GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY MCQs
1. An organism that has evolved recently would be represented in a phylogenetic tree at the
(A) Root (B) Node (C) Tip of the branch (D) Base of the branch
Ans: C
2. A component of Mac Conkey’s agar that makes it possible to distinguish between lactose fermenters and non-fermenters is
(A) Bile salt (B) Crystal violet (C) Neutral red (D) Lactic acid
Ans: C
3. Metachromatic granules consist of
(A) Poly β-hydroxy butyrate (B) Polyphosphate (C) glycogen (D) starch
Ans: B
4. Adding untreated sewage to a water body would
(A) Decrease BOD and increase Dissolved Oxygen (DO) (B) Increase BOD and decrease DO
(C) Increase BOD and DO (D) Decrease BOD and DO
Ans: B
5. A technique for purification of proteins based on their size is
(A) Affinity chromatography (B) Ion exchange chromatography (C) Gel exclusion chromatography (D) Hydrophobic chromatography
Ans: C
6. Which is a water borne disease caused by a bacterium?
(A) Schistosoamiasis (B) Giardiasis (C) Leptospirosis (D) Hepatitis
Ans: C
7. A metal pollutant that can be removed from soil or water by microbially mediated process of volatalization is
(A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Chromium (D) Cadmium
Ans: B
8. The site on prokaryotic mRNAs that facilitates ribosome assembly by binding to 16S rRNA is known as
(A) Pribnow Box (B) Shine-Dalgarno sequence (C) Kozak site (D) TATA box
Ans: B
9. In two dimensional electrophoresis, the first dimension is _____ and second dimension is ______ respectively
(A) SDS PAGE, Isoelectric focussing (B) Native PAGE, Isoelectric focusing
(C) Isoelectric focussing, SDS PAGE (D) Isoelectric focussing, Native PAGE
Ans: C
10. A double stranded DNA molecule has 20% Adenine. It will have how much Guanine?
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 60% (D) 80%
Ans: B
11. Atmospheric nitrogen enters the biosphere through
(A) Ammonification (B) Nitrogen fixation (C) Denitrification (D) Ammoxification
Ans: B
12. The primary natural sources of energy on the planet is/are
(A) Solar and geothermal (B) Solar and electrical (C) Solar and mechanical (D) Solar and hydrothermal
Ans: A
13. Number of ATPs that can be generated by the oxidation of one NADH that enters electron transport is approximately
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
Ans: B
14. Exergonic reactions
(A) release free energy (B) consume free energy (C) require ATP (D) are thermodynamically unfavourable
Ans: A
15. In the bacterial genetic map obtained by conjugation the distance between genes is in
(A) kilobase pairs (B) minutes (C) centimorgans (D) micrometers
Ans: B
16. The lagging strand of DNA is replicated in short pieces
(A) because of limitation of DNA unwinding (B) because of unavailability of dNTPs
(C) because the DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction (D) to make proof reading easier
Ans: C
17. Among the fragments listed below, the DNA fragment that will be close to the top (negative electrode) of an electrophoretic gel will be (A) 450 bp (B) 1500 bp (C) 3560 bp (D) 5000 bp
Ans: D
18. The temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is
(A) 100º C and 4 psi (B) 121º C and 15 psi
(C) 131º C and 9 psi (D) 115º C and 3 psi
Ans: B
19. Ionizing radiation removes from atoms
(A) protons (B) waves (C) electrons (D) neutrons
Ans: C
20. Apoptosis term is related to
(A) Abnormal cell growth (B) Cell death (C) Cell morphogenesis (D) Cell differentiation
Ans: B
21. Drugs that inhibit the formation of the bacterial cell wall are
(A) quinines (B) beta-lactams (C) tetracyclines (D) aminoglycosides
Ans: B
22. Antiviral drug that prevents viral nucleic acid replication is
(A) azidothymidine (B) rifampicin (C) amantadine (D) cycloheximide
Ans: A
23. An appropriate term for resident flora is
(A) commensals (B) parasites (C) pathogens (D) mutualists
Ans: A
24. An example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation is
(A) a histamine (B) complement C5a (C) collagen (D) interferon
Ans: A
25. An example of an exogenous pyrogen is
(A) interleukin-1 (B) complement (C) fibrin clot (D) endotoxin
Ans: D
26. The end product of the complement system is
(A) properdin (B) cascade reaction (C) membrane attack complex (D) complement factor C9
Ans: C
27. The “one gene – one enzyme” hypothesis was proposed on the basis of work with
(A) Neurospora crassa (B) Drosophila melanogaster (C) Escherichia coli (D) Bacteriophage lambda
Ans: A
28. A vaccine that contains only antigenic protein of viruses is called
(A) acellular (B) recombinant (C) subunit (D) attenuated
Ans: C
29. The cell that secretes antibodies are
(A) T cell (B) macrophage (C) plasma cell (D) monocyte
Ans: C
30. The purpose of an adjuvant in a vaccine is
(A) to kill the microbe (B) to suppress allergic reactions
(C) to enhance the immunological response to the antigen (D) to prevent antigen from proteases
Ans: C
31. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
(A) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction (B) acute contact dermatitis (C) autoimmune reaction (D) eczema
Ans: A
32. The western blot test can be used to identify
(A) unknown antibodies and antigens (B) unknown phospholipids (C) specific DNA (D) specific RNA
Ans: A
33. Dermatophytes are fungi that infect the epidermal tissue by invading and attacking
(A) collagen (B) keratin (C) fibroblasts (D) sebaceous glands
Ans: B
34. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD) is caused by
(A) arbovirus (B) protozoan (C) prion (D) bacterium
Ans: C
35. A common reservoir for rabies virus is
(A) pigeons (B) humans (C) raccoons (D) mosquitoes
Ans: C
36. Zika Virus disease is spread through
(A) Mosquito (B) Termite (C) Tse tse fly (D) Dragon fly
Ans: A
37. The plague bacterium Yersinia pestis is transmitted mainly by
(A) dogs (B) mosquitoes (C) fleas (D) birds
Ans: C
38. The common stain used in identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
(A) Gram stain (B) acid-fast stain (C) negative stain (D) spore stain
Ans: B
39. Gastric ulcers are caused by
(A) Treponema vincentii (B) Prevotella intermedia (C) Helicobacter pylori (D) Vibrio cholera
Ans: C
40. Syphilis is caused by
(A) Treponema palladium (B) Neisseria gonorrhea (C) Trichomonas vaginalis (D) Haemophilus influenza
Ans: A
41. The most accurate indicator of faecal contamination is
(A) Enterobacter (B) Thiobacillus (C) Staphylococcus (D) Escherichia
Ans: D
42. The dried, pre-sprouted barley grain is soaked to activate enzymes in beer manufacture is called
(A) hops (B) malt (C) wort (D) mash
Ans: B
43. Secondary metabolites such as antibiotics are produced by microbes during which growth phase
(A) lag (B) exponential (C) stationary (D) death
Ans: C
44. Lysozyme was discovered by
(A) Waksman (B) Ehrlich (C) Watson (D) Fleming
Ans: D
45. More than 80% of the known antibiotics are produced by
(A) Firmicutes (B) Actinobacteria (C) Halobacteria (D) Cyanobacteria
Ans: B
46. How many times a carbonated drink of pH 3.0 will be more acidic than distilled water?
(A) 4 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 10,000
Ans: D
47. If E. coli cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P, the radiolabel would be found in all except
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) ATP (D) proteins
Ans: D
48. The magnification of a microscope when observed through the 15x ocular and high power 45x objective is
(A) 1500 (B) 150 (C) 675 (D) 60
Ans: C
49. If Bacillus subtilis cells are stained with malachite green with heat and then counterstained with safranin, the green structures found under microscope are
(A) cell walls (B) endospores (C) flagella (D) capsule
Ans: B
50. In genetics, amber, ochre and opal are
(A) Types of mutations (B) Recombination units (C) Names of stop codons (D) Names of phages
Ans: C
(A) Root (B) Node (C) Tip of the branch (D) Base of the branch
Ans: C
2. A component of Mac Conkey’s agar that makes it possible to distinguish between lactose fermenters and non-fermenters is
(A) Bile salt (B) Crystal violet (C) Neutral red (D) Lactic acid
Ans: C
3. Metachromatic granules consist of
(A) Poly β-hydroxy butyrate (B) Polyphosphate (C) glycogen (D) starch
Ans: B
4. Adding untreated sewage to a water body would
(A) Decrease BOD and increase Dissolved Oxygen (DO) (B) Increase BOD and decrease DO
(C) Increase BOD and DO (D) Decrease BOD and DO
Ans: B
5. A technique for purification of proteins based on their size is
(A) Affinity chromatography (B) Ion exchange chromatography (C) Gel exclusion chromatography (D) Hydrophobic chromatography
Ans: C
6. Which is a water borne disease caused by a bacterium?
(A) Schistosoamiasis (B) Giardiasis (C) Leptospirosis (D) Hepatitis
Ans: C
7. A metal pollutant that can be removed from soil or water by microbially mediated process of volatalization is
(A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Chromium (D) Cadmium
Ans: B
8. The site on prokaryotic mRNAs that facilitates ribosome assembly by binding to 16S rRNA is known as
(A) Pribnow Box (B) Shine-Dalgarno sequence (C) Kozak site (D) TATA box
Ans: B
9. In two dimensional electrophoresis, the first dimension is _____ and second dimension is ______ respectively
(A) SDS PAGE, Isoelectric focussing (B) Native PAGE, Isoelectric focusing
(C) Isoelectric focussing, SDS PAGE (D) Isoelectric focussing, Native PAGE
Ans: C
10. A double stranded DNA molecule has 20% Adenine. It will have how much Guanine?
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 60% (D) 80%
Ans: B
11. Atmospheric nitrogen enters the biosphere through
(A) Ammonification (B) Nitrogen fixation (C) Denitrification (D) Ammoxification
Ans: B
12. The primary natural sources of energy on the planet is/are
(A) Solar and geothermal (B) Solar and electrical (C) Solar and mechanical (D) Solar and hydrothermal
Ans: A
13. Number of ATPs that can be generated by the oxidation of one NADH that enters electron transport is approximately
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
Ans: B
14. Exergonic reactions
(A) release free energy (B) consume free energy (C) require ATP (D) are thermodynamically unfavourable
Ans: A
15. In the bacterial genetic map obtained by conjugation the distance between genes is in
(A) kilobase pairs (B) minutes (C) centimorgans (D) micrometers
Ans: B
16. The lagging strand of DNA is replicated in short pieces
(A) because of limitation of DNA unwinding (B) because of unavailability of dNTPs
(C) because the DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction (D) to make proof reading easier
Ans: C
17. Among the fragments listed below, the DNA fragment that will be close to the top (negative electrode) of an electrophoretic gel will be (A) 450 bp (B) 1500 bp (C) 3560 bp (D) 5000 bp
Ans: D
18. The temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is
(A) 100º C and 4 psi (B) 121º C and 15 psi
(C) 131º C and 9 psi (D) 115º C and 3 psi
Ans: B
19. Ionizing radiation removes from atoms
(A) protons (B) waves (C) electrons (D) neutrons
Ans: C
20. Apoptosis term is related to
(A) Abnormal cell growth (B) Cell death (C) Cell morphogenesis (D) Cell differentiation
Ans: B
21. Drugs that inhibit the formation of the bacterial cell wall are
(A) quinines (B) beta-lactams (C) tetracyclines (D) aminoglycosides
Ans: B
22. Antiviral drug that prevents viral nucleic acid replication is
(A) azidothymidine (B) rifampicin (C) amantadine (D) cycloheximide
Ans: A
23. An appropriate term for resident flora is
(A) commensals (B) parasites (C) pathogens (D) mutualists
Ans: A
24. An example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation is
(A) a histamine (B) complement C5a (C) collagen (D) interferon
Ans: A
25. An example of an exogenous pyrogen is
(A) interleukin-1 (B) complement (C) fibrin clot (D) endotoxin
Ans: D
26. The end product of the complement system is
(A) properdin (B) cascade reaction (C) membrane attack complex (D) complement factor C9
Ans: C
27. The “one gene – one enzyme” hypothesis was proposed on the basis of work with
(A) Neurospora crassa (B) Drosophila melanogaster (C) Escherichia coli (D) Bacteriophage lambda
Ans: A
28. A vaccine that contains only antigenic protein of viruses is called
(A) acellular (B) recombinant (C) subunit (D) attenuated
Ans: C
29. The cell that secretes antibodies are
(A) T cell (B) macrophage (C) plasma cell (D) monocyte
Ans: C
30. The purpose of an adjuvant in a vaccine is
(A) to kill the microbe (B) to suppress allergic reactions
(C) to enhance the immunological response to the antigen (D) to prevent antigen from proteases
Ans: C
31. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
(A) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction (B) acute contact dermatitis (C) autoimmune reaction (D) eczema
Ans: A
32. The western blot test can be used to identify
(A) unknown antibodies and antigens (B) unknown phospholipids (C) specific DNA (D) specific RNA
Ans: A
33. Dermatophytes are fungi that infect the epidermal tissue by invading and attacking
(A) collagen (B) keratin (C) fibroblasts (D) sebaceous glands
Ans: B
34. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD) is caused by
(A) arbovirus (B) protozoan (C) prion (D) bacterium
Ans: C
35. A common reservoir for rabies virus is
(A) pigeons (B) humans (C) raccoons (D) mosquitoes
Ans: C
36. Zika Virus disease is spread through
(A) Mosquito (B) Termite (C) Tse tse fly (D) Dragon fly
Ans: A
37. The plague bacterium Yersinia pestis is transmitted mainly by
(A) dogs (B) mosquitoes (C) fleas (D) birds
Ans: C
38. The common stain used in identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
(A) Gram stain (B) acid-fast stain (C) negative stain (D) spore stain
Ans: B
39. Gastric ulcers are caused by
(A) Treponema vincentii (B) Prevotella intermedia (C) Helicobacter pylori (D) Vibrio cholera
Ans: C
40. Syphilis is caused by
(A) Treponema palladium (B) Neisseria gonorrhea (C) Trichomonas vaginalis (D) Haemophilus influenza
Ans: A
41. The most accurate indicator of faecal contamination is
(A) Enterobacter (B) Thiobacillus (C) Staphylococcus (D) Escherichia
Ans: D
42. The dried, pre-sprouted barley grain is soaked to activate enzymes in beer manufacture is called
(A) hops (B) malt (C) wort (D) mash
Ans: B
43. Secondary metabolites such as antibiotics are produced by microbes during which growth phase
(A) lag (B) exponential (C) stationary (D) death
Ans: C
44. Lysozyme was discovered by
(A) Waksman (B) Ehrlich (C) Watson (D) Fleming
Ans: D
45. More than 80% of the known antibiotics are produced by
(A) Firmicutes (B) Actinobacteria (C) Halobacteria (D) Cyanobacteria
Ans: B
46. How many times a carbonated drink of pH 3.0 will be more acidic than distilled water?
(A) 4 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 10,000
Ans: D
47. If E. coli cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P, the radiolabel would be found in all except
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) ATP (D) proteins
Ans: D
48. The magnification of a microscope when observed through the 15x ocular and high power 45x objective is
(A) 1500 (B) 150 (C) 675 (D) 60
Ans: C
49. If Bacillus subtilis cells are stained with malachite green with heat and then counterstained with safranin, the green structures found under microscope are
(A) cell walls (B) endospores (C) flagella (D) capsule
Ans: B
50. In genetics, amber, ochre and opal are
(A) Types of mutations (B) Recombination units (C) Names of stop codons (D) Names of phages
Ans: C
51. An amino acid whose R group can form cyclic structure is
(A) Alanine (B) Arginine (C) Glutamine (D) Proline
Ans: D
52. Which form of plasmid DNA runs quickest in an agarose gel?
(A) Open circle (B) Linear (C) Nicked circle (D) Supercoiled
Ans: D
53. FACS analysis can be used for separating
(A) Cells from different stages of the cell cycle (B) Different types of T lymohocytes (C) Cells of different size (D) All of the above
Ans: D
54. Microarray analysis is used for analysis of
(A) Transcriptome (B) Proteome (C) Interactome (D) Metabolome
Ans: A
55. Which of the following cloning vectors accommodates the largest size DNA insert?
(A) Plasmid (B) Phagemid (C) Cosmid (D) YAC
Ans: D
56. Codon usage in different organisms is determined by
(A) The size of the genome (B) The G+C content of the genome
(C) The number of genes in a genonme (D) The gene density in the genome
Ans: B
57. With 20 amino acids the possible number of different tripeptides with leucine at the C-terminal are
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 400 (D) 8000
Ans: C
58. Bacterial growth yield is biomass produced
(A) In a specified time (B) Per mass of substrate consumed
(C) At the end of fermentation (D) Per litre of the fermentation broth
Ans: B
59. An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant cell density is called a
(A) Manostat (B) Chemostat (C) Turbidostat (D) Culturostat
Ans: C
60. Which of the following is the most commonly used multiple sequence alignment tool?
(A) FASTA (B) PDB (C) CLUSTAL-W (D) KEGG
Ans: C
61. The main function of the centrosome is
(A) Protein secretion (B) Osmoregulation (C) Chromosome segregation (D) Cell migration
Ans: C
62. Which of the following is NOT a source of stem cells?
(A) Certain adult tissues (B) Umbilical cord blood (C) Early embryos (D) Sperms and eggs
Ans: D
63. An HIV test that DOES NOT monitor viral load is
(A) Reverse transcriptase assay (B) CD4 lymphocyte count (C) HIV RNA qPCR (D) HIV p24 antigen testing
Ans: B
64. Sabouraud’s agar contains
(A) Starch (B) Sucrose (C) Dextrose (D) Gelatin
Ans: C
65. Acid fast staining technique used to stain Mycobacterium tuberculosis uses
(A) Giemsa (B) Carbol fuchsin (C) Toluidine blue (D) Lugols iodine
Ans: B
66. Animal viruses can be cultivated on all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Mueller-Hinton medium (B) Embryonated hen’s egg (C) Live animals (D) Tissue culture
Ans: A
67. Oral Polio vaccine contains
(A) Live attenuated virus (B) Inactivated (killed) virus (C) Live virulent virus at very low titre (D) Incomplete virus
Ans: A
68. Positive complement fixation test results in
(A) Lysis of RBCs (B) Agglutination of RBCs (C) Prevention of lysis of RBCs (D) Prevention of hemagglutination ‘
Ans: C
69. In ELISA the enzyme is attached to
(A) The microtiter plate (B) The antigen (C) Primary antibody (D) Secondary antibody
Ans: D
70. Household bleach disinfectant contains
(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Formaldehyde (C) Hypochlorite (D) Phenol
Ans: C
71. Dolipore septa and clamp connections are found in
(A) Aspergillus niger (B) Agaricus bisporus (C) Absidia corymbifera (D) Acremonium alabamensis
Ans: B
72. A bacterium used in the transfer of genes into plant cells is
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) Allorhizobium undicola (C) Azotobacter vinelandii (D) Azospirillum brazilense
Ans: A
73. Archaeal cell walls contain
(A) murein (B) pseudomurein (C) petidoglycan (D) chitin
Ans: B
74. In cellulose, D-glucose units are linked by
(A) α-1,4- glycosidic linkage (B) β-1,4- glycosidic linkage (C) α -1,3- glycosidic linkage (D) α -1,6-glycosidic linkage
Ans: B
75. The source of Taq DNA polymerase is Thermus aquaticus that belong to
(A) Archaea (B) Bacteria
(C) Actinobacteria (D) Firmicutes
Ans: B
76. The most important region in the atmosphere for microbial dispersal is
(A) stratosphere (B) troposphere (C) ionosphere (D) strato-ionosphere
Ans: B
77. Raffinose is a trisaccharide made of
(A) glucose, fructose and galactose (B) fructose, fructose, glucose
(C) fructose, glucose, glucose (D) galactose, glucose, fructose
Ans: D
78. When one mole of glucose is metabolized through anaerobic metabolism, moles of ATP formed are
(A) 36-38 (B) 16-18 (C) 1-2 (D) 24-36
Ans: C
79. Lignin is made of
(A) sugar units (B) phenylpropanoid units (C) amino sugar units (D) benzene units
Ans: B
80. Paper is made of
(A) hemicellulose (B) lignin (C) cellulose (D) hemicellulose and lignin
Ans: C
81. Thermophiles are found in
(A) bacteria only (B) archaea only (C) bacteria and archaea only (D) prokaryotes as well as eucaryotes
Ans: D
82. The enzyme β-galactosidase hydrolyzes
(A) lactose to glucose and galactose (B) sucrose to glucose and fructose
(C) maltose to two moles of glucose (D) cellobiose to two moles of glucose
Ans: A
83. The enzyme used in the manufacture of cheese for milk coagulation is
(A) neutral protease (B) acidic protease (C) alkaline protease (D) metalloprotease
Ans: B
84. The first recombinant therapeutic protein commercialized was
(A) interferon (B) streptokinase (C) somatostatin (D) insulin
Ans: D
85. An example of aminoglycoside antibiotic is
(A) streptomycin (B) penicillin (C) amphoterecin (D) rifampicin
Ans: A
86. The microbes found in the atmosphere are
(A) autochthonous (B) allochthonous (C) allochthonous as well as autochthonous (D) neither allochthonous nor allochthnous
Ans: B
87. Thermal vents are found in
(A) lakes (B) rivers (C) oceans (D) streams
Ans: C
88. An example of bacterium that displays Chinese letter like arrangement of cells is
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) Corynebacterium diptheriae (D) Bacillus subtilis
Ans: C
89. Magnetotaxis in certain bacteria is due to the presence of
(A) Manganese granules (B) Magnesium granules (C) Magnetite particles (D) polyphosphate granules
Ans: C
90. Penicillin is not effective against
(A) Bacillus cereus (B) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Mycoplama genitalisAns: D
91. Pichia pastoris belongs to
(A) Basidiomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Chytridiomycetes (D) Zygomycetes
Ans: B
92. Root-inducing plasmid (Ri-plasmid) is found in
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) A. rhizogenes (C) A. atlanticum (D) A. stellatum
Ans: B
93. The criteria used to place organisms into the kingdom Fungi is
(A) photosynthesis, possess a cell wall (B) unicellular, possess cell wall, eukaryotic
(C) unicellular, lacking cell wall, eukaryotic (D) absorptive, possess cell wall, eukaryotic
Ans: D
94. The most commonly used substrate for solid state fermentation is
(A) wheat straw (B) rice straw (C) corn cobs (D) wheat bran
Ans: D
95. The dirt blasters in detergents refer to
(A) enzymes such as alkaline protease (B) builders that act as water softeners (C) sequestering agents (D) bleaches
Ans: A
96. The most common edible button mushroom is
(A) Marchella deliciosa (B) Tuber melanosporum (C) Pleurotus ostreatus (D) Agaricus bisporus
Ans: D
97. The typhoid causing bacterium Salmonella typhi is spread through
(A) Water and food (B) air (C) soil (D) skin
Ans: A
98. Lactobacillus plantarum is
(A) gram-positive (B) gram-negative (C) gram variable (D) gram insensitive
Ans: A
99. The wilt of pigeon pea is caused by
(A) Fusarium graminearum (B) F. udum (C) F. oxysporum (D) F. culmorum
Ans: B
100. The exopolysaccharide xanthan gum is manufactured using
(A) Xanthomonas maltophila (B) X. oryzae (C) X. vasicola (D) X. campestris
Ans: D
(A) Alanine (B) Arginine (C) Glutamine (D) Proline
Ans: D
52. Which form of plasmid DNA runs quickest in an agarose gel?
(A) Open circle (B) Linear (C) Nicked circle (D) Supercoiled
Ans: D
53. FACS analysis can be used for separating
(A) Cells from different stages of the cell cycle (B) Different types of T lymohocytes (C) Cells of different size (D) All of the above
Ans: D
54. Microarray analysis is used for analysis of
(A) Transcriptome (B) Proteome (C) Interactome (D) Metabolome
Ans: A
55. Which of the following cloning vectors accommodates the largest size DNA insert?
(A) Plasmid (B) Phagemid (C) Cosmid (D) YAC
Ans: D
56. Codon usage in different organisms is determined by
(A) The size of the genome (B) The G+C content of the genome
(C) The number of genes in a genonme (D) The gene density in the genome
Ans: B
57. With 20 amino acids the possible number of different tripeptides with leucine at the C-terminal are
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 400 (D) 8000
Ans: C
58. Bacterial growth yield is biomass produced
(A) In a specified time (B) Per mass of substrate consumed
(C) At the end of fermentation (D) Per litre of the fermentation broth
Ans: B
59. An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant cell density is called a
(A) Manostat (B) Chemostat (C) Turbidostat (D) Culturostat
Ans: C
60. Which of the following is the most commonly used multiple sequence alignment tool?
(A) FASTA (B) PDB (C) CLUSTAL-W (D) KEGG
Ans: C
61. The main function of the centrosome is
(A) Protein secretion (B) Osmoregulation (C) Chromosome segregation (D) Cell migration
Ans: C
62. Which of the following is NOT a source of stem cells?
(A) Certain adult tissues (B) Umbilical cord blood (C) Early embryos (D) Sperms and eggs
Ans: D
63. An HIV test that DOES NOT monitor viral load is
(A) Reverse transcriptase assay (B) CD4 lymphocyte count (C) HIV RNA qPCR (D) HIV p24 antigen testing
Ans: B
64. Sabouraud’s agar contains
(A) Starch (B) Sucrose (C) Dextrose (D) Gelatin
Ans: C
65. Acid fast staining technique used to stain Mycobacterium tuberculosis uses
(A) Giemsa (B) Carbol fuchsin (C) Toluidine blue (D) Lugols iodine
Ans: B
66. Animal viruses can be cultivated on all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Mueller-Hinton medium (B) Embryonated hen’s egg (C) Live animals (D) Tissue culture
Ans: A
67. Oral Polio vaccine contains
(A) Live attenuated virus (B) Inactivated (killed) virus (C) Live virulent virus at very low titre (D) Incomplete virus
Ans: A
68. Positive complement fixation test results in
(A) Lysis of RBCs (B) Agglutination of RBCs (C) Prevention of lysis of RBCs (D) Prevention of hemagglutination ‘
Ans: C
69. In ELISA the enzyme is attached to
(A) The microtiter plate (B) The antigen (C) Primary antibody (D) Secondary antibody
Ans: D
70. Household bleach disinfectant contains
(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Formaldehyde (C) Hypochlorite (D) Phenol
Ans: C
71. Dolipore septa and clamp connections are found in
(A) Aspergillus niger (B) Agaricus bisporus (C) Absidia corymbifera (D) Acremonium alabamensis
Ans: B
72. A bacterium used in the transfer of genes into plant cells is
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) Allorhizobium undicola (C) Azotobacter vinelandii (D) Azospirillum brazilense
Ans: A
73. Archaeal cell walls contain
(A) murein (B) pseudomurein (C) petidoglycan (D) chitin
Ans: B
74. In cellulose, D-glucose units are linked by
(A) α-1,4- glycosidic linkage (B) β-1,4- glycosidic linkage (C) α -1,3- glycosidic linkage (D) α -1,6-glycosidic linkage
Ans: B
75. The source of Taq DNA polymerase is Thermus aquaticus that belong to
(A) Archaea (B) Bacteria
(C) Actinobacteria (D) Firmicutes
Ans: B
76. The most important region in the atmosphere for microbial dispersal is
(A) stratosphere (B) troposphere (C) ionosphere (D) strato-ionosphere
Ans: B
77. Raffinose is a trisaccharide made of
(A) glucose, fructose and galactose (B) fructose, fructose, glucose
(C) fructose, glucose, glucose (D) galactose, glucose, fructose
Ans: D
78. When one mole of glucose is metabolized through anaerobic metabolism, moles of ATP formed are
(A) 36-38 (B) 16-18 (C) 1-2 (D) 24-36
Ans: C
79. Lignin is made of
(A) sugar units (B) phenylpropanoid units (C) amino sugar units (D) benzene units
Ans: B
80. Paper is made of
(A) hemicellulose (B) lignin (C) cellulose (D) hemicellulose and lignin
Ans: C
81. Thermophiles are found in
(A) bacteria only (B) archaea only (C) bacteria and archaea only (D) prokaryotes as well as eucaryotes
Ans: D
82. The enzyme β-galactosidase hydrolyzes
(A) lactose to glucose and galactose (B) sucrose to glucose and fructose
(C) maltose to two moles of glucose (D) cellobiose to two moles of glucose
Ans: A
83. The enzyme used in the manufacture of cheese for milk coagulation is
(A) neutral protease (B) acidic protease (C) alkaline protease (D) metalloprotease
Ans: B
84. The first recombinant therapeutic protein commercialized was
(A) interferon (B) streptokinase (C) somatostatin (D) insulin
Ans: D
85. An example of aminoglycoside antibiotic is
(A) streptomycin (B) penicillin (C) amphoterecin (D) rifampicin
Ans: A
86. The microbes found in the atmosphere are
(A) autochthonous (B) allochthonous (C) allochthonous as well as autochthonous (D) neither allochthonous nor allochthnous
Ans: B
87. Thermal vents are found in
(A) lakes (B) rivers (C) oceans (D) streams
Ans: C
88. An example of bacterium that displays Chinese letter like arrangement of cells is
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) Corynebacterium diptheriae (D) Bacillus subtilis
Ans: C
89. Magnetotaxis in certain bacteria is due to the presence of
(A) Manganese granules (B) Magnesium granules (C) Magnetite particles (D) polyphosphate granules
Ans: C
90. Penicillin is not effective against
(A) Bacillus cereus (B) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Mycoplama genitalisAns: D
91. Pichia pastoris belongs to
(A) Basidiomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Chytridiomycetes (D) Zygomycetes
Ans: B
92. Root-inducing plasmid (Ri-plasmid) is found in
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) A. rhizogenes (C) A. atlanticum (D) A. stellatum
Ans: B
93. The criteria used to place organisms into the kingdom Fungi is
(A) photosynthesis, possess a cell wall (B) unicellular, possess cell wall, eukaryotic
(C) unicellular, lacking cell wall, eukaryotic (D) absorptive, possess cell wall, eukaryotic
Ans: D
94. The most commonly used substrate for solid state fermentation is
(A) wheat straw (B) rice straw (C) corn cobs (D) wheat bran
Ans: D
95. The dirt blasters in detergents refer to
(A) enzymes such as alkaline protease (B) builders that act as water softeners (C) sequestering agents (D) bleaches
Ans: A
96. The most common edible button mushroom is
(A) Marchella deliciosa (B) Tuber melanosporum (C) Pleurotus ostreatus (D) Agaricus bisporus
Ans: D
97. The typhoid causing bacterium Salmonella typhi is spread through
(A) Water and food (B) air (C) soil (D) skin
Ans: A
98. Lactobacillus plantarum is
(A) gram-positive (B) gram-negative (C) gram variable (D) gram insensitive
Ans: A
99. The wilt of pigeon pea is caused by
(A) Fusarium graminearum (B) F. udum (C) F. oxysporum (D) F. culmorum
Ans: B
100. The exopolysaccharide xanthan gum is manufactured using
(A) Xanthomonas maltophila (B) X. oryzae (C) X. vasicola (D) X. campestris
Ans: D