OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY- PAGE 1
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY MCQs
1:-Materno fetal transmission in Toxoplasmosis occurs maximally in
A:-1st trimester
B:-2nd trimester
C:-3rd trimester
D:-At delivery
Ans: C
2:-Which is not a complication of Rh incompatibility?
A:-APH
B:-PPH
C:-Oligamnios
D:-Pre eclampsia
Ans: C
3:-The following are contraindications of trial labour except
A:-Elderly primi
B:-1st degree CPD
C:-Mal presentation
D:-Post maturity
Ans: B
4:-Bishops score include all except
A:-Dilatation of Cx
B:-Effacement
C:-Contraction
D:-Station of head
Ans: C
5:-The most important factor in success of induction of labour
A:-Primi
B:-Cervical factor
C:-Live foetus
D:-Sensitivity of uterus
Ans: B
6:-The most important function of forceps
A:-Compression
B:-Grasping of fetal head
C:-Rotation of head
D:-Traction
Ans: D
7:-Commonest cause of Breech presentation
A:-Twins
B:-Hydrocephalus
C:-Hydramnios
D:-Prematurity
Ans: D
8:-The most important complication of surgical management of broad ligament haematoma
A:-Torrential bleeding
B:-Injury to bowel
C:-Injury to ureter
D:-Injury to bladder
Ans: C
9:-A case of 35 wks pregnancy with polyhydramnios and marked respiratory distress is managed by
A:-IV furosemide
B:-Saline infusion
C:-Amniocentesis
D:-ARM
Ans: C
10:-Rupture of membranes is said to be premature when it occurs at
A:-38 wks of pregnancy
B:-32 wks of pregnancy
C:-Prior to 1st stage of labour
D:-2nd stage of labour
Ans: B
11:-Post term pregnancy is that which continues beyond
A:-300 days
B:-294 days
C:-280 days
D:-270 days
Ans: B
12:-Which does not cause hydrops fetalis?
A:-Syphillis
B:-Rh isoimmunisation
C:-ABO incompatibility
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
13:-The best time to do chorionic villus sampling is
A:-Between 6 - 8 wks
B:-Between 7 - 9 wks
C:-Between 9 - 11 wks
D:-Between 11 - 13 wks
Ans: D
14:-Amniotic fluid contains acetylcholine esterase enzymes, what is the diagnosis?
A:-Open spina bifida
B:-Gastroschisis
C:-Omphalocoele
D:-Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ans: A
15:-Which of the following drugs is teratogenic?
A:-Carbamazepine
B:-Valproic acid
C:-Phenobarbitone
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
16:-According to MTP Act 2nd doctors opinion is required when pregnancy is
A:-10 wks
B:-6 wks
C:-> 12 wks
D:-> 20 wks
Ans: C
17:-Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with
A:-Macrosomia
B:-IUGR
C:-Post maturity
D:-Congenital malformation
Ans: A
18:-Which of the following abnormality is commonly seen in fetus with congenital malformation in CMV infection?
A:-Colitis
B:-Myocarditis
C:-Blood dyscrasias
D:-Pulmonary cyst
Ans: C
19:-Late deceleration on a CTG indicates
A:-Head compression
B:-Cord compression
C:-Fetal hypoxia
D:-Fetal sleep
Ans: C
20:-Which is true regarding Appendicitis in pregnancy?
A:-Leucocytosis is helpful in diagnosis
B:-Pain and tenderness prominent in right lower quadrant
C:-Pregnant woman has symptoms typical for non pregnant patients with appendicitis
D:-More likely to cause generalised peritonitis
Ans: D
A:-1st trimester
B:-2nd trimester
C:-3rd trimester
D:-At delivery
Ans: C
2:-Which is not a complication of Rh incompatibility?
A:-APH
B:-PPH
C:-Oligamnios
D:-Pre eclampsia
Ans: C
3:-The following are contraindications of trial labour except
A:-Elderly primi
B:-1st degree CPD
C:-Mal presentation
D:-Post maturity
Ans: B
4:-Bishops score include all except
A:-Dilatation of Cx
B:-Effacement
C:-Contraction
D:-Station of head
Ans: C
5:-The most important factor in success of induction of labour
A:-Primi
B:-Cervical factor
C:-Live foetus
D:-Sensitivity of uterus
Ans: B
6:-The most important function of forceps
A:-Compression
B:-Grasping of fetal head
C:-Rotation of head
D:-Traction
Ans: D
7:-Commonest cause of Breech presentation
A:-Twins
B:-Hydrocephalus
C:-Hydramnios
D:-Prematurity
Ans: D
8:-The most important complication of surgical management of broad ligament haematoma
A:-Torrential bleeding
B:-Injury to bowel
C:-Injury to ureter
D:-Injury to bladder
Ans: C
9:-A case of 35 wks pregnancy with polyhydramnios and marked respiratory distress is managed by
A:-IV furosemide
B:-Saline infusion
C:-Amniocentesis
D:-ARM
Ans: C
10:-Rupture of membranes is said to be premature when it occurs at
A:-38 wks of pregnancy
B:-32 wks of pregnancy
C:-Prior to 1st stage of labour
D:-2nd stage of labour
Ans: B
11:-Post term pregnancy is that which continues beyond
A:-300 days
B:-294 days
C:-280 days
D:-270 days
Ans: B
12:-Which does not cause hydrops fetalis?
A:-Syphillis
B:-Rh isoimmunisation
C:-ABO incompatibility
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
13:-The best time to do chorionic villus sampling is
A:-Between 6 - 8 wks
B:-Between 7 - 9 wks
C:-Between 9 - 11 wks
D:-Between 11 - 13 wks
Ans: D
14:-Amniotic fluid contains acetylcholine esterase enzymes, what is the diagnosis?
A:-Open spina bifida
B:-Gastroschisis
C:-Omphalocoele
D:-Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ans: A
15:-Which of the following drugs is teratogenic?
A:-Carbamazepine
B:-Valproic acid
C:-Phenobarbitone
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
16:-According to MTP Act 2nd doctors opinion is required when pregnancy is
A:-10 wks
B:-6 wks
C:-> 12 wks
D:-> 20 wks
Ans: C
17:-Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with
A:-Macrosomia
B:-IUGR
C:-Post maturity
D:-Congenital malformation
Ans: A
18:-Which of the following abnormality is commonly seen in fetus with congenital malformation in CMV infection?
A:-Colitis
B:-Myocarditis
C:-Blood dyscrasias
D:-Pulmonary cyst
Ans: C
19:-Late deceleration on a CTG indicates
A:-Head compression
B:-Cord compression
C:-Fetal hypoxia
D:-Fetal sleep
Ans: C
20:-Which is true regarding Appendicitis in pregnancy?
A:-Leucocytosis is helpful in diagnosis
B:-Pain and tenderness prominent in right lower quadrant
C:-Pregnant woman has symptoms typical for non pregnant patients with appendicitis
D:-More likely to cause generalised peritonitis
Ans: D
21:-When does HCG level reach a peak in normal pregnancy?
A:-20 - 30 days
B:-30 - 40 days
C:-60 - 70 days
D:-100 - 110 days
Ans: C
22:-Following are renal changes in pregnancy except
A:-Renal blood flow increases by 80%
B:-Glomerular filtration rate increases by 50%
C:-Creatinine and other clearances increased
D:-Serum creatinine increased
Ans: D
23:-Predictors of pre eclampsia in 1st trimester are all except
A:-PAPP-A (Pregnancy associated plasma protein A)
B:-Uterine artery doppler
C:-HCG
D:-Placental growth factor
Ans: C
24:-All are causes of mobile head in primigravida at term except
A:-Deflexed head
B:-CPD
C:-Low inclination pelvis
D:-Polyhydramnios
Ans: C
25:-The distance between mid point of racial promontary and inner margin of upper symphasis pub is
A:-11 cm
B:-10 cm
C:-12 cm
D:-13.5 cm
Ans: A
26:-Which test indicates lung maturity?
A:-NST
B:-Shake test
C:-Kleuher test
D:-Fetal breathing movements
Ans: B
27:-The following are true about retraction except
A:-muscle fibres permanently shortened
B:-progressive and intense during 1st stage
C:-special property of upper uterine segment
D:-effects haemostasis after separation of placenta
Ans: B
28:-Not a sign of early pregnancy
A:-Lemon sign
B:-Ossianders sign
C:-Piskacek's sign
D:-Palmers sign
Ans: A
29:-Folds of Hoboken are found in
A:-Amnios
B:-Placenta
C:-Uterus
D:-Umbilical cord
Ans: D
30:-Milk secretion is enhanced by all hormones except
A:-growth hormone
B:-thyroxin
C:-glucocorticoids
D:-estrogen
Ans: D
31:-All are common causes of recurrent mid trimester abortions except
A:-Cervical incompetence
B:-Bicornuate uterus
C:-Aneuploidy
D:-Fibroid
Ans: C
32:-All are true regarding partial mole except
A:-Karyotype 46XX
B:-Fetus has high risk of chromosomal anomalies
C:-Confused with threatened abortion
D:-Malignant potential low
Ans: A
33:-Most common cause of perinatal mortality in multiple pregnancy
A:-Dystocia
B:-Anaemia
C:-Interlocking
D:-Prematurity
Ans: D
34:-All of the following are causes of polyhydramnios except
A:-Oesophageal atresia
B:-Chorio angioma
C:-Urethral obstruction
D:-Open neural tube defects
Ans: C
35:-Retained succenturiate lobe of placenta may lead to
A:-Secondary PPH
B:-Subinvolution
C:-Sepsis
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
36:-Which of the following regime is not found to be of use in prevention of PIH in high risk women?
A:-Rest
B:-Low dose aspirin
C:-Salt restriction
D:-Regular antenatal check up
Ans: C
37:-Contraindication for expectant regime in placenta praevia are all except
A:-Bleeding at 36 wks
B:-Profuse bleeding
C:-Baby dead
D:-Congenital anomaly of foetus
Ans: A
38:-Which of the following Doppler findings in IUGR is associated with worst prognosis?
A:-Reversal of diastolic flow
B:-Absence of diastolic flow
C:-Absence of systolic flow
D:-Diastolic notch
Ans: A
39:-Contraindication for ventouse extraction is
A:-Prematurity
B:-Brow presentation
C:-Fetal distress
D:-Floating head
Ans: A
40:-Indication for classical caesarian
A:-Obstructed labour
B:-`"C_AC_X"`
C:-Placenta praevia
D:-Twin pregnancy
Ans: B
41:-Cardiac failure is most likely in pregnancy at
A:-32 wks
B:-1st stage of labour
C:-3rd stage of labour
D:-4th stage of labour
Ans: D
42:-Most common cause of maternal hypothyroidism
A:-Autoimmune thyroid disease
B:-Previous treatment of Graves disease
C:-Subtotal thyroidectomy
D:-Excessive use of PTU for thyroid disease (Graves)
Ans: A
43:-In a well baby clinic a neonate is brought with liver two fingers enlarged. The cause is
A:-Normal phenomenon
B:-Hepatitis
C:-Choledochal cyst
D:-Biliary atresia
Ans: A
44:-Meconiam is excreted in new born till day
A:-2
B:-3
C:-6
D:-4
Ans: B
45:-Commonest type of Genito urinary fistulae
A:-Vescico vaginal
B:-Utero vaginal
C:-Vescico uterine
D:-Urethro vaginal
Ans: A
46:-The commonest gynaecological cause of retention urine
A:-Vaginal operations
B:-Ovarian tumours
C:-Cervical fibroid
D:-Haemato colpos
Ans: A
47:-Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
A:-Vaginal hysterectomy
B:-Abdominal hysterectomy
C:-Werthimes hysterectomy
D:-Anterior colporraphy
Ans: C
48:-A semen sample reveals 15 million/ml, 80% normal morphology 80% motile and volume 3 ml, pH-8 diagnosis
A:-Aspermia
B:-Azoospermia
C:-Oligospermia
D:-Asthenospermia
Ans: C
49:-In a patient with infertility treated with clomiphene which of the following methods is best for follow up?
A:-Cervical mucous viscosity
B:-BBT
C:-USG to monitor follicle size
D:-Hormonal assay
Ans: C
50:-A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites. Probable cause is
A:-Uterine rupture
B:-Ectopic pregnancy
C:-Multi fetal pregnancy
D:-Hyper stimulation syndrome
Ans: D
A:-20 - 30 days
B:-30 - 40 days
C:-60 - 70 days
D:-100 - 110 days
Ans: C
22:-Following are renal changes in pregnancy except
A:-Renal blood flow increases by 80%
B:-Glomerular filtration rate increases by 50%
C:-Creatinine and other clearances increased
D:-Serum creatinine increased
Ans: D
23:-Predictors of pre eclampsia in 1st trimester are all except
A:-PAPP-A (Pregnancy associated plasma protein A)
B:-Uterine artery doppler
C:-HCG
D:-Placental growth factor
Ans: C
24:-All are causes of mobile head in primigravida at term except
A:-Deflexed head
B:-CPD
C:-Low inclination pelvis
D:-Polyhydramnios
Ans: C
25:-The distance between mid point of racial promontary and inner margin of upper symphasis pub is
A:-11 cm
B:-10 cm
C:-12 cm
D:-13.5 cm
Ans: A
26:-Which test indicates lung maturity?
A:-NST
B:-Shake test
C:-Kleuher test
D:-Fetal breathing movements
Ans: B
27:-The following are true about retraction except
A:-muscle fibres permanently shortened
B:-progressive and intense during 1st stage
C:-special property of upper uterine segment
D:-effects haemostasis after separation of placenta
Ans: B
28:-Not a sign of early pregnancy
A:-Lemon sign
B:-Ossianders sign
C:-Piskacek's sign
D:-Palmers sign
Ans: A
29:-Folds of Hoboken are found in
A:-Amnios
B:-Placenta
C:-Uterus
D:-Umbilical cord
Ans: D
30:-Milk secretion is enhanced by all hormones except
A:-growth hormone
B:-thyroxin
C:-glucocorticoids
D:-estrogen
Ans: D
31:-All are common causes of recurrent mid trimester abortions except
A:-Cervical incompetence
B:-Bicornuate uterus
C:-Aneuploidy
D:-Fibroid
Ans: C
32:-All are true regarding partial mole except
A:-Karyotype 46XX
B:-Fetus has high risk of chromosomal anomalies
C:-Confused with threatened abortion
D:-Malignant potential low
Ans: A
33:-Most common cause of perinatal mortality in multiple pregnancy
A:-Dystocia
B:-Anaemia
C:-Interlocking
D:-Prematurity
Ans: D
34:-All of the following are causes of polyhydramnios except
A:-Oesophageal atresia
B:-Chorio angioma
C:-Urethral obstruction
D:-Open neural tube defects
Ans: C
35:-Retained succenturiate lobe of placenta may lead to
A:-Secondary PPH
B:-Subinvolution
C:-Sepsis
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
36:-Which of the following regime is not found to be of use in prevention of PIH in high risk women?
A:-Rest
B:-Low dose aspirin
C:-Salt restriction
D:-Regular antenatal check up
Ans: C
37:-Contraindication for expectant regime in placenta praevia are all except
A:-Bleeding at 36 wks
B:-Profuse bleeding
C:-Baby dead
D:-Congenital anomaly of foetus
Ans: A
38:-Which of the following Doppler findings in IUGR is associated with worst prognosis?
A:-Reversal of diastolic flow
B:-Absence of diastolic flow
C:-Absence of systolic flow
D:-Diastolic notch
Ans: A
39:-Contraindication for ventouse extraction is
A:-Prematurity
B:-Brow presentation
C:-Fetal distress
D:-Floating head
Ans: A
40:-Indication for classical caesarian
A:-Obstructed labour
B:-`"C_AC_X"`
C:-Placenta praevia
D:-Twin pregnancy
Ans: B
41:-Cardiac failure is most likely in pregnancy at
A:-32 wks
B:-1st stage of labour
C:-3rd stage of labour
D:-4th stage of labour
Ans: D
42:-Most common cause of maternal hypothyroidism
A:-Autoimmune thyroid disease
B:-Previous treatment of Graves disease
C:-Subtotal thyroidectomy
D:-Excessive use of PTU for thyroid disease (Graves)
Ans: A
43:-In a well baby clinic a neonate is brought with liver two fingers enlarged. The cause is
A:-Normal phenomenon
B:-Hepatitis
C:-Choledochal cyst
D:-Biliary atresia
Ans: A
44:-Meconiam is excreted in new born till day
A:-2
B:-3
C:-6
D:-4
Ans: B
45:-Commonest type of Genito urinary fistulae
A:-Vescico vaginal
B:-Utero vaginal
C:-Vescico uterine
D:-Urethro vaginal
Ans: A
46:-The commonest gynaecological cause of retention urine
A:-Vaginal operations
B:-Ovarian tumours
C:-Cervical fibroid
D:-Haemato colpos
Ans: A
47:-Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
A:-Vaginal hysterectomy
B:-Abdominal hysterectomy
C:-Werthimes hysterectomy
D:-Anterior colporraphy
Ans: C
48:-A semen sample reveals 15 million/ml, 80% normal morphology 80% motile and volume 3 ml, pH-8 diagnosis
A:-Aspermia
B:-Azoospermia
C:-Oligospermia
D:-Asthenospermia
Ans: C
49:-In a patient with infertility treated with clomiphene which of the following methods is best for follow up?
A:-Cervical mucous viscosity
B:-BBT
C:-USG to monitor follicle size
D:-Hormonal assay
Ans: C
50:-A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites. Probable cause is
A:-Uterine rupture
B:-Ectopic pregnancy
C:-Multi fetal pregnancy
D:-Hyper stimulation syndrome
Ans: D
51:-Management of azoospermia due to blocked vasdeferens
A:-ICSI
B:-PESA
C:-Zona drilling
D:-Artificial insemination
Ans: B
52:-Puberty menorrhagia is managed by
A:-Danazol
B:-Progestogens
C:-Oestrogens
D:-D&C
Ans: B
53:-A 35 yr old woman presents with DUB not responding to medical management. Management is
A:-Total abdominal hysterectomy
B:-LAVH
C:-Endometrial ablation
D:-Vaginal hysterectomy
Ans: C
54:-Gartners cyst can be differentiated from cystocoele by all except
A:-Tense
B:-Well defined margins
C:-Impulse on coughing
D:-Not reducible
Ans: C
55:-Fixed retroversion is caused by
A:-Pelvic endometriosis
B:-PID
C:-Pelvic peritonitis
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
56:-Enterocoele repair during abdominal operation is
A:-McLeod's repair
B:-Moschowitz repair
C:-Kellys repair
D:-Shirodhkars repair
Ans: B
57:-In the pathogenesis of Endometriosis, Meyer and Ivanoff theory suggests which of the following as a cause of endometriosis?
A:-Retrograde menstruation
B:-Coelomic metaplasia
C:-Direct implantation
D:-Lymphatic theory
Ans: B
58:-Investigation of choice in Endometriosis
A:-USG
B:-MRI
C:-CT Scan
D:-Laparoscopy
Ans: D
59:-All are used in treating spasmodic dysmenorrhea except
A:-Bromergocryptine
B:-Dilatation of cervix
C:-Mefanamic acid
D:-OC pill
Ans: A
60:-The benefits of combined oestrogen progestrone replacement therapy include all except
A:-Cardiovascular protection
B:-Bone protection
C:-Decrease in CA breast
D:-Decrease in CA endometrium
Ans: C
61:-The primary carcinoma of body of uterus may be following types except
A:-Adeno carcinoma
B:-Adeno squamous carcinoma
C:-Adeno acanthoma
D:-Large cell keratinising type
Ans: D
62:-Commonest symptom of vulval cancer
A:-Pruritis
B:-Ulcer
C:-Bleeding
D:-Pain
Ans: A
63:-Call exner bodies are seen in
A:-Endodermal sinus tumour
B:-Chorio carcinoma
C:-Granulosa cell tumour
D:-Arrehnoblastoma
Ans: C
64:-Most common malignancy of vagina
A:-Squamous cell carcinoma
B:-Adeno carcinoma
C:-Adeno cystic carcinoma
D:-Adeno squamous carcinoma
Ans: A
65:-Contraceptive failure is calculated by
A:-Pearl Index
B:-Pincus Index
C:-Russel Index
D:-Reids Index
Ans: A
66:-Mirena is effective for
A:-1 year
B:-2 years
C:-3 years
D:-5 years
Ans: D
67:-Commonest complication of intrauterine device
A:-Bleeding
B:-Pain
C:-Infection
D:-Ectopic pregnancy
Ans: A
68:-Post partum IUCD is inserted
A:-within 10 mts of placental expulsion
B:-after repairing episiotomy
C:-after 1 day
D:-after 6 wks
Ans: A
69:-A rape victim comes on 4th day for contraception. The best method is
A:-high dose oestrogens
B:-high dose progestogens
C:-combination of oestrogen and progestrone
D:-CuT
Ans: D
70:-Which progestogen in OC pill is ideal in contraception for a woman who fears weight gain?
A:-Norethisterone
B:-Drosperinone
C:-Levanogestral
D:-Norethindrone
Ans: B
71:-Which of the following contraceptive produces Hypokalemic paralysis and arrythmias?
A:-Cenchroman
B:-GnRH analogus
C:-Glossypol
D:-Combined OC pill
Ans: C
72:-Senile vaginitis is due to
A:-Gonococcal infection
B:-CaCx
C:-Diabetis
D:-Estrogen deficiency
Ans: D
73:-Intra abdominal pressure at laparoscopy should be set between
A:-5 - 8 mm of Hg
B:-10 - 15 mm of Hg
C:-20 - 25 mm of Hg
D:-30 - 35 mm of Hg
Ans: B
74:-Mifeprostone may be used for all except
A:-Threatened abortion
B:-Ectopic pregnancy
C:-Fibroids
D:-Post coital contraception
Ans: A
75:-Results of recanalisation is better if tubal sterilization is done with
A:-Filshies clip
B:-Falope ring
C:-Pomeroys
D:-Irvings technique
Ans: A
76:-Which of the following is not a branch of internal iliac artery?
A:-Superior vescical
B:-External pudental
C:-Uterine
D:-Vaginal
Ans: B
77:-Foeto-placental circulation is established at
A:-10th day
B:-13th day
C:-16th day
D:-22nd day
Ans: D
78:-Placenta is formed from
A:-Chorion feondosum and decidua basalis
B:-Chorion laevae and decidua parietalis
C:-Chorion feondosum and decidua capsularis
D:-Chorion feondosum and decidua parietalis
Ans: A
79. A rapid mass screening method that can be employed by a paramedical worker for detecting malnutrition in pre-school (age: 1 to 5 years) children is:
(a) Weight for age (b) Height for age (c) Mid-arm circumference (d) Body Mass Index
Ans: C
80. The most important single determinant of infant mortality is:
(a) Birth weight (b) Age of the mother (c) Order of birth (d) Inteval between births
Ans: A
81. The immunoglobulins that can be transported across the placenta include:
(a) IgG only (b) IgA only (c) Both IgG and IgA (d) Neither IgG nor IgA
Ans: B
82. Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of immunity is longer when live vaccine is administered as compared to the administration of killed vaccine.
2. In the case of killed vaccine, single dose is sufficient whereas multiple doses are always required in the case of live vaccines.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List- I (Disease) List- II (Incubation Period)
A. Measles 1. 6 weeks to 6 months
B. Diphtheria 2. 15 to 50 days
C. Hepatitis A 3. 10 to 14 days
D. Hepatitis B 4. 2 to 6 days
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: D
84. Throat swab positive and Schick test negative indicate that the person is:
(a) Suffering from diphtheria (b) Susceptible to diphtheria
(c) Hypersensitive to diphtheria (d) Immune to diphtheria
Ans: A
85. The following are manifestations of psychosis except:
(a) Psychoneurosis (b) Schizophrenia
(c) Manic depressive psychosis (d) Paranoia
Ans: A
86. A 23 year old presents with recurrent abortions at 16 weeks gestation. She should be investigated for:
(a) TORCH infection (b) Hepatitis B infection (c) Incompetent cervix (d) Balanced paternal translocation
Ans: C
87. Which of the following is the most common cause of abortion during first trimester?
(a) Cervical incompetence (b) Progesterone deficiency
(c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (d) Chromosomal anomalies of foetus
Ans: D
88. Abnormally low alpha-fetoprotein in maternal serum indicates:
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Anencephaly (c) Encephalocele (d) Meningocele
Ans: A
89. Umbilical cord blood stem cells are used to treat all the following diseases except :
(a) Parkinsonism (b) Leukemia (c) Diabetes (d) Osteoporosis
Ans: D
90. A patient of ectopic pregnancy had beta-hCG less than 6000 IU/ml. Medical management was done by single dose methotrexate. Beta-hCG repeated after 48 hours was found 7000 IU/ml. What will you do further?
(a) Repeat the injection of methotrexate (b) Operate the patient
(c) Follow up with Beta-hCG after one week (d) Follow up with Beta-hCG after 72 hours
Ans: D
91. A 35 year old married woman with no risk factors for cervical cancer is having Pap smear showing ‘atypical squamous cells of undermined significance (ASCUS)’ for the first time. What is the further step in the management?
(a) Repeat Pap immediately (b) Cryotherapy
(c) Large loop excision of the transformation zone (d) To follow up with Pap test at 6 months
Ans: D
92. For a primary amenorrhoea individual having an XY karyotype, normal infantile female external and internal genitalia fibrous bands in place of gonad, lack of development of secondary sexual characters, what is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Testicular ferminization syndrome (b) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
(c) Swyer syndrome (d) Defective antimullerian harmone
Ans: C
93. A lady who is using oral contraceptive pills comes with a complaint of vaginal discharge and pruritus vulvae. On local examination, there is curdy white discharge from the vagina. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
(a) Trichomonal vaginitis (b) Monilial vaginitis (c) Gardnerella vaginalis (d) Atrophic vaginitis
Ans: B
94. Antisperm antibodies are usually present in:
(a) Cervix (b) Vagina (c) Uterus (d) Fallopian tube
Ans: A
95. For a woman who has been operated for chocolate cyst with normal menstrual cycle, any of the following may be prescribed except:
(a) Injection leuprolide (b) Tranexamic acid (c) Tablet dienogest (d) Oral progestogens
Ans: B
96. For a 40 year old hypertensive woman, which one of the following is not recommended for contraception?
(a) NuvaRing (b) Minipill (c) IUCD (d) LNG IUD (LNg IUD)
Ans: A
97. A 30 year old female has severe dysmenorrhoea and dyspareunia. On examination, uterus is 8 weeks size, uniformly enlarged and there is tenderness in posterior fornix. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Fibroid uterus (b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (c) Adenomyosis (d) Endometrial carcinoma
Ans: C
98.A 35 year old nulliparous woman complains of menorrhagia and mass per abdomen. On examination, the positive findings are: she is anaemic, has a pelvic mass of 16-18 weeks size, firm in consistency which moves with the movement of cervix. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
(a) Leiomyoma (b) Adenomyosis (c) Endometrial carcinoma (d) Ovarian tumour
Ans: A
99. Abundant cornified cells in vaginal exfoliative cytology indicate:
(a) Early proliferative phase (b) Late proliferative phase (c) Early secretory phase (d) Late secretory phase
Ans: B
100. Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon dioxide is the safest gas for creating pneumoperitoneum in operative laparoscopy.
2. Laparoscopic sterilization is not recommended during the period of immediate postpartum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
A:-ICSI
B:-PESA
C:-Zona drilling
D:-Artificial insemination
Ans: B
52:-Puberty menorrhagia is managed by
A:-Danazol
B:-Progestogens
C:-Oestrogens
D:-D&C
Ans: B
53:-A 35 yr old woman presents with DUB not responding to medical management. Management is
A:-Total abdominal hysterectomy
B:-LAVH
C:-Endometrial ablation
D:-Vaginal hysterectomy
Ans: C
54:-Gartners cyst can be differentiated from cystocoele by all except
A:-Tense
B:-Well defined margins
C:-Impulse on coughing
D:-Not reducible
Ans: C
55:-Fixed retroversion is caused by
A:-Pelvic endometriosis
B:-PID
C:-Pelvic peritonitis
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
56:-Enterocoele repair during abdominal operation is
A:-McLeod's repair
B:-Moschowitz repair
C:-Kellys repair
D:-Shirodhkars repair
Ans: B
57:-In the pathogenesis of Endometriosis, Meyer and Ivanoff theory suggests which of the following as a cause of endometriosis?
A:-Retrograde menstruation
B:-Coelomic metaplasia
C:-Direct implantation
D:-Lymphatic theory
Ans: B
58:-Investigation of choice in Endometriosis
A:-USG
B:-MRI
C:-CT Scan
D:-Laparoscopy
Ans: D
59:-All are used in treating spasmodic dysmenorrhea except
A:-Bromergocryptine
B:-Dilatation of cervix
C:-Mefanamic acid
D:-OC pill
Ans: A
60:-The benefits of combined oestrogen progestrone replacement therapy include all except
A:-Cardiovascular protection
B:-Bone protection
C:-Decrease in CA breast
D:-Decrease in CA endometrium
Ans: C
61:-The primary carcinoma of body of uterus may be following types except
A:-Adeno carcinoma
B:-Adeno squamous carcinoma
C:-Adeno acanthoma
D:-Large cell keratinising type
Ans: D
62:-Commonest symptom of vulval cancer
A:-Pruritis
B:-Ulcer
C:-Bleeding
D:-Pain
Ans: A
63:-Call exner bodies are seen in
A:-Endodermal sinus tumour
B:-Chorio carcinoma
C:-Granulosa cell tumour
D:-Arrehnoblastoma
Ans: C
64:-Most common malignancy of vagina
A:-Squamous cell carcinoma
B:-Adeno carcinoma
C:-Adeno cystic carcinoma
D:-Adeno squamous carcinoma
Ans: A
65:-Contraceptive failure is calculated by
A:-Pearl Index
B:-Pincus Index
C:-Russel Index
D:-Reids Index
Ans: A
66:-Mirena is effective for
A:-1 year
B:-2 years
C:-3 years
D:-5 years
Ans: D
67:-Commonest complication of intrauterine device
A:-Bleeding
B:-Pain
C:-Infection
D:-Ectopic pregnancy
Ans: A
68:-Post partum IUCD is inserted
A:-within 10 mts of placental expulsion
B:-after repairing episiotomy
C:-after 1 day
D:-after 6 wks
Ans: A
69:-A rape victim comes on 4th day for contraception. The best method is
A:-high dose oestrogens
B:-high dose progestogens
C:-combination of oestrogen and progestrone
D:-CuT
Ans: D
70:-Which progestogen in OC pill is ideal in contraception for a woman who fears weight gain?
A:-Norethisterone
B:-Drosperinone
C:-Levanogestral
D:-Norethindrone
Ans: B
71:-Which of the following contraceptive produces Hypokalemic paralysis and arrythmias?
A:-Cenchroman
B:-GnRH analogus
C:-Glossypol
D:-Combined OC pill
Ans: C
72:-Senile vaginitis is due to
A:-Gonococcal infection
B:-CaCx
C:-Diabetis
D:-Estrogen deficiency
Ans: D
73:-Intra abdominal pressure at laparoscopy should be set between
A:-5 - 8 mm of Hg
B:-10 - 15 mm of Hg
C:-20 - 25 mm of Hg
D:-30 - 35 mm of Hg
Ans: B
74:-Mifeprostone may be used for all except
A:-Threatened abortion
B:-Ectopic pregnancy
C:-Fibroids
D:-Post coital contraception
Ans: A
75:-Results of recanalisation is better if tubal sterilization is done with
A:-Filshies clip
B:-Falope ring
C:-Pomeroys
D:-Irvings technique
Ans: A
76:-Which of the following is not a branch of internal iliac artery?
A:-Superior vescical
B:-External pudental
C:-Uterine
D:-Vaginal
Ans: B
77:-Foeto-placental circulation is established at
A:-10th day
B:-13th day
C:-16th day
D:-22nd day
Ans: D
78:-Placenta is formed from
A:-Chorion feondosum and decidua basalis
B:-Chorion laevae and decidua parietalis
C:-Chorion feondosum and decidua capsularis
D:-Chorion feondosum and decidua parietalis
Ans: A
79. A rapid mass screening method that can be employed by a paramedical worker for detecting malnutrition in pre-school (age: 1 to 5 years) children is:
(a) Weight for age (b) Height for age (c) Mid-arm circumference (d) Body Mass Index
Ans: C
80. The most important single determinant of infant mortality is:
(a) Birth weight (b) Age of the mother (c) Order of birth (d) Inteval between births
Ans: A
81. The immunoglobulins that can be transported across the placenta include:
(a) IgG only (b) IgA only (c) Both IgG and IgA (d) Neither IgG nor IgA
Ans: B
82. Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of immunity is longer when live vaccine is administered as compared to the administration of killed vaccine.
2. In the case of killed vaccine, single dose is sufficient whereas multiple doses are always required in the case of live vaccines.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List- I (Disease) List- II (Incubation Period)
A. Measles 1. 6 weeks to 6 months
B. Diphtheria 2. 15 to 50 days
C. Hepatitis A 3. 10 to 14 days
D. Hepatitis B 4. 2 to 6 days
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: D
84. Throat swab positive and Schick test negative indicate that the person is:
(a) Suffering from diphtheria (b) Susceptible to diphtheria
(c) Hypersensitive to diphtheria (d) Immune to diphtheria
Ans: A
85. The following are manifestations of psychosis except:
(a) Psychoneurosis (b) Schizophrenia
(c) Manic depressive psychosis (d) Paranoia
Ans: A
86. A 23 year old presents with recurrent abortions at 16 weeks gestation. She should be investigated for:
(a) TORCH infection (b) Hepatitis B infection (c) Incompetent cervix (d) Balanced paternal translocation
Ans: C
87. Which of the following is the most common cause of abortion during first trimester?
(a) Cervical incompetence (b) Progesterone deficiency
(c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (d) Chromosomal anomalies of foetus
Ans: D
88. Abnormally low alpha-fetoprotein in maternal serum indicates:
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Anencephaly (c) Encephalocele (d) Meningocele
Ans: A
89. Umbilical cord blood stem cells are used to treat all the following diseases except :
(a) Parkinsonism (b) Leukemia (c) Diabetes (d) Osteoporosis
Ans: D
90. A patient of ectopic pregnancy had beta-hCG less than 6000 IU/ml. Medical management was done by single dose methotrexate. Beta-hCG repeated after 48 hours was found 7000 IU/ml. What will you do further?
(a) Repeat the injection of methotrexate (b) Operate the patient
(c) Follow up with Beta-hCG after one week (d) Follow up with Beta-hCG after 72 hours
Ans: D
91. A 35 year old married woman with no risk factors for cervical cancer is having Pap smear showing ‘atypical squamous cells of undermined significance (ASCUS)’ for the first time. What is the further step in the management?
(a) Repeat Pap immediately (b) Cryotherapy
(c) Large loop excision of the transformation zone (d) To follow up with Pap test at 6 months
Ans: D
92. For a primary amenorrhoea individual having an XY karyotype, normal infantile female external and internal genitalia fibrous bands in place of gonad, lack of development of secondary sexual characters, what is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Testicular ferminization syndrome (b) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
(c) Swyer syndrome (d) Defective antimullerian harmone
Ans: C
93. A lady who is using oral contraceptive pills comes with a complaint of vaginal discharge and pruritus vulvae. On local examination, there is curdy white discharge from the vagina. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
(a) Trichomonal vaginitis (b) Monilial vaginitis (c) Gardnerella vaginalis (d) Atrophic vaginitis
Ans: B
94. Antisperm antibodies are usually present in:
(a) Cervix (b) Vagina (c) Uterus (d) Fallopian tube
Ans: A
95. For a woman who has been operated for chocolate cyst with normal menstrual cycle, any of the following may be prescribed except:
(a) Injection leuprolide (b) Tranexamic acid (c) Tablet dienogest (d) Oral progestogens
Ans: B
96. For a 40 year old hypertensive woman, which one of the following is not recommended for contraception?
(a) NuvaRing (b) Minipill (c) IUCD (d) LNG IUD (LNg IUD)
Ans: A
97. A 30 year old female has severe dysmenorrhoea and dyspareunia. On examination, uterus is 8 weeks size, uniformly enlarged and there is tenderness in posterior fornix. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Fibroid uterus (b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (c) Adenomyosis (d) Endometrial carcinoma
Ans: C
98.A 35 year old nulliparous woman complains of menorrhagia and mass per abdomen. On examination, the positive findings are: she is anaemic, has a pelvic mass of 16-18 weeks size, firm in consistency which moves with the movement of cervix. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
(a) Leiomyoma (b) Adenomyosis (c) Endometrial carcinoma (d) Ovarian tumour
Ans: A
99. Abundant cornified cells in vaginal exfoliative cytology indicate:
(a) Early proliferative phase (b) Late proliferative phase (c) Early secretory phase (d) Late secretory phase
Ans: B
100. Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon dioxide is the safest gas for creating pneumoperitoneum in operative laparoscopy.
2. Laparoscopic sterilization is not recommended during the period of immediate postpartum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
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