Synthesis Approach
(D) Experimental method
Ans: D
71. Which of the following States does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tripura
(D) Nagaland
Ans: D
72. In which Article of the Constitution of India, the provision of ‘workers’ participation in management of undertakings is given?
(A) Article 42
(B) Article 42 A
(C) Article 43
(D) Article 43 A
Ans: D
73. Which among the following companies was not a ‘Maharatna’ company as on March, 2012?
(A) Coal India Limited
(B) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
(D) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
Ans: C
74. When did the Government of India first time accord ‘Maharatna Status’ to the Public Sector Undertakings?
(A) 1997
(B) 2001
(C) 2004
(D) 2009
Ans: D
75. Removal of poverty was stated as the dominant objective in which of the following Five Year Plan in India?
(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan
Ans: C
76. “The Civil Service should be manned by the most promising young men of the day by a competing (Literary) examination on a level with the highest description of education in this country.” This statement is made in
(A) The Macaulay Report
(B) The Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(C) The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission Report
(D) The Appleby Report
Ans: B
77. Consider the following about Prime Minister’s office:
(i) It is a think-tank of the Prime Minister.
(ii) It is an extra-constitutional body.
(iii) It was given status of a Department under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules.
(iv) Administratively it is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
Select correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
78. The tenure of the members of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament is:
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years
Ans: A
79. The district has been placed under the charge of district officer who is empowered to promulgate orders to prevent any danger of breach of public peace. While doing so, he/she is performing the duties as a
(A) District Collector
(B) Administrative Officer
(C) Coordinator
(D) District Magistrate
Ans: D
80. Which of the following is not the recommendation of 2nd ARC to modernize the office of the District Collector?
(A) Establishment of Management Information System
(B) Establishment of Computerized District Grievance Cell
(C) Establishment of Vigilance Committee in the office of the District Collector
(D) Establishment of a Forum to interact with civil society group and media
Ans: C
81. The Cantonment Boards are classified into how many categories?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans: C
82. “Only a committed bureaucracy could bring about social transformation envisaged in the Five-Year Plans and in progressive legislations.” This statement was made by
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) V.P. Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar
(D) Indira Gandhi
Ans: D
83. Which of the following statements about the functions of Kotwal under Moughal administration is not correct?
(A) He was the supreme authority in magisterial matters in the administration of a town.
(B) He exercised police powers at the municipal level.
(C) He was responsible for managing financial matters.
(D) He had regulatory role in educational affairs at the municipal level.
Ans: D
84. “Corruption may help in assimilating new groups into the system and thus serve as a substitute for reform.”
This statement belongs to
(A) Samuel Huntington
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) Ralph Braibanti
Ans: A
85. Assertion (A): Specialists are not fit for the post of Secretary of Government department.
Reason (R): Specialists possess a narrow vision.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
86. “Science begins with observation and must ultimately return to observation for its final validation.”
Who among the following made this statement?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) Nels Anderson
(C) William J. Goode & Paul K. Hatt
(D) Robert K. Merton
Ans: C
87. When the universe is heterogenous and too large, the best sampling method which can be adopted is
(A) Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Multi-stage Sampling
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
88. In which way theory is a tool of science?
(i) It defines the major orientation of science.
(ii) It offers conceptual scheme.
(iii) It summarizes facts into empirical generalizations.
(iv) It does predict facts.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: C
89. Which one of the following names is not associated with random numbers used for sampling process?
(A) L.H.C. Tippett
(B) William J. Goode
(C) M.G. Kendall
(D) B. Babington
Ans: B
90. Assertion (A): Welfare State is criticised as too expensive.
Reason (R): Financing the services has become a burden and the cost has to be borne by the middle and upper middle classes through the instrument of progressive taxation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
91. As per the Memorandum of Articles of Central Social Welfare Board
(i) In each of the participating States/UTs there has to be a State Social Welfare Board.
(ii) The State Board is to perform such functions as are entrusted to it by the Ministry of Social Welfare.
(iii) More than half the members of the State Social Welfare Board are to be nominated by State Governments/UTs.
(iv) The Chairman of the Board is preferably a woman social worker.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Ans: B
92. Which one among the following is not an example of Public-Private Partnership (PPP)?
(A) BOT – Built, Operate & Transfer
(B) BOLT – Built, Operate, Lease & Transfer
(C) BLOT – Built, Lease, Operate and Transfer
(D) BOOT – Built, Operate, Own and Transfer
Ans: C
93. Assertion (A): National Livelihood Mission is a part of social welfare in India.
Reason (R): National Rural Health Mission aims at the development of physical infrastructure in rural areas.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
94. Which one of the following is the incorrect distinction between Functional and Policy making Boards of Public Enterprises?
Functional Boards Policy-Making Boards
(A) Small in size – Comparatively large in size
(B) Only specialists members – Both specialists and generalists members
(C) Generally selection of members from within the enterprise – Generally selection of members from outside the enterprise
(D) Members are generally part-timer – Members are generally full-timer
Ans: D
95. Which of the following should be the functions of the District and Metropolitan Planning Committees according to the 2nd ARC?
(i) Integration of spatial economic development.
(ii) Concerted rural and urban planning.
(iii) Advice and assistance to local bodies in the preparation of development plans and their effective implementation.
(iv) Advice to the Planning Commission in the preparation of Five Year Plans.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: A
96. ‘In case of a Metropolitan Corporation, a separate Ombudsman should be constituted.’
This recommendation is made by
(A) National Commission on Urban Affairs
(B) P.C. Hota Committee
(C) Veerappa Moily Committee
(D) First Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: C
97. ‘Government of India should draft and place before Parliament a Framework law for local governments.’ This recommendation was made by
(A) National Law Commission
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) Justice Panchhi Commission
(D) Sarkaria Commission
Ans: B
98. Which of the following statements about the composition of Ward Committee in a municipal area is not correct?
(A) Composition and the territorial area of a Ward Committee may be provided by the Law of State Legislative.
(B) State Legislative may also make a provision regarding the manner in which the seats in a Ward Committee should be filled.
(C) In case of multiple-wards, the Chairman of the Ward Committee shall be elected by the members of the Ward Committee.
(D) In case of two or more wards, the Chairman of that Ward Committee shall be nominated by the State Government.
Ans: D
99. The State Finance Commission is provided for in which of the following provisions of the Constitution?
(A) Art. 243(H)
(B) Art. 243(I)
(C) Art. 243(M)
(D) Art. 243(O)
Ans: B
100. Which of the following has defined “Panchayat as an association of village people for doing administrative, judicial or the other public works’?
(A) Jai Prakash Narain
(B) John Mathai
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) A.S. Altekar
Ans: B