PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION- PAGE 3
UPSC Public Administration MCQs
1. Which of the following statements about Delivery Monitoring Unit in PMO is correct?
(A) It deals with the appointments to different posts in Central Government.
(B) It reviews Budget provisions.
(C) It examines security measures.
(D) It reviews and select programmes including MNREGA, NRHM, JNNURM, SSA, etc.
Ans: D
2. “Every person holding a civil post in British India holds it during the pleasure of His Majesty and may not be dismissed from the service by an authority lower in rank than the authority which appointed him.” It was provided for the first time by which of the following Acts?
(A) Government of India Act, 1858
(B) Indian Council Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: C
3. Which one of the following is not correct about the comparison between Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretary?
(i) Both are administrative heads of respective Governments.
(ii) Both are chief regulators and co-ordinators of their respective administration.
(iii) Both supervise the decisions and policies of respective Governments.
(iv) Both have Ministerial or Departmental responsibilities.
Select the correct answer from the given codes:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (iv)
Ans: D
4. Constitution of a high level panel comprising CAG, CVC and the Cabinet Secretary to ensure clean and accountable Government was suggested by
(A) Paul H. Appleby
(B) A.D. Gorwala
(C) Fifth Central Pay Commission
(D) Sixth Central Pay Commission
Ans: C
5. Which Article of the Constitution authorises Parliament to enact legislation on any subject in the State List?
(A) Article 200
(B) Article 247
(C) Article 249
(D) Article 250
Ans: C
6. Which of the following recommendation was not made by Second Administrative Reforms Commission relating to appointment of Chief Secretary in a State?
(A) Chief Secretary shall be appointed on the recommendation of a Collegium.
(B) The Collegium shall consist of nominee of the Chief Minister.
(C) The Leader of Opposition and incumbent Chief Secretary shall be consulted.
(D) The Government shall consult with the Governor.
Ans: D
7. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Ministries)
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) (i) Ministry of Labour
(b) Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (ii) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Border Road Organization (iii) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (iv) Ministry of Surface and National Highways
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: C
8. Arrange the following Committees on Civil Service Reforms in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Hota Committee
(ii) Kothari Committee
(iii) Yogendra Kumar Alagh Committee
(iv) Sathish Chandra Committee
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
Ans: C
9. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions was created in which of the following years?
(A) 1970
(B) 1973
(C) 1977
(D) 1985
Ans: D
10. Which one of the following is not the softwares developed for the improvement and simplification of the Accounting System of Central Government offices:
(A) Government Accounting Information System (GAINS)
(B) Controller’s Account (CONTACT)
(C) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance (IGAF)
(D) Integrated Multimodule Processor for Voucher Entries (IMPROVE)
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
(A) Technical Guide for Accounting and Financial reporting by urban local bodies – Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(B) Bangalore Agenda Task Force – Civic Organization
(C) Introduction of accrual based accounting in 7 cities of Gujarat – World Bank Financial Assistance
(D) JNNURM – Provision of job guarantee for the poor
Ans: D
12. Which of the following statements about the Task Force on Accounting and Budget Formats for ULBs (2002) is not correct?
(A) It was appointed by the CAG of India.
(B) It devised model budget formats along with accounting formats.
(C) It made recommendations on introduction of cost accounting and MIS in ULBs.
(D) It was appointed by the 11th Finance Commission.
Ans: D
13. “In view of the emergence of District as the key unit of field administration, there is no need to have an intermediate level of administration between State headquarters and the District.” This recommendation was made by
(A) Hanumanthaiah Committee
(B) Veerappa Moiley Committee
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(D) K. Santhanam Committee
Ans: B
14. Which of the following statements about the UPSC is not correct?
(A) The composition of the UPSC is determined by the President of India.
(B) Half of the members of the UPSC should be from those who have held office for at least 10 years under the Government.
(C) UPSC can also serve the needs of a State on the request of the Governor and with the consent of the President of India.
(D) The member of the UPSC can resign by addressing the resignation letter to the Chairman of the UPSC.
Ans: D
15. Which of the following is not the magisterial powers of a District Collector?
(A) Power to issue arms licences.
(B) Power to seek help of the military in grave situation.
(C) Transfer of the Deputy Superintendent of Police.
(D) Maintenance of Law and Order.
Ans: C
16. Assertion (A): Ideally, the question sequence should conform to the respondents’ way of thinking.
Reason (R): The questions of personal character need to be avoided as opening questions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
17. Who stated that “We cannot take a single step forward in an inquiry unless we begin with a suggested explanation or solution of the difficulty which originated it”?
(A) Lundberg
(B) Werkmeister
(C) Robert and Merton
(D) Cohen and Hegel
Ans: D
18. Which of the following principles were enumerated by R.A. Fisher as the principles of experimental research design?
(i) Principle of Local Control
(ii) Principle of Matching
(iii) Principle of Randomization
(iv) Principle of Replication
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
19. The statement “Knowledge is Foresight and Foresight is power” relates to
(A) Pure research
(B) Applied research
(C) An interplay between ‘Pure’ and ‘Applied’ research
(D) Empirical research
Ans: C
20. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Ministries)
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) (i) Ministry of Labour
(b)Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (ii) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Central Social Welfare Board (iii) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (iv) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: D
21. Which of the following Commission / Committee had recommended that there should be All India Services in the area of Education, Health, Judiciary and Engineering?
(A) M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations (2010)
(B) Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1988)
(C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission Report – Refurbishing of Personnel Administration (2008)
(D) The Committee on Civil Service Reforms (2004)
Ans: A
22. Assertion (A): The fundamental ethos of the employee-employer relationship is utilitarian and contractual.
Reason (R): Both employees and employers are tied into mutual exchange relations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
23. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in India was passed in which of the following years?
(A) 2003
(B) 2006
(C) 2009
(D) 2011
Ans: A
24. “Authority stems from the task being performed and from the situation” who among the following suggested this concept of authority?
(A) Herbert A. Simon
(B) Mary Parker Follett
(C) Chester I Barnard
(D) Max Weber
Ans: B
25. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Year of Establishment)
(a) National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention (i) 2008
(b) Performance Management Division (ii) 2004
(c) National Advisory Council (iii) 2009
(d) Council on Climate Change (iv) 1997
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: A
26. Assertion (A): The Central Social Welfare Board acts as a change maker with a humanitarian approach.
Reason (R): It facilitates networking of committed social workers for the empowerment of women and children.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
27. ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) or education for all’ is an outcome of which of the following Constitution Amendment in India?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 59th Amendment
(D) 86th Amendment
Ans: D
28. The midterm appraisal of NHRM in 2009 observed that
(A) there has been decline in health indicators.
(B) there has been a significant improvements in health indicators.
(C) no change is noticeable in it.
(D) the appraisal was not conducted.
Ans: B
29. Which one of the following is not an indicator of low level of social welfare?
(A) High rate of crime
(B) Unemployment
(C) Poverty
(D) Higher life expectancy
Ans: D
30. Primary Health Care Approach based on equity, access and social justice is a vital philosophy of social development and it represents:
(A) Area Development Approach
(B) Consumer Rights Approach
(C) Minimum Needs Programme Approach
(D) The Social Reform Approach
Ans: C
31. Social Development is an approach to
(i) increase per capita income
(ii) enhance the quality of life
(iii) respond to the problems of distorted development
(iv) deal with poverty related problem through a combination of economic and social measures
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of disinvestment?
(A) Increasing Government involvement in essential services.
(B) Improving public finances.
(C) Funding expansion plans.
(D) Expanding share of ownership.
Ans: A
33. The performance of Central Public Sector Enterprises of Maharatna Status is reviewed by
(i) Inter-Ministerial Committee
(ii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises
(iii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Industry Ministry
(iv) Apex Committee headed by Cabinet Secretary
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans: C
34. Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Purskar is awarded under
(A) Panchayat Empowerment Incentive Scheme
(B) Panchayat Empowerment Accountability Scheme
(C) Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme
(D) Gram Sabha Accountability and Empowerment Scheme
Ans: C
35. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the President’s power to entrust any matter, under the executive jurisdiction of Union Government, to a State with its consent?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 256
(C) Article 257
(D) Article 258
Ans: D
36. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Integrated Action Plan (IAP) for tribal and backward districts of India?
(A) IAP was launched in 2010.
(B) It has been introduced in 82 tribal and backward districts in India.
(C) The objective of IAP is to create public infrastructure and services in the selected districts.
(D) The District Collector and Chairman Zila Parishad have been made responsible to chalk out IAP proposals.
Ans: D
37. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Programme) List – II (Launched in the year)
(a) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY) (i) 2004
(b) Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA) (ii) 2009
(c) Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) (iii) 1999
(d) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) (iv) 2011
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
38. Which of the following institution is responsible for the recruitment of Civil Services in USA?
(A) Office of Personnel Management
(B) Federal Labour Relations Authority
(C) Merit System Protection Board
(D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Ans: A
39. Which of the following approach is developed by ‘Ong and Humphris’ for impact assessment of public policies?
(A) Cost-benefit Analysis
(B) Performance Measurement Approach
(C) Rapid Appraisal Methodology
(D) Experimental Approach
Ans: C
40. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine:
(A) Financial resources of the State for placing State’s requirements before the Union Government.
(B) Development requirements of the State for formulating State Five Year Plan.
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the State Government.
(D) Pattern of distribution of State’s tax revenue between the State Government and Local Bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of Grants-in-aid to Local Bodies.
Ans: D
41. Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has not made any impact on the lives of rural poor.
Reason (R): Social Audit could minimize the defects in the implementation of social development programmes.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
42. “Public administration is constrained by Constitution and relatively unconstrained by market forces and it is considered a public trust exercised on behalf of the sovereign.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) Rosenbloom D.H.
(B) Wallace Sayre
(C) Lipsky M.
(D) Peter M. Blau
Ans: A
43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Author) List – II (Book)
(a) Dwight Waldo (i) Frontiers of Development Administration
(b) Edward Weidner (ii) Development Administration in Asia
(c) F.W. Riggs (iii) Temporal Dimensions of Development Administration
(d) James J. Heaphey (iv) Spatial Dimensions of Development Administration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: A
44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Principles) List – II (Explanation)
(a) Espirit de corps (i) Right man in the right place
(b) Equity (ii) One head one plan
(c) Unity of direction (iii) Justice tempered with kindness
(d) Order (iv) Need for teamwork and healthy interpersonal relationship
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: C
45. Grading of duties, not according to different functions, but according to degree of authority and corresponding responsibility, is called
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of functions
(C) Decentralization
(D) Span of control
4 Ans: A
6. Unity of Command is in contradiction with which of the following?
(A) Centralisation
(B) Delegation
(C) Functional foremanship
(D) Adjudication
Ans: C
47. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Thinkers) List – II (Views)
(a) Woodrow Wilson (i) The life blood of administration is power.
(b) Luther Gulick (ii) The field of administration is a field of business.
(c) D. Waldo (iii) Public administration research was grounded in Political Theory.
(d) N.E. Loug (iv) Politico administrative system is unique and warrant unique treatment.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: B
48. Which one of following is not the basis of New Public Service Theory?
(A) Theory of Democratic Citizenship
(B) Models of Community and Civil Society
(C) Organizational Humanism and Discourse Theory
(D) Public Choice Theory
Ans: D
49. Assertion (A): The New Public Management with its explicit ‘Market’ orientation and over reliance on the private sector has varied responses from the aommonwealth countries.
Reason (R): It looks that neoclassical economics has captured the public sector all over the world.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
50. The term ‘NOISE’ is connected with which of the following?
(A) Decision-making
(B) Leadership
(C) Communication System
(D) Motivation
Ans: C
(A) It deals with the appointments to different posts in Central Government.
(B) It reviews Budget provisions.
(C) It examines security measures.
(D) It reviews and select programmes including MNREGA, NRHM, JNNURM, SSA, etc.
Ans: D
2. “Every person holding a civil post in British India holds it during the pleasure of His Majesty and may not be dismissed from the service by an authority lower in rank than the authority which appointed him.” It was provided for the first time by which of the following Acts?
(A) Government of India Act, 1858
(B) Indian Council Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: C
3. Which one of the following is not correct about the comparison between Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretary?
(i) Both are administrative heads of respective Governments.
(ii) Both are chief regulators and co-ordinators of their respective administration.
(iii) Both supervise the decisions and policies of respective Governments.
(iv) Both have Ministerial or Departmental responsibilities.
Select the correct answer from the given codes:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (iv)
Ans: D
4. Constitution of a high level panel comprising CAG, CVC and the Cabinet Secretary to ensure clean and accountable Government was suggested by
(A) Paul H. Appleby
(B) A.D. Gorwala
(C) Fifth Central Pay Commission
(D) Sixth Central Pay Commission
Ans: C
5. Which Article of the Constitution authorises Parliament to enact legislation on any subject in the State List?
(A) Article 200
(B) Article 247
(C) Article 249
(D) Article 250
Ans: C
6. Which of the following recommendation was not made by Second Administrative Reforms Commission relating to appointment of Chief Secretary in a State?
(A) Chief Secretary shall be appointed on the recommendation of a Collegium.
(B) The Collegium shall consist of nominee of the Chief Minister.
(C) The Leader of Opposition and incumbent Chief Secretary shall be consulted.
(D) The Government shall consult with the Governor.
Ans: D
7. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Ministries)
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) (i) Ministry of Labour
(b) Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (ii) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Border Road Organization (iii) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (iv) Ministry of Surface and National Highways
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: C
8. Arrange the following Committees on Civil Service Reforms in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Hota Committee
(ii) Kothari Committee
(iii) Yogendra Kumar Alagh Committee
(iv) Sathish Chandra Committee
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
Ans: C
9. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions was created in which of the following years?
(A) 1970
(B) 1973
(C) 1977
(D) 1985
Ans: D
10. Which one of the following is not the softwares developed for the improvement and simplification of the Accounting System of Central Government offices:
(A) Government Accounting Information System (GAINS)
(B) Controller’s Account (CONTACT)
(C) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance (IGAF)
(D) Integrated Multimodule Processor for Voucher Entries (IMPROVE)
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
(A) Technical Guide for Accounting and Financial reporting by urban local bodies – Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(B) Bangalore Agenda Task Force – Civic Organization
(C) Introduction of accrual based accounting in 7 cities of Gujarat – World Bank Financial Assistance
(D) JNNURM – Provision of job guarantee for the poor
Ans: D
12. Which of the following statements about the Task Force on Accounting and Budget Formats for ULBs (2002) is not correct?
(A) It was appointed by the CAG of India.
(B) It devised model budget formats along with accounting formats.
(C) It made recommendations on introduction of cost accounting and MIS in ULBs.
(D) It was appointed by the 11th Finance Commission.
Ans: D
13. “In view of the emergence of District as the key unit of field administration, there is no need to have an intermediate level of administration between State headquarters and the District.” This recommendation was made by
(A) Hanumanthaiah Committee
(B) Veerappa Moiley Committee
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(D) K. Santhanam Committee
Ans: B
14. Which of the following statements about the UPSC is not correct?
(A) The composition of the UPSC is determined by the President of India.
(B) Half of the members of the UPSC should be from those who have held office for at least 10 years under the Government.
(C) UPSC can also serve the needs of a State on the request of the Governor and with the consent of the President of India.
(D) The member of the UPSC can resign by addressing the resignation letter to the Chairman of the UPSC.
Ans: D
15. Which of the following is not the magisterial powers of a District Collector?
(A) Power to issue arms licences.
(B) Power to seek help of the military in grave situation.
(C) Transfer of the Deputy Superintendent of Police.
(D) Maintenance of Law and Order.
Ans: C
16. Assertion (A): Ideally, the question sequence should conform to the respondents’ way of thinking.
Reason (R): The questions of personal character need to be avoided as opening questions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
17. Who stated that “We cannot take a single step forward in an inquiry unless we begin with a suggested explanation or solution of the difficulty which originated it”?
(A) Lundberg
(B) Werkmeister
(C) Robert and Merton
(D) Cohen and Hegel
Ans: D
18. Which of the following principles were enumerated by R.A. Fisher as the principles of experimental research design?
(i) Principle of Local Control
(ii) Principle of Matching
(iii) Principle of Randomization
(iv) Principle of Replication
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
19. The statement “Knowledge is Foresight and Foresight is power” relates to
(A) Pure research
(B) Applied research
(C) An interplay between ‘Pure’ and ‘Applied’ research
(D) Empirical research
Ans: C
20. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Ministries)
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) (i) Ministry of Labour
(b)Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (ii) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Central Social Welfare Board (iii) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (iv) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: D
21. Which of the following Commission / Committee had recommended that there should be All India Services in the area of Education, Health, Judiciary and Engineering?
(A) M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations (2010)
(B) Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1988)
(C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission Report – Refurbishing of Personnel Administration (2008)
(D) The Committee on Civil Service Reforms (2004)
Ans: A
22. Assertion (A): The fundamental ethos of the employee-employer relationship is utilitarian and contractual.
Reason (R): Both employees and employers are tied into mutual exchange relations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
23. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in India was passed in which of the following years?
(A) 2003
(B) 2006
(C) 2009
(D) 2011
Ans: A
24. “Authority stems from the task being performed and from the situation” who among the following suggested this concept of authority?
(A) Herbert A. Simon
(B) Mary Parker Follett
(C) Chester I Barnard
(D) Max Weber
Ans: B
25. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Year of Establishment)
(a) National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention (i) 2008
(b) Performance Management Division (ii) 2004
(c) National Advisory Council (iii) 2009
(d) Council on Climate Change (iv) 1997
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: A
26. Assertion (A): The Central Social Welfare Board acts as a change maker with a humanitarian approach.
Reason (R): It facilitates networking of committed social workers for the empowerment of women and children.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
27. ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) or education for all’ is an outcome of which of the following Constitution Amendment in India?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 59th Amendment
(D) 86th Amendment
Ans: D
28. The midterm appraisal of NHRM in 2009 observed that
(A) there has been decline in health indicators.
(B) there has been a significant improvements in health indicators.
(C) no change is noticeable in it.
(D) the appraisal was not conducted.
Ans: B
29. Which one of the following is not an indicator of low level of social welfare?
(A) High rate of crime
(B) Unemployment
(C) Poverty
(D) Higher life expectancy
Ans: D
30. Primary Health Care Approach based on equity, access and social justice is a vital philosophy of social development and it represents:
(A) Area Development Approach
(B) Consumer Rights Approach
(C) Minimum Needs Programme Approach
(D) The Social Reform Approach
Ans: C
31. Social Development is an approach to
(i) increase per capita income
(ii) enhance the quality of life
(iii) respond to the problems of distorted development
(iv) deal with poverty related problem through a combination of economic and social measures
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of disinvestment?
(A) Increasing Government involvement in essential services.
(B) Improving public finances.
(C) Funding expansion plans.
(D) Expanding share of ownership.
Ans: A
33. The performance of Central Public Sector Enterprises of Maharatna Status is reviewed by
(i) Inter-Ministerial Committee
(ii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises
(iii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Industry Ministry
(iv) Apex Committee headed by Cabinet Secretary
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans: C
34. Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Purskar is awarded under
(A) Panchayat Empowerment Incentive Scheme
(B) Panchayat Empowerment Accountability Scheme
(C) Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme
(D) Gram Sabha Accountability and Empowerment Scheme
Ans: C
35. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the President’s power to entrust any matter, under the executive jurisdiction of Union Government, to a State with its consent?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 256
(C) Article 257
(D) Article 258
Ans: D
36. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Integrated Action Plan (IAP) for tribal and backward districts of India?
(A) IAP was launched in 2010.
(B) It has been introduced in 82 tribal and backward districts in India.
(C) The objective of IAP is to create public infrastructure and services in the selected districts.
(D) The District Collector and Chairman Zila Parishad have been made responsible to chalk out IAP proposals.
Ans: D
37. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Programme) List – II (Launched in the year)
(a) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY) (i) 2004
(b) Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA) (ii) 2009
(c) Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) (iii) 1999
(d) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) (iv) 2011
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
38. Which of the following institution is responsible for the recruitment of Civil Services in USA?
(A) Office of Personnel Management
(B) Federal Labour Relations Authority
(C) Merit System Protection Board
(D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Ans: A
39. Which of the following approach is developed by ‘Ong and Humphris’ for impact assessment of public policies?
(A) Cost-benefit Analysis
(B) Performance Measurement Approach
(C) Rapid Appraisal Methodology
(D) Experimental Approach
Ans: C
40. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine:
(A) Financial resources of the State for placing State’s requirements before the Union Government.
(B) Development requirements of the State for formulating State Five Year Plan.
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the State Government.
(D) Pattern of distribution of State’s tax revenue between the State Government and Local Bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of Grants-in-aid to Local Bodies.
Ans: D
41. Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has not made any impact on the lives of rural poor.
Reason (R): Social Audit could minimize the defects in the implementation of social development programmes.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
42. “Public administration is constrained by Constitution and relatively unconstrained by market forces and it is considered a public trust exercised on behalf of the sovereign.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) Rosenbloom D.H.
(B) Wallace Sayre
(C) Lipsky M.
(D) Peter M. Blau
Ans: A
43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Author) List – II (Book)
(a) Dwight Waldo (i) Frontiers of Development Administration
(b) Edward Weidner (ii) Development Administration in Asia
(c) F.W. Riggs (iii) Temporal Dimensions of Development Administration
(d) James J. Heaphey (iv) Spatial Dimensions of Development Administration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: A
44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Principles) List – II (Explanation)
(a) Espirit de corps (i) Right man in the right place
(b) Equity (ii) One head one plan
(c) Unity of direction (iii) Justice tempered with kindness
(d) Order (iv) Need for teamwork and healthy interpersonal relationship
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: C
45. Grading of duties, not according to different functions, but according to degree of authority and corresponding responsibility, is called
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of functions
(C) Decentralization
(D) Span of control
4 Ans: A
6. Unity of Command is in contradiction with which of the following?
(A) Centralisation
(B) Delegation
(C) Functional foremanship
(D) Adjudication
Ans: C
47. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Thinkers) List – II (Views)
(a) Woodrow Wilson (i) The life blood of administration is power.
(b) Luther Gulick (ii) The field of administration is a field of business.
(c) D. Waldo (iii) Public administration research was grounded in Political Theory.
(d) N.E. Loug (iv) Politico administrative system is unique and warrant unique treatment.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: B
48. Which one of following is not the basis of New Public Service Theory?
(A) Theory of Democratic Citizenship
(B) Models of Community and Civil Society
(C) Organizational Humanism and Discourse Theory
(D) Public Choice Theory
Ans: D
49. Assertion (A): The New Public Management with its explicit ‘Market’ orientation and over reliance on the private sector has varied responses from the aommonwealth countries.
Reason (R): It looks that neoclassical economics has captured the public sector all over the world.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
50. The term ‘NOISE’ is connected with which of the following?
(A) Decision-making
(B) Leadership
(C) Communication System
(D) Motivation
Ans: C
51. “The number of cross and group relationships increases in mathematical relation as the number of subordinates assigned to an executive increases.” Who among the following advocated this view?
(A) Katz and Kahn
(B) Wildasky
(C) Graicunas
(D) Norbert Weiner
Ans: C
52. Who among the following has proved by his studies that the democratic style of leadership is the most effective in management?
(A) Fred E. Fiedler
(B) Kurt Lewin
(C) Rensis Likert
(D) Chris Argyris
Ans: C
53. The best known theory of group supervision, called the ‘linking pin’ concept is formulated by
(A) Frederick Herzberg
(B) Abraham Maslow
(C) Rensis Likert
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans: C
54. Anti-bureaucratic approach was most dominant in the writings of
(A) Christopher Hood
(B) Ferrell Heady
(C) Vincent Ostrom
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans: C
55. Who of the following glorified Herbert Simon as “The one man in the world who comes closest to the ideal of Aristotle or a Renaissance Man”?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Richard Cuert
(C) L.D. White
(D) Luther Gulick
Ans: B
56. Which one of the following has been a common theme in all the three Minnowbrook Conferences held so far?
(A) Public interest orientation
(B) Relevance
(C) Effective decision-making
(D) Global approach to public governance
Ans: B
57. Assertion (A): Leadership is judged by results not by attributes.
Reason (R): The productivity of work is not the responsibility of the worker, but of the manager.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
58. Arrange following experiments of Elton Mayo in chronological sequence:
(i) The Great Illumination
(ii) Social Organization
(iii) First Enquiry
(iv) Human Attitudes and Sentiments
(v) Absenteeism in the Industries
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (v), (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) and (v)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) and (v)
Ans: C
59. Which one of the following is not correct about Chester I. Barnard?
(A) He developed the philosophical ground work for management.
(B) He was only concerned with human-relations school.
(C) He went deep into sociology, psychology and abstract reasoning.
(D) He was called spiritual father of social system school.
Ans: B
60. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Thinkers) List – II (Concepts)
(a) Peter F. Drucker (i) The Scanlon Plan
(b) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler (ii) Theory of Departmentalization
(c) McGregor (iii) Generic Management
(d) Luther Gulick (iv) New Public Management
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: B
61. Woodrow Wilson laid emphasis on which of the following?
(i) Separation of Politics and Administration.
(ii) Improving the effectiveness of Public Service through management and by training of civil servants.
(iii) Comparative analysis of political and private organizations.
(iv) Divide work nearly equally between managers and workers.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
62. Which one of following is not a feature of administrative system of developing countries?
(A) Colonial legacy
(B) Operational autonomy
(C) Formalism
(D) Lack of technical competence
Ans: B
63. Which one of following French Prime Ministers said that “the administration is as represented by the grands corps”?
(A) Edith Cresson
(B) Jacques Chirac
(C) Michael Rocard
(D) Michael Debre
Ans: D
64. Which of the following is not one of the department of US Federal Government?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Commerce
(C) Industry
(D) Health and Human Services
Ans: C
65. Match items in List – I with items in List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Civil Service) List – II (Characteristic)
(a) Conseil d’Etat (i) Corps for bridges and roads
(b) Inspection des Finances (ii) Technical corps
(c) Corps des Mines (iii) Specializes in administrative law
(d) Corps des Ponts et Chaussées (iv) One of the first five grands corps
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Ans: D
66. Assertion (A): The ethos of Private Sector Management is becoming important to Public Sector Management in the post Liberalization era.
Reason (R): Public Sector is a drain on the Public Exchequer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
67. The study which compares whole administrative system of two countries in their proper ecological context is called as
(A) Micro study
(B) Macro study
(C) Middle range study
(D) Area study
Ans: B
68. Donald C. Stone states that, “the process involved in moving from an objective to be accomplished to the actual creation of organisation, service-system, new practices or relationships which evidence that change has actually taken place” is termed as
(A) Administrative development
(B) Capacity building
(C) Nation building
(D) Institution building
Ans: D
69. Who defined under development as a condition characterised by an ongoing process of retrogression?
(A) Alfred Sauvy
(B) Mao Zedong
(C) Andre Gunder Frank
(D) Walter Rodney
Ans: C
70. The bureaucracy tended to be more powerful in developing countries than in the developed ones.” Who among the following have supported this view?
(i) F.W. Riggs
(ii) Edward Weidner
(iii) Ferrell Heady
(iv) S.N. Eisenstadt
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: A
71. Which of the following is the correct elaboration of V.A. Pai Panandikar’s formula ‘CROPP’?
(A) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Public and Personal
(B) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Policies and Personnel
(C) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Personnel and Procedures
(D) Coordination, Resources, Office, Personnel and Policies
Ans: C
72. Assertion (A): Policy maker is bound to consider variety of factors while taking policy decision.
Reason (R): Policy makers are well versed with environmental factors of policy agenda.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
73. Assertion (A): The bureaucracy plays an important role in policy formulation.
Reason (R): The formulation of policy requires the advice of persons who are impartial or neutral.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
74. Which of the following statements about municipal accounting reforms is not correct?
(A) They are the foundations for integrity and maturity of Government.
(B) They can serve as engines of good governance.
(C) Acceptable accounting practices need to reflect both the financial transactions and financial performance of the ULBs.
(D) It helps the local bodies to have greater technical accountability.
Ans: D
75. ‘Networked Government’ is the idea of
(A) Honey Report
(B) 1st Minnowbrook Conference 1968
(C) 2nd Minnowbrook Conference 1988
(D) 3rd Minnowbrook Conference 2008
Ans: D
76. Which one is the last Independent Regulatory Commission in USA?
(A) Federal Communication Commission
(B) Civil Aeronautics Board
(C) US Maritime Commission
(D) Federal Power Commission
Ans: B
77. The Masterman Committee of Britain dealt with
(A) Political activities of civil servants
(B) Functioning of Whitley Council
(C) Re-organisation of administration
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
78. Which of the following countries has promulgated a new administrative regime in the form of the Enterprise Act, 2002?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) France
(D) India
Ans: B
79. Kofi Annan emphasized on some aspects of sustainable development in 2002 Earth Summit acronymed as WEHAB. This acronym includes – (Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Water
(ii) Water and Sanitation
(iii) Energy
(iv) Employment
(v) Health
(vi) Housing
(vii) Agriculture
(viii) Biodiversity and Ecosystem Management
(ix) Biotechnology
(x) Agro-industry
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (v), (x) and (viii)
(B) (i), (iv), (vi), (vii) and (ix)
(C) (i), (ii), (v), (x) and (ix)
(D) (ii), (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)
Ans: D
80. The phenomenon of development administration in India, traced to the inception of the Community Development in October 1952, was started on the recommendations of
(A) Krishnamachari Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Mahalanobis Model
Ans: A
81. Decision making process under Development Administration is supposed to be –
(i) Flexible
(ii) Centralized
(iii) Innovative
(iv) Rigid
Select the correct code:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv)
Ans: B
82. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has prioritized the most significant area under e-governance, which is
(A) Office Automation
(B) Service Delivery
(C) Development Needs
(D) Management Information System
Ans: C
83. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Traditional Administration) (Features)
(a) Regulatory Administration (i) Strict and authoritative climate of mistrust
(b) Orientated towards efficiency and economy (ii) Routine operations
(c) Task orientation (iii) Concern for security and playing safe
(d) Sharp and elaborate hierarchical structure (iv) Emphasis on individual performance
(v) Resistance to organization change
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (v) (iv) (iii)
Ans: B
84. The Cabinet is the integral core of the Council of Ministers and it is –
(i) An extra-constitutional body
(ii) An extra legal creation
(iii) Institutionalized by usage
(iv) Comprising most important ministers
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
85. Which one of the following is the basis for Prime Minister’s Office?
(A) A Resolution of Cabinet
(B) Constitution of India
(C) An Act of Parliament
(D) Government of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
Ans: D
86. Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Secretariat in India and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) It is a successor of the Secretariat of the Governor General’s Executive Council.
(ii) It performs co-ordinating role in the process of policy making at the highest level.
(iii) The office of the Cabinet Secretariat came into existence in 1947.
(iv) The First ARC had recommended that the Cabinet Secretary should ordinarily have tenure of three years.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: A
87. While assisting the Minister in formulation of policies, the Secretariat performs which of the following functions?
(i) Making and modifying policies from time to time.
(ii) Drafting bills, rules and regulations.
(iii) Coordinating and interpreting policies.
(iv) To direct the States Government
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
88. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission has identified strengths and weaknesses in the existing structure of Government of India in a report. Identify a weakness cited in the report.
(A) Stability
(B) Commitment to Constitution
(C) Proliferation of Ministries / Department
(D) Proliferation of Administrative Agencies
Ans: C
89. Which one of the following is not created by an Act of Parliament?
(A) National Commission for Backward Classes
(B) University Grants Commission
(C) Atomic Energy Commission
(D) Railway Board
Ans: A
90. Which of the following is not the recommendation of Hota Committee pertaining to the issue of disciplinary procedure for Government Servants in India?
(A) Union Public Service Commission need not be consulted in case of a civil servant facing charges of corrupt practice.
(B) Article 311 of the Constitution may be deleted.
(C) Where minor disciplinary proceedings are sufficient to meet the end of justice, and then major penalty proceedings should not be initiated.
(D) An inquiry officer should be relieved from his normal duties.
Ans: B
91. The members of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour by
(A) Impeachment by Parliament
(B) The President after an inquiry and verdict of the Supreme Court.
(C) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
(D) By the President on the recommendation of the Cabinet.
Ans: B
92. Who was of the view that Indian Civil Service was the “steel frame” on which the whole structure of Government and Administration in India rest?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Godwin Austin
(C) David Lloyd George
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: C
93. Which one of the following is not correct about the ‘Civil Service Day’ in India?
(A) It is celebrated on 21st April
(B) Prime Minister hands over ‘Prime Minister Excellence Award in Public Administration’ to the civil servants on this day.
(C) India has started celebrating this day since 2006.
(D) Prime Minister’s Office makes arrangements to organise this event every year.
Ans: D
94. The National Training Policy in India
(i) Intends to cultivate democratic values
(ii) Stipulates greater emphasis on the training of higher and supervisory level officials.
(iii) Strives to bring responsiveness to the expectation of citizens
(iv) Earmarks two percent of total salary budget for training which is to be solely used for this purpose
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (iv)
Ans: B
95. The training for IAS is conducted in four stages. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of training stages?
(A) Foundational, Professional, Field and Institutional
(B) Foundational, Institutional, Field and Professional
(C) Foundational, Field, Professional and Institutional
(D) Institutional, Foundational, Field and Professional
Ans: A
96. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Kind of Budget) (Basic Orientation of Budget)
(a) Line Item Budget (i) Control
(b) Performance Budget (ii) Decision Making
(c) Planning Programme Budget (iii) Management
(d) Zero-based Budget (iv) Planning
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Ans: B
97. Consider the statements regarding Department related Standing Committees in India and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The maximum number of members in these committees is 31.
(ii) The committees consider the demands for Grants, Annual Reports of Ministries / Departments.
(iii) The reports of these Committees are treated as ‘considered advice’.
(iv) The Committees also suggest the Cut Motion.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: A
98. When was the All India Services Act passed by the Parliament of India?
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1960
(D) 1961
Ans: B
99. The charged expenditure in the Budget is characterized as
(i) Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
(ii) Not discussed in the Parliament
(iii) non-votable by the Parliament
(iv) Salary and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an example of charged expenditure.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
100. Assertion (A): The National Development Council (NDC) is not a product of the Planning Commission’s recommendations.
Reason (R): The National Development Council reviews the working of the National Plans and also considers questions of social and economic policy.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: D