LAW- PAGE 11 |
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1. Section 154 under IT Act is
a) For filing return of Income
b) For filing return with late fee
c) Rectification of mistakes
d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
Ans: C
2. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act
a) Any stock in Trade
b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
c) (a)and(b)
d) None of the above
Ans: C
3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by
a) The Tribunal
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
c) The petitioner
d) The Defendant
Ans: B
4. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated
a) On making of the final award
b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
d) All of the above
Ans: D
5. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Section 18-27 states
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
b) Receipt and Written Communications
c) Extent of judicial intervention
d) Awarding final decision
Ans: A
6. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be
a) Order of district collector
b) Order of Income Tax commissioner
c) Decree of a civil court
d) (a) and (b)
Ans: C
7. Provision of Section 80 of CPC is binding on
a) The High Court
b) The court of civil judge
c) The district judge
d) All of the above
Ans: D
8.Temporary Injunction can be granted
a) Suo moto
b) Ex parte
c) Hearing both parties
d) None of the above
Ans: B
9. Right to Appeal is a
a) Natural Right
b) Inherent right
c) Statutory right
d) Delegated right
Ans: C
10. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in
a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2002 d) 2004
Ans: C
11. Which is the correct statement :
a) There can be a will without a codicil
b) There can be a codicil without a will
c) Every will has a codicil
d) A codicil proceeds a will
Ans: A
12. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by
a) By two witnesses
b) By two or more witnesses
c) ) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
d) None of the above
Ans: B
13. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to
a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
c) Attaining of puberty
d) None of the above
Ans: D
14. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by
a) The State government
b) The central government
c) The Clergyman of the Church
d) High Court judges
Ans: A
15. Right to Personal liberty includes
a) Right against custodial violence
b) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted
c) Right against Public hanging
d) All of the above
Ans: D
16. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) The Defence Minister
d) Chief Marshal
Ans: A
17. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
a) 62 years
b) 60 years
c) 58 years
d) 65 years
Ans: D
18. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of
a) Concurrent list
b) State list
c) Union list
d) None of the above
Ans: A
19.The Special Court is
a) Not subordinate to High Court
b) Superior to High Court
c) Supplement to High Court
d) Equal to Supreme Court
Ans: C
20. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under
a) Article 310
b) Article 315
c) Article 320
d) Article 325
Ans: B
21. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
a) French administration
b) British Administration
c) Swedish Administration
d) German Administration
Ans: C
22. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
a) BankTribunal
b) Consumer Forum
c) Magistrate Court
d) Sessionscourt
Ans: C
23. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking busines
a)Eight
b)Ten
c)Twelve
d)Sixteen
Ans: B
24. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
a) Central government or State government
b) Union Public Service Commission
c) State Public commission
d) Supreme Court of India
Ans: A
25. Information Technology Act was enacted in
a) 1988 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 2004
Ans: C
26) Which one is not a fundamental right?
a)Right to Freedom of Assembly
b)Right to Property
c) Right to equality
d) Right to freedom of speech and Expression
Ans: B
27. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) Confiscation of Passport was correct
b) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law
d) None of the above.
Ans: C
28. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movementa) In the interest of general public
b) In the interest of political leaders
c) In the interest of women’s safety
d) All of the above
Ans: A
29. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of constitution?
a) A company
b) A corporation
c) Only citizens
d) Citizens and aliens
Ans: C
30. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be
a) An accused
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself
d) Hostile witness
Ans: C
31. Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee
a) Concurrence of three parties
b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
d) Existence of only one contract
Ans: D
32. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section
a) 180 of the Act
b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act
d) 183 of the Act
Ans: C
33. A person who gives the guarantee is called
a)Bailee
b)Creditor
c)Debtor
d)Surety
Ans: D
34. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
a) Injunctions
b) Court’s discretion on specific performance
c) Cancellation of instruments
d) None of the above
Ans: A
35. The Patent Act became a law in
a) 1970 b) 1975 c) 1996 d) 1966
Ans: A
36. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999, defines the meaning of
a) License
b) Trade Mark
c) Registration
d) Cancellation
Ans: B
37. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to
a) High Court
b) Supreme court
c) Bar Council of India
d) Indian Law Commission
Ans: C
38. Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates
a) Section 29
b) Section 35
c) Section 37
d) All of the above
Ans: B
39. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly known as
a) Judges Transfer Case
b) Illegal Detention case
c) Mandal Commission case
d) Constitutional case
Ans: C
40. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under
a) Article 226 of constitution and Article 32 of the constitution
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: C
41. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
a) Free Legal Aid
b) Bonded labours
c) Judges Transfer
d) Illegal detention
Ans: C
42. Supreme court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved,
a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
b) Public Trust doctrine
c) Separation of power doctrine
d) Public Interest doctrine
Ans: B
43. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption
a) Must be a Hindu only
b) A Hindu or Jew
c) May be Hindu or Christian
d) None of the above
Ans: A
44. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the year
a) 1956 b) 1954c)1955 d) 1978
Ans: C
45. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods
a) Lien
b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale
d) To ascertain price
Ans: D
46. What is meant by Homicide ?
a) Suicide by human being not at home
b) Suicide at home
c) Killing of a human being by another human being
d) Killing of human being by animal
Ans: C
47. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence
a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
c) Under section 272-273 of IPC
d) None of the above
Ans: C
48. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is
a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
d) Death sentence
Ans: D
49.Offences relating to elections are
a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
c) Are not covered by IPC
d) None of the above
Ans: B
50. Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC
a) Section 376 (a)
b) Section 376 (b)
c) Section 354
d) Section 498
Ans: C
a) For filing return of Income
b) For filing return with late fee
c) Rectification of mistakes
d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
Ans: C
2. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act
a) Any stock in Trade
b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
c) (a)and(b)
d) None of the above
Ans: C
3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by
a) The Tribunal
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
c) The petitioner
d) The Defendant
Ans: B
4. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated
a) On making of the final award
b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
d) All of the above
Ans: D
5. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Section 18-27 states
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
b) Receipt and Written Communications
c) Extent of judicial intervention
d) Awarding final decision
Ans: A
6. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be
a) Order of district collector
b) Order of Income Tax commissioner
c) Decree of a civil court
d) (a) and (b)
Ans: C
7. Provision of Section 80 of CPC is binding on
a) The High Court
b) The court of civil judge
c) The district judge
d) All of the above
Ans: D
8.Temporary Injunction can be granted
a) Suo moto
b) Ex parte
c) Hearing both parties
d) None of the above
Ans: B
9. Right to Appeal is a
a) Natural Right
b) Inherent right
c) Statutory right
d) Delegated right
Ans: C
10. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in
a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2002 d) 2004
Ans: C
11. Which is the correct statement :
a) There can be a will without a codicil
b) There can be a codicil without a will
c) Every will has a codicil
d) A codicil proceeds a will
Ans: A
12. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by
a) By two witnesses
b) By two or more witnesses
c) ) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
d) None of the above
Ans: B
13. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to
a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
c) Attaining of puberty
d) None of the above
Ans: D
14. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by
a) The State government
b) The central government
c) The Clergyman of the Church
d) High Court judges
Ans: A
15. Right to Personal liberty includes
a) Right against custodial violence
b) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted
c) Right against Public hanging
d) All of the above
Ans: D
16. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) The Defence Minister
d) Chief Marshal
Ans: A
17. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
a) 62 years
b) 60 years
c) 58 years
d) 65 years
Ans: D
18. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of
a) Concurrent list
b) State list
c) Union list
d) None of the above
Ans: A
19.The Special Court is
a) Not subordinate to High Court
b) Superior to High Court
c) Supplement to High Court
d) Equal to Supreme Court
Ans: C
20. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under
a) Article 310
b) Article 315
c) Article 320
d) Article 325
Ans: B
21. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
a) French administration
b) British Administration
c) Swedish Administration
d) German Administration
Ans: C
22. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
a) BankTribunal
b) Consumer Forum
c) Magistrate Court
d) Sessionscourt
Ans: C
23. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking busines
a)Eight
b)Ten
c)Twelve
d)Sixteen
Ans: B
24. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
a) Central government or State government
b) Union Public Service Commission
c) State Public commission
d) Supreme Court of India
Ans: A
25. Information Technology Act was enacted in
a) 1988 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 2004
Ans: C
26) Which one is not a fundamental right?
a)Right to Freedom of Assembly
b)Right to Property
c) Right to equality
d) Right to freedom of speech and Expression
Ans: B
27. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) Confiscation of Passport was correct
b) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law
d) None of the above.
Ans: C
28. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movementa) In the interest of general public
b) In the interest of political leaders
c) In the interest of women’s safety
d) All of the above
Ans: A
29. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of constitution?
a) A company
b) A corporation
c) Only citizens
d) Citizens and aliens
Ans: C
30. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be
a) An accused
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself
d) Hostile witness
Ans: C
31. Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee
a) Concurrence of three parties
b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
d) Existence of only one contract
Ans: D
32. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section
a) 180 of the Act
b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act
d) 183 of the Act
Ans: C
33. A person who gives the guarantee is called
a)Bailee
b)Creditor
c)Debtor
d)Surety
Ans: D
34. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
a) Injunctions
b) Court’s discretion on specific performance
c) Cancellation of instruments
d) None of the above
Ans: A
35. The Patent Act became a law in
a) 1970 b) 1975 c) 1996 d) 1966
Ans: A
36. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999, defines the meaning of
a) License
b) Trade Mark
c) Registration
d) Cancellation
Ans: B
37. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to
a) High Court
b) Supreme court
c) Bar Council of India
d) Indian Law Commission
Ans: C
38. Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates
a) Section 29
b) Section 35
c) Section 37
d) All of the above
Ans: B
39. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly known as
a) Judges Transfer Case
b) Illegal Detention case
c) Mandal Commission case
d) Constitutional case
Ans: C
40. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under
a) Article 226 of constitution and Article 32 of the constitution
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: C
41. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
a) Free Legal Aid
b) Bonded labours
c) Judges Transfer
d) Illegal detention
Ans: C
42. Supreme court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved,
a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
b) Public Trust doctrine
c) Separation of power doctrine
d) Public Interest doctrine
Ans: B
43. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption
a) Must be a Hindu only
b) A Hindu or Jew
c) May be Hindu or Christian
d) None of the above
Ans: A
44. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the year
a) 1956 b) 1954c)1955 d) 1978
Ans: C
45. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods
a) Lien
b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale
d) To ascertain price
Ans: D
46. What is meant by Homicide ?
a) Suicide by human being not at home
b) Suicide at home
c) Killing of a human being by another human being
d) Killing of human being by animal
Ans: C
47. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence
a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
c) Under section 272-273 of IPC
d) None of the above
Ans: C
48. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is
a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
d) Death sentence
Ans: D
49.Offences relating to elections are
a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
c) Are not covered by IPC
d) None of the above
Ans: B
50. Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC
a) Section 376 (a)
b) Section 376 (b)
c) Section 354
d) Section 498
Ans: C
51. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter Kriti
a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it.
b) The marriage is void.
c) The marriage is valid only if the court approves it.
d) The marriage is valid only if the Panchayat permits.
Ans: A
52. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective
a) provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
b) To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the government
c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
d) All of the above
Ans: D
53. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in
a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
d) Section 20 of IPC
Ans: A
54. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by
a) Central Government
b) High court
c) Supreme Court
d) State Government
Ans: D
55. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person,
a) U/s 49 Cr.PC
b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC
c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC
Ans: C
56. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be exercised by a magistrate
a) When the police decides not to investigate the case
b) When the investigation is still going on
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: A
57. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided
a) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
d) None of the above
Ans: B
58. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr. PC
a) U/s. 214
b) U/s. 215
c) U/s. 216
d) U/s.210
Ans: C
59. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given State, under Section
a) State government
b) Central government
c)Supreme Court of India
d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: A
60. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government?
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Ans: B Section 6
61. Court’s power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act
a) Under Section 20
b) Under Section 21
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: B
62. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates to
a)Water pollution
b)Air and water pollution
c)Noise and air pollution
d) Water and noise pollution
Ans: C
63. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal Corporation
c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Ans: B
64. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as
a) Includes a river but not a water course
b) Includes a water course but not a river
c) Includes river and water course , but not subterranean waters
d) Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
Ans: D
65. What is the punishment for advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation?
a) Impose a fine
b) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
c) Suspension from practice
d) All of the above
Ans: D
66. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of
a) A court
b) A Tribunal
c) A quasi judicial form
d) All of the above
Ans: A
67. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is
a) Industrial peace and economic justice
b) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) All of the above
Ans: D
68. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947 provides the definition of
a) Lock out
b) Lay off
c) Strike
d) Hartal
Ans: C
69. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) 1st March 1955
b) 1st March 1986
c) 1st March 1994
d) 1st March 1894
Ans: D
70. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
a) Wrongful restraint
b) Wrongful confinement
c) Outrage the modesty of a women
d) Maintenance to the divorced women
Ans: C
71. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means
a) Useful for residential purpose
b) Useful for commercial purpose
c) Useful for cultivation
d) Useful for industrial purpose
Ans: C
72. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related to
a) Sexual harassment at workplace
b) Protection of civil rights
c) Uniform civil code
d) None of the above
Ans: A
73. Statement recorded during investigation U/s. 161 can be used in trial
a) For contradicting the witness
b) For corroborating the witness
c) Incorporating in the charge sheet
d) Discharging the accused
Ans: A
74. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means
a) All statements made before the court by the witness
b) All statement made before the police by the accused
c) All statement of facts which a witness heard to say
d) All of the above
Ans: A
75. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
a) All Judges
b) All Magistrates
c) All Arbitrators
d) (a) and (b)
Ans: D
76. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
d) None of the above
Ans: C
77. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
a) Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
b) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
c) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
d) Documents and circulars from University of Delhi
Ans: C
78. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is
a) 5
b) 10
c) 7
d) 2
Ans: C
79. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives
a) Certification of incorporation
b) Letter of intent
c) Occupation certificate
d) None of the above
Ans: A
80. Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Assumption) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
I. Acquinars (a) Jural postulates
II. Pound (b) Spirit of people
III. Kelsen (c) Ground norm
IV. Savigny (d) Reason and will in law
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(C) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(D) (d) (b) (a) (c)
Ans: A
81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
I. Law in a changing society (a) Fuller
II. Human Law and Human Justice (b) Friedman
III. The morality of law (c) Stone
IV. Ancient law (d) Main
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: B
82. Which one of the following schools of Jurisprudence considers that “a reasoned scale of values can be discovered as a basis for legal development”?
(A) Sociological
(B) Historical
(C) Analytical
(D) Philosophical
Ans: D
83. According to Salmond, the correlative of liberty is
(A) Duty
(B) No rights
(C) Subjection
(D) Disabilities
Ans: B
84. Assertion (A): Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
85. Assertion (A): International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity
Reason (R): Equity is one of the General Principles of Law recognized by Civilized Nations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
86. Match List-I with List-II:
List – I (Subject Matter) List – II (Cases)
(a) International Custom (i) S. S. Lotus (France v. Turkey) PCIJ, Series A, No. 10
(b) Res Judicata (ii) U. N. Administrative Tribunal case, International Law Reports, 1954, P. 310
(c) Legal status of General Assembly Resolutions on decolonization and self-determination (iii) Western Sahara Case, Advisory Opinion, ICJ Rep., 1975, P. 12
(d) Human Rights (iv) Lawless Case, American Journal of International Law, Vol. 56, 1962, P. 187
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: A
87. U. N. Commission on Human Rights has been discarded and replaced by
(A) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Committee
(B) Amnesty International
(C) Human Rights Committee
(D) Human Rights Council
Ans: D
88. Which of the following is not a primary source of International Law?
(A) International Treaty
(B) Decision of International Court of Justice
(C) International Custom
(D) General Principle of Law recognized by Civilized Nations
Ans: B
89. Which of the following cases relates to retroactive nature of the act of recognition of government?
(A) Aksionairnoye Obschestro A. M. Luthar V. James Sagor & Co., (1921) 3 K.B. P. 532
(B) Trendtex Trading Corporation V. Central Bank of Nigeria, (1977) B. P. 529
(C) Central Air Transport Inc. V. Central Air Transport Corporation, (1953) A. C. P. 70
(D) Nicaragua V. U.S.A., ICJ Rep., 1984, P. 169.
Ans: C
90. In a case concerning the legality of the Threat or use of Nuclear Weapons, the International Court of Justice gave advisory opinion at the request of:
(A) U.N. Security Council
(B) U. N. General Assembly
(C) World Health Organization
(D) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organization
Ans: B
91. Which is not the modern source of Hindu Law?
(A) Equity, Justice and Good Conscience
(B) Precedent
(C) Sruti
(D) Legislation
Ans: C
92. Consider the following propositions and give the correct answer
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
Codes:
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: C
93. Assertion (A): Break down of marriage as such is not a ground for Divorce.
Reason (R): It may result into an easy way of dissolution of marriage and shall result into instability in the society.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: A
94. Dastane vs. Dastane is a case decided by the Supreme Court relating to:
(A) Adultery
(B) Dessertion
(C) Cruelty
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
95. Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be made compulsory registrable in their respective States where the marriage is solemnised. This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of:
(A) Githa Hariharn vs. RBI
(B) Seema vs. Ashwani Kumar
(C) John Vallamathom vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
96. Assertion (A): The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 brought changes like prohibition of polygamy and prigamy and permission for inter-caste marriages.
Reason (R): The changes were brought under social pressure.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
97. An agreement made by mistake is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Immoral
Ans: A
98. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority.
(ii) Minor’s contract cannot be ratified on attaining majority.
(iii) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract.
(iv) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: B
99. Assertion (A): Damages must be related to damage.
Reason (R): Damage is damaging and damages are compensating.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
100. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they appeared.
Use the codes given below:
(i) Offer by x to y
(ii) Undue influence of x over y
(iii) Demand of damages by y from x
(iv) Acceptance of the offer by y.
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: C
a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it.
b) The marriage is void.
c) The marriage is valid only if the court approves it.
d) The marriage is valid only if the Panchayat permits.
Ans: A
52. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective
a) provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
b) To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the government
c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
d) All of the above
Ans: D
53. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in
a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
d) Section 20 of IPC
Ans: A
54. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by
a) Central Government
b) High court
c) Supreme Court
d) State Government
Ans: D
55. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person,
a) U/s 49 Cr.PC
b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC
c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC
Ans: C
56. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be exercised by a magistrate
a) When the police decides not to investigate the case
b) When the investigation is still going on
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: A
57. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided
a) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
d) None of the above
Ans: B
58. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr. PC
a) U/s. 214
b) U/s. 215
c) U/s. 216
d) U/s.210
Ans: C
59. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given State, under Section
a) State government
b) Central government
c)Supreme Court of India
d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: A
60. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government?
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Ans: B Section 6
61. Court’s power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act
a) Under Section 20
b) Under Section 21
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: B
62. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates to
a)Water pollution
b)Air and water pollution
c)Noise and air pollution
d) Water and noise pollution
Ans: C
63. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal Corporation
c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Ans: B
64. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as
a) Includes a river but not a water course
b) Includes a water course but not a river
c) Includes river and water course , but not subterranean waters
d) Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
Ans: D
65. What is the punishment for advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation?
a) Impose a fine
b) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
c) Suspension from practice
d) All of the above
Ans: D
66. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of
a) A court
b) A Tribunal
c) A quasi judicial form
d) All of the above
Ans: A
67. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is
a) Industrial peace and economic justice
b) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) All of the above
Ans: D
68. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947 provides the definition of
a) Lock out
b) Lay off
c) Strike
d) Hartal
Ans: C
69. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) 1st March 1955
b) 1st March 1986
c) 1st March 1994
d) 1st March 1894
Ans: D
70. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
a) Wrongful restraint
b) Wrongful confinement
c) Outrage the modesty of a women
d) Maintenance to the divorced women
Ans: C
71. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means
a) Useful for residential purpose
b) Useful for commercial purpose
c) Useful for cultivation
d) Useful for industrial purpose
Ans: C
72. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related to
a) Sexual harassment at workplace
b) Protection of civil rights
c) Uniform civil code
d) None of the above
Ans: A
73. Statement recorded during investigation U/s. 161 can be used in trial
a) For contradicting the witness
b) For corroborating the witness
c) Incorporating in the charge sheet
d) Discharging the accused
Ans: A
74. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means
a) All statements made before the court by the witness
b) All statement made before the police by the accused
c) All statement of facts which a witness heard to say
d) All of the above
Ans: A
75. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
a) All Judges
b) All Magistrates
c) All Arbitrators
d) (a) and (b)
Ans: D
76. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
d) None of the above
Ans: C
77. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
a) Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
b) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
c) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
d) Documents and circulars from University of Delhi
Ans: C
78. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is
a) 5
b) 10
c) 7
d) 2
Ans: C
79. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives
a) Certification of incorporation
b) Letter of intent
c) Occupation certificate
d) None of the above
Ans: A
80. Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Assumption) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
I. Acquinars (a) Jural postulates
II. Pound (b) Spirit of people
III. Kelsen (c) Ground norm
IV. Savigny (d) Reason and will in law
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(C) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(D) (d) (b) (a) (c)
Ans: A
81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
I. Law in a changing society (a) Fuller
II. Human Law and Human Justice (b) Friedman
III. The morality of law (c) Stone
IV. Ancient law (d) Main
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: B
82. Which one of the following schools of Jurisprudence considers that “a reasoned scale of values can be discovered as a basis for legal development”?
(A) Sociological
(B) Historical
(C) Analytical
(D) Philosophical
Ans: D
83. According to Salmond, the correlative of liberty is
(A) Duty
(B) No rights
(C) Subjection
(D) Disabilities
Ans: B
84. Assertion (A): Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
85. Assertion (A): International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity
Reason (R): Equity is one of the General Principles of Law recognized by Civilized Nations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
86. Match List-I with List-II:
List – I (Subject Matter) List – II (Cases)
(a) International Custom (i) S. S. Lotus (France v. Turkey) PCIJ, Series A, No. 10
(b) Res Judicata (ii) U. N. Administrative Tribunal case, International Law Reports, 1954, P. 310
(c) Legal status of General Assembly Resolutions on decolonization and self-determination (iii) Western Sahara Case, Advisory Opinion, ICJ Rep., 1975, P. 12
(d) Human Rights (iv) Lawless Case, American Journal of International Law, Vol. 56, 1962, P. 187
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: A
87. U. N. Commission on Human Rights has been discarded and replaced by
(A) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Committee
(B) Amnesty International
(C) Human Rights Committee
(D) Human Rights Council
Ans: D
88. Which of the following is not a primary source of International Law?
(A) International Treaty
(B) Decision of International Court of Justice
(C) International Custom
(D) General Principle of Law recognized by Civilized Nations
Ans: B
89. Which of the following cases relates to retroactive nature of the act of recognition of government?
(A) Aksionairnoye Obschestro A. M. Luthar V. James Sagor & Co., (1921) 3 K.B. P. 532
(B) Trendtex Trading Corporation V. Central Bank of Nigeria, (1977) B. P. 529
(C) Central Air Transport Inc. V. Central Air Transport Corporation, (1953) A. C. P. 70
(D) Nicaragua V. U.S.A., ICJ Rep., 1984, P. 169.
Ans: C
90. In a case concerning the legality of the Threat or use of Nuclear Weapons, the International Court of Justice gave advisory opinion at the request of:
(A) U.N. Security Council
(B) U. N. General Assembly
(C) World Health Organization
(D) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organization
Ans: B
91. Which is not the modern source of Hindu Law?
(A) Equity, Justice and Good Conscience
(B) Precedent
(C) Sruti
(D) Legislation
Ans: C
92. Consider the following propositions and give the correct answer
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
Codes:
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: C
93. Assertion (A): Break down of marriage as such is not a ground for Divorce.
Reason (R): It may result into an easy way of dissolution of marriage and shall result into instability in the society.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: A
94. Dastane vs. Dastane is a case decided by the Supreme Court relating to:
(A) Adultery
(B) Dessertion
(C) Cruelty
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
95. Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be made compulsory registrable in their respective States where the marriage is solemnised. This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of:
(A) Githa Hariharn vs. RBI
(B) Seema vs. Ashwani Kumar
(C) John Vallamathom vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
96. Assertion (A): The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 brought changes like prohibition of polygamy and prigamy and permission for inter-caste marriages.
Reason (R): The changes were brought under social pressure.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
97. An agreement made by mistake is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Immoral
Ans: A
98. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority.
(ii) Minor’s contract cannot be ratified on attaining majority.
(iii) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract.
(iv) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: B
99. Assertion (A): Damages must be related to damage.
Reason (R): Damage is damaging and damages are compensating.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
100. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they appeared.
Use the codes given below:
(i) Offer by x to y
(ii) Undue influence of x over y
(iii) Demand of damages by y from x
(iv) Acceptance of the offer by y.
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: C