MICROBIOLOGY- MEDICAL EDUCATION- PAGE 1
MICROBIOLOGY- MEDICAL EDUCATION MCQ
1) Which type of the following biological vectors is responsible for transmission of malarial parasite-
A) Cyclo-developmental
B) Propagative
C) Transovarial
D) Cyclo-propagative
Ans: 4
2) Which of the parasites below is NOT having any intermediate host-
A) Hymenolepis diminuita
B) Clonorchis sinensis
C) Necator americanus
D) Loa loa
Ans: 3
3) Which of the following parasite DOES NOT belong to the class Coccidia-
A) Cryptosporidium
B) Isospora
C) Babesia
D) Cyclospora
Ans: 3
4) Which of the following is NOT correct-
A) E. histolytica can be cultured on Boeck & Drbohlav’s diphasic medium
B) T. vaginalis can be cultured on Trussell & Johnson’s medium / CPLM
C) L. donovani can be cultured on Hockmeyer’s medium
D) T. cruzi can be cultured on Weinman’s medium
Ans: 4
5) DumDum fever is the name given to-
A) Visceral leishmaniasis
B) New world leishmaniasis
C) South American trypanosomiasis
D) East African sleeping sickness
Ans: 1
6) Montenegro test is used to diagnose-
A) Kala azar
B) Ecchinococcosis
C) Chagas disease
D) Toxoplasmosis
Ans: 1
7) Which of the following organisms can infect and multiply inside Protozoa-
A) Mycobacterium bovis
B) Mycobacterium avium
C) Mycobacterium xenopi
D) Mycobacterium simiae
Ans: 2
8) Oocysts of which of the following parasites are infective when passed in the faeces-
A) Cyclospora cayetenensis
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Isospora bellii
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
9) Fugitive or Calabar swellings are seen in infection with-
A) Onchocerca volvulus
B) Wuchereria bancrofti
C) Loa loa
D) Brugia timori
Ans: 3
10) River blindness is the name given to disease caused by-
A) Loa loa
B) Onchocerca volvulus
C) Toxplasma gondii
D) Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
Ans: 2
11) Operculated eggs are seen in the following, EXCEPT-
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Schistosoma japonicum
C) Clonorchis sinensis
D) Diphyllobothrium latum
Ans: 2
12) Which species of fungus Microsporum has characteristic two celled macroconidia-
A) Microsporum gypseum
B) Microsporum audounii
C) Microsporum canis
D) Microsporum nanum
Ans: 4
13) Rose gardner’s disease is caused by-
A) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B) Sporothrix schenkii
C) Penicillium marneffei
D) Coccidioides immitis
Ans: 2
14) Which Candida species is known to produce ‘pseudo-germ tube’-
A) C. dubliniensis
B) C. tropicalis
C) C. albicans
D) C. krusei
Ans: 2
15) Which of the following fungus is NOT forming ‘sclerotic bodies’-
A) Exophiala
B) Phialophora
C) Fonsecaea
D) Cladosporium
Ans: 1
16) 16- Which of the following dermatophyte is giving a positive hair perforation test-
A) Trichophyton tonsurans
B) Trichophyton schoenleinii
C) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D) Trichophyton verrucosum
Ans: 3
17) Which of the following is NOT causing eumycotic mycetoma-
A) Pseudoallescheria boydii
B) Exophiala jeanselmei
C) Acremonium kifience
D) Actinomadura
Ans: 4
18) Dichotomously branching septate hyphae are characteristically seen in-
A) Aspergillus spp
B) Rhizopus spp
C) Mucor spp
D) Absidia spp
Ans: 1
19) ‘Spaghetti & meat balls’ appearance of fungal elements in 10% KOH are characteristics of-
A) Hansenula anomala
B) Saccharomyces cervisiae
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Exophiala werneckii
Ans: 3
20) Which of the following agent is a fungus-
A) Pneumocystis jeroveci
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Eikenella corrodens
D) Ehrlichia chaffeinsis
Ans: 1
21) ‘Hulle cells’ are the characteristic of-
A) Aspergillus fumigates
B) Aspergillus nidulans
C) Aspergillus terreus
D) Aspergillus flavus
Ans: 2
22) In a case of meningitis a normal glucose level in C.S.F. suggests-
A) Bacterial etiology
B) Mycobacterial etiology
C) Viral etiology
D) Fungal etiology
Ans: 3
23) Which of the following is NOT true about Staphylococcus saprophyticus-
A) Commonly causes UTI in young, sexually active, young females,
B) It is sensitive to Novobiocin
C) It is coagulase negative
D) It is modified oxidase test negative
Ans: 2
24) Griffith’s serotyping of β-hemolytic streptococci is based on-
A) Cell wall carbohydrate C antigen
B) Cell wall M protein
C) Cell wall peptidoglycan
D) Cell wall murein
Ans: 2
25) Which of the following is NOT true of B.anthracis-
A) It produces Medusa head colony
B) It gives positive M’Fadyean’s reaction
C) It is used as an agent of bioterrorism
D) It produces a potential endotoxin
Ans: 4
26) Spores of which species of Bacillus is used as a biological control in autoclaves-
A) B. megaterium
B) B. thuringiensis
C) B. stearothermophilus
D) B. anthrasis
Ans: 3
27) Which clostridial species has subterminal endospores-
A) C. tetani
B) C. tertium
C) C. septicum
D) C. ramosum
Ans: 3
28) A reverse CAMP test is positive in-
A) C. tetani
B) C. perfringens
C) C. difficile
D) C. novyi
Ans: 2
29) Causative agent of granuloma inguinale is-
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
C) Mycoplasma homonis
D) Klebsiella granulomatis
Ans: 4
30) Pseudohemoptysis is due to-
A) Pyomelanin
B) Diphthericin
C) Prodigiosin
D) Fumonisin
Ans: 3
31) Which of the following specimen is NOT suitable for anaerobic culture-
A) Blood
B) Culdocentesis aspirate
C) Throat swab
D) Peritoneal fluid
Ans: 3
32) Which of the following is NOT a constituent of bacterial cell wall-
A) N-acetyl muramic acid
B) N-acetyl glucosamine
C) N-Acetyl-L-cysteine
D) Teichoic acid
Ans: 3
33) Which of the following is NOT true-
A) Transposons are extrachromosomal genetic elements
B) Transposons are known as jumping genes
C) Transposons can transfer genes of chromosomes
D) Like plasmids they exist independently and are self replicating
Ans: 4
34) Non-specific urethritis may be caused due to the following, EXCEPT
A) Ureplasma urealyticum
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Candida albicans
D) Actinobacillus hominis
Ans: 4
35) Which of the following is NOT true of Listeria monocytogenes-
A) It does not survive inside phagocytes
B) It gives a positive Anton’s test
C) It has tumbling motility at 250C
D) It gives a positive CAMP test
Ans: 1
36) Which of the following is TRUE of the Corynebacterium diphtheriae-
A) It produces diphtheria toxin because of λ phage
B) Toxin production is influenced by Mg++ concentration in the medium
C) Toxin mainly affects lungs and kidneys
D) Toxigenicity can be demonstrated in tissue culture
Ans: 4
37) Culture of anaerobic organisms can be done by all ,EXCEPT-
A) Gas-Pak
B) Candle jar
C) McIntosh & Fildes jar
D) Thioglycollate broth
Ans: 2
38) Which of the following is NOT true of the EnteroHaemorrhgic E.Coli(EHEC)-
A) The most common serotype is O157: H7
B) It can cause Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
C) It ferments Sorbitol sugar in the medium
D) It produces toxin which is toxic to HeLa cell lines
Ans: 3
39) Shigellosis includes all of the following, EXCEPT-
A) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
B) Gay-bowel syndrome
C) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
D) Intussusception of bowel
Ans: 3
40) According to current W.H.O. classification of genus Salmonella, there are mainly two species-
A) S. enterica & S. arizonae
B) S. arizonae & S. enteritidis
C) S. bongori & S. enterica
D) S. bongori & S. typhi
Ans: 3
41) Gram stained smear of Vibrios in mucus flakes of stool specimen resembles-
A) School of fish appearance
B) Fish in stream appearance
C) Sea-gul appearance
D) String of pearls appearance
Ans: 2
42) Which of the following organisms is responsible for Brazillian Purpuric Fever(BPF)-
A) Hemophilus hemolyticus
B) Hemophilus aphrophilus
C) Hemophilus aegyptius
D) Hemophilus parainfluenzae
Ans: 3
43) Which of the organisms below does NOT liquefy gelatin-
A) Morganella morganii
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Proteus vulgaris
D) Staph.aureus
Ans: 1
44) Which one of the following are NOT related to each other-
A) Nagler’s reaction & Clostridium perfringens
B) Nissl’s bodies & Polio virus
C) Tunica reaction & Rickettsia prowazekii
D) Rat bite fever & Streptobacillus moniliformis
Ans: 3
45) Which of the following is NOT commonly seen in HIV infected patients-
A) Bacillary angiomatosis
B) Generalised Strongyloidiasis
C) Cryptosporidiosis
D) Leptospirosis
Ans: 4
46) Which of the following organisms is NOT associated with bloody diarrhea-
A) Shigella dysenteriae
B) Campylobacter fetus
C) Clostridium difficile
D) B.anthracis
Ans: 2
47) The schedule of post exposure active anti Rabies vaccination is-
A) 0,3,7,14 and 30 day optional
B) 0,7,14,30 and 90 day optional
C) 0,3,7,14,30 and 90 day optional
D) 0,7,14 and 30 day optional
Ans: 3
48) Which of the following is a member species of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex-
A) M.ulcerans
B) M.gordonae
C) M.africanum
D) M.kansasii
Ans: 3
49) Which of the following Mycobacterium is a causative agent of Buruli-ulcer -
A) M.avium intracellulare
B) M.xenopi
C) M.ulcerans
D) M.malmoense
Ans: 3
50) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Mycoplasma-
A) They belong to the class Mollicutes
B) They require sterols for their growth
C) Their cell wall contains diaminopimelic acid
D) Their colonies have “Fried egg” appearance
Ans: 3
A) Cyclo-developmental
B) Propagative
C) Transovarial
D) Cyclo-propagative
Ans: 4
2) Which of the parasites below is NOT having any intermediate host-
A) Hymenolepis diminuita
B) Clonorchis sinensis
C) Necator americanus
D) Loa loa
Ans: 3
3) Which of the following parasite DOES NOT belong to the class Coccidia-
A) Cryptosporidium
B) Isospora
C) Babesia
D) Cyclospora
Ans: 3
4) Which of the following is NOT correct-
A) E. histolytica can be cultured on Boeck & Drbohlav’s diphasic medium
B) T. vaginalis can be cultured on Trussell & Johnson’s medium / CPLM
C) L. donovani can be cultured on Hockmeyer’s medium
D) T. cruzi can be cultured on Weinman’s medium
Ans: 4
5) DumDum fever is the name given to-
A) Visceral leishmaniasis
B) New world leishmaniasis
C) South American trypanosomiasis
D) East African sleeping sickness
Ans: 1
6) Montenegro test is used to diagnose-
A) Kala azar
B) Ecchinococcosis
C) Chagas disease
D) Toxoplasmosis
Ans: 1
7) Which of the following organisms can infect and multiply inside Protozoa-
A) Mycobacterium bovis
B) Mycobacterium avium
C) Mycobacterium xenopi
D) Mycobacterium simiae
Ans: 2
8) Oocysts of which of the following parasites are infective when passed in the faeces-
A) Cyclospora cayetenensis
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Isospora bellii
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
9) Fugitive or Calabar swellings are seen in infection with-
A) Onchocerca volvulus
B) Wuchereria bancrofti
C) Loa loa
D) Brugia timori
Ans: 3
10) River blindness is the name given to disease caused by-
A) Loa loa
B) Onchocerca volvulus
C) Toxplasma gondii
D) Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
Ans: 2
11) Operculated eggs are seen in the following, EXCEPT-
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Schistosoma japonicum
C) Clonorchis sinensis
D) Diphyllobothrium latum
Ans: 2
12) Which species of fungus Microsporum has characteristic two celled macroconidia-
A) Microsporum gypseum
B) Microsporum audounii
C) Microsporum canis
D) Microsporum nanum
Ans: 4
13) Rose gardner’s disease is caused by-
A) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B) Sporothrix schenkii
C) Penicillium marneffei
D) Coccidioides immitis
Ans: 2
14) Which Candida species is known to produce ‘pseudo-germ tube’-
A) C. dubliniensis
B) C. tropicalis
C) C. albicans
D) C. krusei
Ans: 2
15) Which of the following fungus is NOT forming ‘sclerotic bodies’-
A) Exophiala
B) Phialophora
C) Fonsecaea
D) Cladosporium
Ans: 1
16) 16- Which of the following dermatophyte is giving a positive hair perforation test-
A) Trichophyton tonsurans
B) Trichophyton schoenleinii
C) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D) Trichophyton verrucosum
Ans: 3
17) Which of the following is NOT causing eumycotic mycetoma-
A) Pseudoallescheria boydii
B) Exophiala jeanselmei
C) Acremonium kifience
D) Actinomadura
Ans: 4
18) Dichotomously branching septate hyphae are characteristically seen in-
A) Aspergillus spp
B) Rhizopus spp
C) Mucor spp
D) Absidia spp
Ans: 1
19) ‘Spaghetti & meat balls’ appearance of fungal elements in 10% KOH are characteristics of-
A) Hansenula anomala
B) Saccharomyces cervisiae
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Exophiala werneckii
Ans: 3
20) Which of the following agent is a fungus-
A) Pneumocystis jeroveci
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Eikenella corrodens
D) Ehrlichia chaffeinsis
Ans: 1
21) ‘Hulle cells’ are the characteristic of-
A) Aspergillus fumigates
B) Aspergillus nidulans
C) Aspergillus terreus
D) Aspergillus flavus
Ans: 2
22) In a case of meningitis a normal glucose level in C.S.F. suggests-
A) Bacterial etiology
B) Mycobacterial etiology
C) Viral etiology
D) Fungal etiology
Ans: 3
23) Which of the following is NOT true about Staphylococcus saprophyticus-
A) Commonly causes UTI in young, sexually active, young females,
B) It is sensitive to Novobiocin
C) It is coagulase negative
D) It is modified oxidase test negative
Ans: 2
24) Griffith’s serotyping of β-hemolytic streptococci is based on-
A) Cell wall carbohydrate C antigen
B) Cell wall M protein
C) Cell wall peptidoglycan
D) Cell wall murein
Ans: 2
25) Which of the following is NOT true of B.anthracis-
A) It produces Medusa head colony
B) It gives positive M’Fadyean’s reaction
C) It is used as an agent of bioterrorism
D) It produces a potential endotoxin
Ans: 4
26) Spores of which species of Bacillus is used as a biological control in autoclaves-
A) B. megaterium
B) B. thuringiensis
C) B. stearothermophilus
D) B. anthrasis
Ans: 3
27) Which clostridial species has subterminal endospores-
A) C. tetani
B) C. tertium
C) C. septicum
D) C. ramosum
Ans: 3
28) A reverse CAMP test is positive in-
A) C. tetani
B) C. perfringens
C) C. difficile
D) C. novyi
Ans: 2
29) Causative agent of granuloma inguinale is-
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
C) Mycoplasma homonis
D) Klebsiella granulomatis
Ans: 4
30) Pseudohemoptysis is due to-
A) Pyomelanin
B) Diphthericin
C) Prodigiosin
D) Fumonisin
Ans: 3
31) Which of the following specimen is NOT suitable for anaerobic culture-
A) Blood
B) Culdocentesis aspirate
C) Throat swab
D) Peritoneal fluid
Ans: 3
32) Which of the following is NOT a constituent of bacterial cell wall-
A) N-acetyl muramic acid
B) N-acetyl glucosamine
C) N-Acetyl-L-cysteine
D) Teichoic acid
Ans: 3
33) Which of the following is NOT true-
A) Transposons are extrachromosomal genetic elements
B) Transposons are known as jumping genes
C) Transposons can transfer genes of chromosomes
D) Like plasmids they exist independently and are self replicating
Ans: 4
34) Non-specific urethritis may be caused due to the following, EXCEPT
A) Ureplasma urealyticum
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Candida albicans
D) Actinobacillus hominis
Ans: 4
35) Which of the following is NOT true of Listeria monocytogenes-
A) It does not survive inside phagocytes
B) It gives a positive Anton’s test
C) It has tumbling motility at 250C
D) It gives a positive CAMP test
Ans: 1
36) Which of the following is TRUE of the Corynebacterium diphtheriae-
A) It produces diphtheria toxin because of λ phage
B) Toxin production is influenced by Mg++ concentration in the medium
C) Toxin mainly affects lungs and kidneys
D) Toxigenicity can be demonstrated in tissue culture
Ans: 4
37) Culture of anaerobic organisms can be done by all ,EXCEPT-
A) Gas-Pak
B) Candle jar
C) McIntosh & Fildes jar
D) Thioglycollate broth
Ans: 2
38) Which of the following is NOT true of the EnteroHaemorrhgic E.Coli(EHEC)-
A) The most common serotype is O157: H7
B) It can cause Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
C) It ferments Sorbitol sugar in the medium
D) It produces toxin which is toxic to HeLa cell lines
Ans: 3
39) Shigellosis includes all of the following, EXCEPT-
A) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
B) Gay-bowel syndrome
C) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
D) Intussusception of bowel
Ans: 3
40) According to current W.H.O. classification of genus Salmonella, there are mainly two species-
A) S. enterica & S. arizonae
B) S. arizonae & S. enteritidis
C) S. bongori & S. enterica
D) S. bongori & S. typhi
Ans: 3
41) Gram stained smear of Vibrios in mucus flakes of stool specimen resembles-
A) School of fish appearance
B) Fish in stream appearance
C) Sea-gul appearance
D) String of pearls appearance
Ans: 2
42) Which of the following organisms is responsible for Brazillian Purpuric Fever(BPF)-
A) Hemophilus hemolyticus
B) Hemophilus aphrophilus
C) Hemophilus aegyptius
D) Hemophilus parainfluenzae
Ans: 3
43) Which of the organisms below does NOT liquefy gelatin-
A) Morganella morganii
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Proteus vulgaris
D) Staph.aureus
Ans: 1
44) Which one of the following are NOT related to each other-
A) Nagler’s reaction & Clostridium perfringens
B) Nissl’s bodies & Polio virus
C) Tunica reaction & Rickettsia prowazekii
D) Rat bite fever & Streptobacillus moniliformis
Ans: 3
45) Which of the following is NOT commonly seen in HIV infected patients-
A) Bacillary angiomatosis
B) Generalised Strongyloidiasis
C) Cryptosporidiosis
D) Leptospirosis
Ans: 4
46) Which of the following organisms is NOT associated with bloody diarrhea-
A) Shigella dysenteriae
B) Campylobacter fetus
C) Clostridium difficile
D) B.anthracis
Ans: 2
47) The schedule of post exposure active anti Rabies vaccination is-
A) 0,3,7,14 and 30 day optional
B) 0,7,14,30 and 90 day optional
C) 0,3,7,14,30 and 90 day optional
D) 0,7,14 and 30 day optional
Ans: 3
48) Which of the following is a member species of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex-
A) M.ulcerans
B) M.gordonae
C) M.africanum
D) M.kansasii
Ans: 3
49) Which of the following Mycobacterium is a causative agent of Buruli-ulcer -
A) M.avium intracellulare
B) M.xenopi
C) M.ulcerans
D) M.malmoense
Ans: 3
50) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Mycoplasma-
A) They belong to the class Mollicutes
B) They require sterols for their growth
C) Their cell wall contains diaminopimelic acid
D) Their colonies have “Fried egg” appearance
Ans: 3
51) Which of the following is NOT related to each other-
A) Ixodides tick and Babesiosis
B) Ixodides tick and Lyme disease
C) Ixodides tick and Endemic relapsing fever
D) Ixodides tick and Tularemia
Ans: 3
52) Which of the following is NOT true of Actinomyces-
A) These are strictly aerobic gram positive branching filaments
B) They produce sulphur granules
C) They cause Actinomycetoma
D) They are Non acid fast
Ans: 1
53) Which of the following is a high level disinfectant-
A) Phenol
B) Gluteraldehyde
C) Iodophors
D) Chlorhexidine
Ans: 2
54) Which of the following is correct-
A) Ebola virus is BSL 4 agent and requires Class III BSC to handle in the laboratory
B) Ebola virus is BSL 4 agent and requires Class II B3 BSC to handle in the laboratory
C) Ebola virus is BSL 3 agent and requires Class III BSC to handle in the laboratory
D) Ebola virus is BSL 1 agent and requires Class I BSC to handle in the laboratory
Ans: 1
55) Which of the following virus is NOT transmitted through blood-
A) CMV
B) HCV
C) BK virus
D) Parvovirus B19
Ans: 3
56) The maximum permissible bioload in an empty conventional operation theatre should be-
A) 10 bcp/m3
B) 35 bcp/m3
C) 50 bcp/m3
D) 100 bcp/m3
Ans: 2
57) In hospital settings air conditioning ducts and cooling towers can be a source of hospital acquired Infection due to-
A) Methicillin resistant Staph aureus
B) Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Aeromonas hydrophila
Ans: 3
58) The proper biomedical waste policy for disposal of Human anatomical and animal waste would be-
A) Segregation in red bag and deep burial
B) Segregation in yellow bag and incineration
C) Segregation in puncture proof container and microwaving
D) Segregation in blue bag and autoclaving
Ans: 2
59) Emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases are characterized by all, EXCEPT-
A) They have appeared for the first time or existed previously and presently increasing in incidence or Geographical range
B) They have developed resistance to drugs
C) They are the result of increasing change in ecosystem, deforestation
D) They are seldom of Zoonotic origin
Ans: 4
60) All of the following are vaccine preventable diseases (VP), EXCEPT-
A) Measles
B) Hepatitis B
C) Dengue
D) Pertussis
Ans: 3
61) Involution forms of bacteria are seen in-
A) Log phase of bacterial growth curve
B) Stationary phase of bacterial growth curve
C) Decline phase of bacterial growth curve
D) Lag phase of bacterial growth curve
Ans: 3
62) Which mechanism of drug resistance to Tetracyclines is exhibited by bacteria-
A) Active efflux of antibiotic
B) Altered target enzymes
C) Poor transport across membrane
D) Altered ribosomal targets
Ans: 1
63) By matching bacterial suspension with 0.5 McFarland turbidity standard corresponds to-
A) 0.5-1 X 10 5 cfu/ml
B) 1-2 X 10 8 cfu/ml
C) 2-3 X 10 8 cfu/ml
D) 1-2 X 10 5 cfu/ml
Ans: 2
64) The Electron microscope was developed by-
A) Wright 1903
B) Frederick W. Twort 1915
C) Ernst Ruska 1933
D) Frank Burnet 1957
Ans: 3
65) Which of the following is NOT true
A) Bollinger bodies are seen in measles virus infection
B) Negri bodies are seen in Rabies virus infection
C) Guarnieri bodies are seen in vaccinia virus infection
D) Cowdry type A bodies are seen in Yellow fever virus infection
Ans: 1
66) Owl’s eye inclusion bodies are seen in-
A) Tanapox virus
B) Epstein Barr virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Mumps virus
Ans: 3
67. Chemical nature of Exotoxin is
(A) Lipopolysaccharides (B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrate (D) None of the above
Ans: B
68. A mutation in DNA gyrase is likely to result in resistance to which one of the following antibiotics?
(A) Amphotericin B (B) Ciprofloxacin
(C) Penicillin (D) Rifampin
Ans: B
69. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin is most often caused by
(A) Alternation of the major target for the drug
(B) cell membrane impermeability
(C) decreased uptake of the antibiotic
(D) Synthesis of a potent Beta Lactamase
Ans: A
70. All are true about Coxiella burnetii except:
(A) obligate intracellular (B) causes Q fever
(C) extremely fastidious (D) killed by Holder’s method of pasteurization
Ans: D
71. Staphylococcal food poisoning usually manifests itself within how much time after ingestion of contaminated food ?
(A) 2-6 hours (B) 6-12 hours
(C) 12-24 hours (D) 24-48 hours
Ans: A
72. Reverse transcriptase is:
(A) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Ans: B
73. Multi drug resistance is spread by :
(A) Transformation (B) Transduction
(C) Mutation (D) Conjugation
Ans: D
74. Diagnosis of Typhoid fever in the second week is by
(A) Widal test (B) Urine culture
(C) Stool culture (D) Blood culture
Ans: A
75. According to national immunisation schedule which of the following is recommended for a child of 5-year of age.
(A) Pentavalent vaccine and vitamin A (B) DT booster
(C) DT,OPV and vitamin A (D) DPT booster and vitamin A
Ans: D
76. MMR vaccine is:
(A) a live attenuated vaccine (B) a killed vaccine
(C) a subunit vaccine (D) a synthetic peptide vaccine
Ans: A
77. Which of the following is associated with Clostridium tetani ?
(A) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (B) Toxic Shock Syndrome
(C) Lock jaw (D) Anaerobic myositis
Ans: C
78. Monoclonal antibodies are important tools in many aspects of life science research and diagnostics. What is a monoclonal antibody?
(A) An antibody made against a short peptide
(B) An antibody that can bind to many antigenic epitope
(C) An antibody produced by many clones of B-cells
(D) An antibody made by one clone of B-cells
Ans: D
79. Albert staining is performed to detect :
(A) Babes Ernst granules (B) Spores of Cl.tetani
(C) Treponema pallidum (D) Capsule of Pneumococcus
Ans: A
80. All of the following are Acid Fast organism EXCEPT
(A) M.tuberculosis (B) Actinomycetes
(C) Isospora belli (D) Nocardia
Ans: B
81. VDRL test is the example of
(A) Agglutination Reaction (B) Immunofluorescence
(C) Slide Flocculation Test (D) None of the above
Ans: C
82. Which of the following virus can cause cervical cancer?
(A) Human Papilloma virus (B) Herpes simplex Virus
(C) Epstein Barr virus (D) Norwalk virus
Ans: A
83. Which structural gene are present in genome of HIV – 1 and not in HIV – 2
(A) gag gene (B) env gene
(C) pol gene (D) vpu
Ans: D
84. Which of the following viral markers is / are positive in simple carrier of Hepatitis B ?
(A) HBsAg (B) HBeAg
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: A
85. The survival of Mycobacteria after ingestion by macrophages is attributed to:
(A) Bacterial inhibition of complement activation via the alternative pathway.
(B) Bacterial inhibition of phagolysosome formation and interference with endosomal acidification
(C) The poor immunogenicity of the cell wall glycolipids.
(D) The bacterium’s rapid escape from the endosome into the cytoplasm of infected cells.
Ans: B
86. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is
(A) Sporozoite (B) Gametocyte
(C) Merozoite (D) Hypnozoite
Ans: A
87. Who introduced methods of obtaining bacteria in pure culture using solid media?
(A) Robert Koch (B) Joseph Lister
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Edward Jenner
Ans: A
88. Which one of the following Bacteria is Cell wall deficient ?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Mycoplasma
(C) Salmonella typhi (D) Treponema pallidum
Ans: B
89. Obligate intracellular organism is :
(A) Mycoplasma (B) Chlamydia
(C) Crptococcus (D) Helicobacter
Ans: B
90. Which bacterial spores are used as Biological sterilization control during Autoclaving?
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Bacillus subtilis
Ans: B
91. Smith Noguchi’s media is used for:
(A) Salmonella (B) Klebsiella
(C) Spirochetes (D) Bacillus
Ans: C
92. Phenylalanine deaminase test is negative in
(A) Proteus vulgaris (B) Morganella
(C) Providentia sp. (D) Klebsiella sp.
Ans: D
93. All of the following are Non sense codons Except
(A) UAG (B) UGA
(C) UAA (D) AAG
Ans: D
94. The pre core mutants in Hepatitis B are characterized by notable absence of:
(A) HBV DNA (B) HBeAg
(C) HBcAg (D) Anti HBeAg
Ans: B
95. Paul Bunnel test is based on sharing of antigens between
(A) Sheep erythrocytes & Epstein barr virus
(B) Mycoplasma & Human Erythrocytes
(C) Rickettsial antigen & Proteus antigen
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
96. Presence of which immunoglobulin class in serum is a useful indicator for Diagnosis of Congenital infection ?
(A) Ig G (B) Ig M
(C) Ig A (D) Ig D
Ans: B
97:-Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with
A:-Plasmodium malariae
B:-Plasmodium ovale
C:-Plasmodium vivax
D:-Plasmodium falciparum
Ans: A
98:-All are true about super carriers except
A:-Highly infectious B:-High level of HBsAg, HBe Ag
C:-Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg D:-High level of HBV DNA, DNA polymerase
Ans: C
99:-Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis
A:-Brain B:-Lung C:-Spleen D:-Liver
Ans: D
100:-All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except
A:-Causes African histoplasmosis B:-Skin and bone involvement mainly
C:-Yeast cells size 7-15 µm D:-Yeast cell size 2-4 µm
Ans: D
A) Ixodides tick and Babesiosis
B) Ixodides tick and Lyme disease
C) Ixodides tick and Endemic relapsing fever
D) Ixodides tick and Tularemia
Ans: 3
52) Which of the following is NOT true of Actinomyces-
A) These are strictly aerobic gram positive branching filaments
B) They produce sulphur granules
C) They cause Actinomycetoma
D) They are Non acid fast
Ans: 1
53) Which of the following is a high level disinfectant-
A) Phenol
B) Gluteraldehyde
C) Iodophors
D) Chlorhexidine
Ans: 2
54) Which of the following is correct-
A) Ebola virus is BSL 4 agent and requires Class III BSC to handle in the laboratory
B) Ebola virus is BSL 4 agent and requires Class II B3 BSC to handle in the laboratory
C) Ebola virus is BSL 3 agent and requires Class III BSC to handle in the laboratory
D) Ebola virus is BSL 1 agent and requires Class I BSC to handle in the laboratory
Ans: 1
55) Which of the following virus is NOT transmitted through blood-
A) CMV
B) HCV
C) BK virus
D) Parvovirus B19
Ans: 3
56) The maximum permissible bioload in an empty conventional operation theatre should be-
A) 10 bcp/m3
B) 35 bcp/m3
C) 50 bcp/m3
D) 100 bcp/m3
Ans: 2
57) In hospital settings air conditioning ducts and cooling towers can be a source of hospital acquired Infection due to-
A) Methicillin resistant Staph aureus
B) Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Aeromonas hydrophila
Ans: 3
58) The proper biomedical waste policy for disposal of Human anatomical and animal waste would be-
A) Segregation in red bag and deep burial
B) Segregation in yellow bag and incineration
C) Segregation in puncture proof container and microwaving
D) Segregation in blue bag and autoclaving
Ans: 2
59) Emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases are characterized by all, EXCEPT-
A) They have appeared for the first time or existed previously and presently increasing in incidence or Geographical range
B) They have developed resistance to drugs
C) They are the result of increasing change in ecosystem, deforestation
D) They are seldom of Zoonotic origin
Ans: 4
60) All of the following are vaccine preventable diseases (VP), EXCEPT-
A) Measles
B) Hepatitis B
C) Dengue
D) Pertussis
Ans: 3
61) Involution forms of bacteria are seen in-
A) Log phase of bacterial growth curve
B) Stationary phase of bacterial growth curve
C) Decline phase of bacterial growth curve
D) Lag phase of bacterial growth curve
Ans: 3
62) Which mechanism of drug resistance to Tetracyclines is exhibited by bacteria-
A) Active efflux of antibiotic
B) Altered target enzymes
C) Poor transport across membrane
D) Altered ribosomal targets
Ans: 1
63) By matching bacterial suspension with 0.5 McFarland turbidity standard corresponds to-
A) 0.5-1 X 10 5 cfu/ml
B) 1-2 X 10 8 cfu/ml
C) 2-3 X 10 8 cfu/ml
D) 1-2 X 10 5 cfu/ml
Ans: 2
64) The Electron microscope was developed by-
A) Wright 1903
B) Frederick W. Twort 1915
C) Ernst Ruska 1933
D) Frank Burnet 1957
Ans: 3
65) Which of the following is NOT true
A) Bollinger bodies are seen in measles virus infection
B) Negri bodies are seen in Rabies virus infection
C) Guarnieri bodies are seen in vaccinia virus infection
D) Cowdry type A bodies are seen in Yellow fever virus infection
Ans: 1
66) Owl’s eye inclusion bodies are seen in-
A) Tanapox virus
B) Epstein Barr virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Mumps virus
Ans: 3
67. Chemical nature of Exotoxin is
(A) Lipopolysaccharides (B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrate (D) None of the above
Ans: B
68. A mutation in DNA gyrase is likely to result in resistance to which one of the following antibiotics?
(A) Amphotericin B (B) Ciprofloxacin
(C) Penicillin (D) Rifampin
Ans: B
69. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin is most often caused by
(A) Alternation of the major target for the drug
(B) cell membrane impermeability
(C) decreased uptake of the antibiotic
(D) Synthesis of a potent Beta Lactamase
Ans: A
70. All are true about Coxiella burnetii except:
(A) obligate intracellular (B) causes Q fever
(C) extremely fastidious (D) killed by Holder’s method of pasteurization
Ans: D
71. Staphylococcal food poisoning usually manifests itself within how much time after ingestion of contaminated food ?
(A) 2-6 hours (B) 6-12 hours
(C) 12-24 hours (D) 24-48 hours
Ans: A
72. Reverse transcriptase is:
(A) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Ans: B
73. Multi drug resistance is spread by :
(A) Transformation (B) Transduction
(C) Mutation (D) Conjugation
Ans: D
74. Diagnosis of Typhoid fever in the second week is by
(A) Widal test (B) Urine culture
(C) Stool culture (D) Blood culture
Ans: A
75. According to national immunisation schedule which of the following is recommended for a child of 5-year of age.
(A) Pentavalent vaccine and vitamin A (B) DT booster
(C) DT,OPV and vitamin A (D) DPT booster and vitamin A
Ans: D
76. MMR vaccine is:
(A) a live attenuated vaccine (B) a killed vaccine
(C) a subunit vaccine (D) a synthetic peptide vaccine
Ans: A
77. Which of the following is associated with Clostridium tetani ?
(A) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (B) Toxic Shock Syndrome
(C) Lock jaw (D) Anaerobic myositis
Ans: C
78. Monoclonal antibodies are important tools in many aspects of life science research and diagnostics. What is a monoclonal antibody?
(A) An antibody made against a short peptide
(B) An antibody that can bind to many antigenic epitope
(C) An antibody produced by many clones of B-cells
(D) An antibody made by one clone of B-cells
Ans: D
79. Albert staining is performed to detect :
(A) Babes Ernst granules (B) Spores of Cl.tetani
(C) Treponema pallidum (D) Capsule of Pneumococcus
Ans: A
80. All of the following are Acid Fast organism EXCEPT
(A) M.tuberculosis (B) Actinomycetes
(C) Isospora belli (D) Nocardia
Ans: B
81. VDRL test is the example of
(A) Agglutination Reaction (B) Immunofluorescence
(C) Slide Flocculation Test (D) None of the above
Ans: C
82. Which of the following virus can cause cervical cancer?
(A) Human Papilloma virus (B) Herpes simplex Virus
(C) Epstein Barr virus (D) Norwalk virus
Ans: A
83. Which structural gene are present in genome of HIV – 1 and not in HIV – 2
(A) gag gene (B) env gene
(C) pol gene (D) vpu
Ans: D
84. Which of the following viral markers is / are positive in simple carrier of Hepatitis B ?
(A) HBsAg (B) HBeAg
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: A
85. The survival of Mycobacteria after ingestion by macrophages is attributed to:
(A) Bacterial inhibition of complement activation via the alternative pathway.
(B) Bacterial inhibition of phagolysosome formation and interference with endosomal acidification
(C) The poor immunogenicity of the cell wall glycolipids.
(D) The bacterium’s rapid escape from the endosome into the cytoplasm of infected cells.
Ans: B
86. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is
(A) Sporozoite (B) Gametocyte
(C) Merozoite (D) Hypnozoite
Ans: A
87. Who introduced methods of obtaining bacteria in pure culture using solid media?
(A) Robert Koch (B) Joseph Lister
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Edward Jenner
Ans: A
88. Which one of the following Bacteria is Cell wall deficient ?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Mycoplasma
(C) Salmonella typhi (D) Treponema pallidum
Ans: B
89. Obligate intracellular organism is :
(A) Mycoplasma (B) Chlamydia
(C) Crptococcus (D) Helicobacter
Ans: B
90. Which bacterial spores are used as Biological sterilization control during Autoclaving?
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Bacillus subtilis
Ans: B
91. Smith Noguchi’s media is used for:
(A) Salmonella (B) Klebsiella
(C) Spirochetes (D) Bacillus
Ans: C
92. Phenylalanine deaminase test is negative in
(A) Proteus vulgaris (B) Morganella
(C) Providentia sp. (D) Klebsiella sp.
Ans: D
93. All of the following are Non sense codons Except
(A) UAG (B) UGA
(C) UAA (D) AAG
Ans: D
94. The pre core mutants in Hepatitis B are characterized by notable absence of:
(A) HBV DNA (B) HBeAg
(C) HBcAg (D) Anti HBeAg
Ans: B
95. Paul Bunnel test is based on sharing of antigens between
(A) Sheep erythrocytes & Epstein barr virus
(B) Mycoplasma & Human Erythrocytes
(C) Rickettsial antigen & Proteus antigen
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
96. Presence of which immunoglobulin class in serum is a useful indicator for Diagnosis of Congenital infection ?
(A) Ig G (B) Ig M
(C) Ig A (D) Ig D
Ans: B
97:-Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with
A:-Plasmodium malariae
B:-Plasmodium ovale
C:-Plasmodium vivax
D:-Plasmodium falciparum
Ans: A
98:-All are true about super carriers except
A:-Highly infectious B:-High level of HBsAg, HBe Ag
C:-Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg D:-High level of HBV DNA, DNA polymerase
Ans: C
99:-Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis
A:-Brain B:-Lung C:-Spleen D:-Liver
Ans: D
100:-All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except
A:-Causes African histoplasmosis B:-Skin and bone involvement mainly
C:-Yeast cells size 7-15 µm D:-Yeast cell size 2-4 µm
Ans: D