OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY SYLLABUS
(These syllabus may change from time to time. Please check with the relevant Public Service Commission websites for any changes in the syllabus)
- Applied Basic Medical Sciences - viz., Anatomy, Physiology, Biochemistry, Endocrinology, Pharmacology, Pathology, Micro-biology and Genetics in relation to Obstetrics and Gynaecology.
- Principles and practice of Obstetrics including Operative Obstetrics and diseases of new born, Gynaecology including Operative Gynaecology.
- High Risk and Critical Obstetrics.
- Updating of diagnostic procedures pertaining to Obstetrics and Gynaecology.
- General Medicines, Medical diseases and Surgery in relation to Obstetrics and Gynaecology including Recent Medical and Surgical advancements.
- Update in RCH Services, STD and hormonal therapy.
- Molecular Biology in Obstetrics.
- Medicolegal aspects in relation to Obstetrics and Gynaecology.
- Population Control and Family Welfare, Planning, Statistical Demography in relation to Obstetrics and Gynaecology.
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY MCQs
1) Commonest cause of death in cervical cancer –
A) Renal failure
B) Haemorrhage
C) Sepsis
D) Hepatic failure
Ans: 1
2) Commonest site of Pelvic endometriosis is-
A) Uterosacral Ligament
B) Ovary
C) Rectovarginal septum
D) Pelvic Peritoneum
Ans: 2
3) All are germcell tumour of Ovary except -
A) Chorio carcinoma
B) Grannulosa cell tumour
C) Dysgerminoma
D) Endometrial sinus tumour
Ans: 2
4) Intrasytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is indicated in -
A) Tubal Block
B) Mild aligosprmia
C) PCOS
D) Surgically retrieved sperms
Ans: 4
5) Organ develop from Mesonephric duct –
A) Uterus
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Upper vagina
D) None of above
Ans: 4
6) Which of the following drug reduces uterine contractility and causes pulmonary oedema?
A) Retodrine
B) Nifedepine
C) Atosiban
D) Indomethacin
Ans: 1
7) Labia minor contains
A) Sebaceous gland
B) Sweat gland
C) Hair follicles
D) All of the above
Ans: 1
8) Parts of broad ligament are following except.
A) Infundibulo pelvic ligaments
B) Round Ligament
C) Mesosalpinx
D) Mesovarium
Ans: 2
9) Cervical lymphatic drain into following except –
A) Inguinal lymph nodes
B) Internal ileac lymph nodes
C) External ileac lymph nodes
D) Obturator lymph nodes
Ans: 1
10) Sequelae of Acute PID are following except -
A) Recurrent fatal wastage
B) Infertility
C) Ectopic Pregnancy
D) Chronic pelvic pain
Ans: 1
11) FSH level rise in following except -
A) Turners syndrome
B) Post menopausal women
C) PCOD
D) Pre-mature ovarian failure
Ans: 3
12) FSH level in post menopausal women are –
A) Above 40 IU/L
B) 15-20 IU/L
C) 5-8 IU/L
D) 6-9 IU/L
Ans: 1
13) Commonest benign tumour of ovary among the following is -
A) Dermoid cyst
B) Mucinous cystadenoma
C) Serous cystadenoma
D) Endometreoma
Ans: 3
14) Commonest cause of male infertility amongst following is –
A) Sperm autoimmunity
B) Genital tract infection
C) Genital tract obstraction
D) Defective spermetogensesis
Ans: 4
15) Commonest secondary change in uterine fibroid is –
A) Hyaline degeneration
B) Sarcomatous change
C) Red degeneration
D) Fatty degeneration
Ans: 1
16) Oestrogen progestin combined contraceptive pill use for prolong period will decrease incidents of -
A) Cancer cervix
B) Ovarian cancer
C) Breast Cancer
D) All of Above
Ans: 2
17) 40 Yrs. Old women having 3 children with procedentia surgical treatment will be –
A) Lefort’s operation
B) Fothergills operation
C) Cirvico pexy
D) Ward-mayo operation
Ans: 4
18) Commonest cause of VVF in india is -
A) Obstructed labour
B) Advance vaginal malignancy
C) Prolong use of pessary for uterine prolapse
D) Radiotherapy in Carcinoma cervix
Ans: 1
19) Germ cell tumour of ovary is -
A) Brenner’s tumour
B) Dysgerminoma
C) Theca cell Tumour
D) Clear cell Carcinoma
Ans: 2
20) Combined oral contraceptive pills is contraindicated in following except –
A) Nulliparity
B) Thrombo embolism disorder
C) Active liver disease
D) Hyperlipidimea
Ans: 1
21) Pearl index in highest with –
A) Calendar rhythm method
B) Barrier contraceptive
C) Combined oral contraceptive
D) Intra uterine device
Ans: 1
22) For turner syndrome all are true EXCEPT –
A) Absence of sex chromatin body
B) Cubitus vulgus
C) Short stature
D) Normal ovary
Ans: 4
23) Amongst following most likely to be solid malignant tumour of ovary is –
A) Fibroma
B) Mesonephroma
C) Thecoma granulose cell tumour
D) Brenner’s Tumour
Ans: 2
24) Component of fothergills operation are all except –
A) Shorting of uterosacral ligament
B) Amputation of cervix
C) Anterior colporraphy
D) Tightining of Maecenrodt’s ligament in front of cervix
Ans: 1
25) Virilising tumour of the ovary are all except –
A) Granulosa cell tumour
B) Adrenal Like tumour of ovary
C) Arrhenoblastoma
D) Sertoli leydig cell tumour
Ans: 1
26) Primary amnorrhea with absence uterus will be –
A) Turner’s syndrome
B) Imperforated hymen
C) Premature ovarian failure
D) Testicular feminisation syndrome
Ans: 4
27) Call exner bodies are found in –
A) Branner’s tumour
B) Arrhenoblastoma
C) Endometreal sinus tumour
D) Granulosa Theca cell tumour
Ans: 4
28) All of following is used in DIC except:-
A) Heparin
B) Volume expanders
C) Blood transfusion
D) Intravenous fluids
Ans: 2
29) Left ovarian vein drains into –
A) Inferior vena cava
B) Left Renal vain
C) Left common ileac vein
D) Left hypogastric vein
Ans: 2
30) Post abortal sepsis causing renal failure is likely due to
A) E. coli
B) Proteus
C) Clostridium
D) Pseudomonos
Ans: 3
31) Risk factor for endometrial carcinoma are following except –
A) Obesity
B) Diabetes
C) Use of Estrogen
D) Multiparity
Ans: 4
32) Signet ring cell is diagnostic of
A) Krukenberg’s tumour
B) Granulosa cell tumour
C) Sereous cystadeno carcinoma ovary
D) Brenner’s tumour
Ans: 1
33) Mayer Rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome is assocaited with -
A) Vaginal agenesis
B) Tubal agenesis
C) Ovarian agenesis
D) Bicornuate uterus
Ans: 1
34) High serum level of FSH are present in following except –
A) Resistant ovary syndroms
B) Premature ovarian failure
C) Sheehan syndrome
D) Menopause
Ans: 3
35) In coagulation failure serum level of fibrinogen is less than:-
A) 100 mg. /dl
B) 450 mg. /dl
C) 200 mg. /dl
D) 250 mg. /dl
Ans: 1
36) In Testicular feminisation syndrome gonaductomy is indicated in XY female at age of –
A) 16-18 Yrs.
B) 10-11 Yrs.
C) Above 25 Yrs.
D) 12-13 Yrs.
Ans: 1
37) Insulin resistance in pregnancy is because of following except-
A) Human Placental Lactogen
B) Progesteron
C) HCG
D) Estrogen
Ans: 3
38) Transvaginal sonography can detect fetal cardiac activity in –
A) 6 weeks
B) 7 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 10 weeks
Ans: 1
39) Hormone responsible for decidual reaction & arias stella reaction in ectopic pregnancy is-
A) Oestrogen
B) Progesterone
C) HCG
D) HPL
Ans: 2
40) Trophoblast give rise to following except -
A) Placenta
B) Decidua
C) Chorion
D) Amnion
Ans: 2
41) Implantation occurs after how many days of ovulation -
A) 3-5 Days
B) 7-9 Days
C) 13-15 Days
D) None of Above
Ans: 2
42) The drug of choice in treatment of typhoid fever in pregnancy is:-
A) Ampicillin
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Ceftriaxone
Ans: 4
43) Sperm capacitation takes about –
A) 2-4 Hrs.
B) 14-16 Hrs.
C) 6-8 Hrs.
D) 22-24 Hrs.
Ans: 1
44) The formation of primodial follictes in human fetus in complete by –
A) 4 Weeks
B) 13 Weeks
C) 4th Month to 7th Month
D) 8 Weeks
Ans: 3
45) The Diameter in face presentation with fully extended head is –
A) Suboccipito bregmetic
B) Sub mento bregmetic
C) Occipito mental
D) Sub mento vertical
Ans: 2
46) Motile sparmetozoa found on a wet mount of vaginal secretion are indicative of intercourse within the past –
A) 6 Hrs
B) 12 Hrs
C) 48 Hrs
D) 24 Hrs
Ans: 4
47) The largest presenting diameter in cephalic presentation is –
A) Biparictal diameter
B) Suboccipito Bragmatic
C) Occipito frontal
D) None of The above
Ans: 4
48) Most common site of puerperal infection is –
A) Episiotomy Wound
B) Placental Site
C) Vaginal Laceration
D) Cervical Laceration
Ans: 2
49) Commonest cause for puerperal sepsis among following is –
A) Streptococci
B) Anaerobes
C) Gonococci
D) Staphylococci
Ans: 1
50) Galactokinesis means -
A) Sustaining Lactation
B) Secretion of milk
C) Ejection of milk
D) Synthesis of milk
Ans: 3
A) Renal failure
B) Haemorrhage
C) Sepsis
D) Hepatic failure
Ans: 1
2) Commonest site of Pelvic endometriosis is-
A) Uterosacral Ligament
B) Ovary
C) Rectovarginal septum
D) Pelvic Peritoneum
Ans: 2
3) All are germcell tumour of Ovary except -
A) Chorio carcinoma
B) Grannulosa cell tumour
C) Dysgerminoma
D) Endometrial sinus tumour
Ans: 2
4) Intrasytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is indicated in -
A) Tubal Block
B) Mild aligosprmia
C) PCOS
D) Surgically retrieved sperms
Ans: 4
5) Organ develop from Mesonephric duct –
A) Uterus
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Upper vagina
D) None of above
Ans: 4
6) Which of the following drug reduces uterine contractility and causes pulmonary oedema?
A) Retodrine
B) Nifedepine
C) Atosiban
D) Indomethacin
Ans: 1
7) Labia minor contains
A) Sebaceous gland
B) Sweat gland
C) Hair follicles
D) All of the above
Ans: 1
8) Parts of broad ligament are following except.
A) Infundibulo pelvic ligaments
B) Round Ligament
C) Mesosalpinx
D) Mesovarium
Ans: 2
9) Cervical lymphatic drain into following except –
A) Inguinal lymph nodes
B) Internal ileac lymph nodes
C) External ileac lymph nodes
D) Obturator lymph nodes
Ans: 1
10) Sequelae of Acute PID are following except -
A) Recurrent fatal wastage
B) Infertility
C) Ectopic Pregnancy
D) Chronic pelvic pain
Ans: 1
11) FSH level rise in following except -
A) Turners syndrome
B) Post menopausal women
C) PCOD
D) Pre-mature ovarian failure
Ans: 3
12) FSH level in post menopausal women are –
A) Above 40 IU/L
B) 15-20 IU/L
C) 5-8 IU/L
D) 6-9 IU/L
Ans: 1
13) Commonest benign tumour of ovary among the following is -
A) Dermoid cyst
B) Mucinous cystadenoma
C) Serous cystadenoma
D) Endometreoma
Ans: 3
14) Commonest cause of male infertility amongst following is –
A) Sperm autoimmunity
B) Genital tract infection
C) Genital tract obstraction
D) Defective spermetogensesis
Ans: 4
15) Commonest secondary change in uterine fibroid is –
A) Hyaline degeneration
B) Sarcomatous change
C) Red degeneration
D) Fatty degeneration
Ans: 1
16) Oestrogen progestin combined contraceptive pill use for prolong period will decrease incidents of -
A) Cancer cervix
B) Ovarian cancer
C) Breast Cancer
D) All of Above
Ans: 2
17) 40 Yrs. Old women having 3 children with procedentia surgical treatment will be –
A) Lefort’s operation
B) Fothergills operation
C) Cirvico pexy
D) Ward-mayo operation
Ans: 4
18) Commonest cause of VVF in india is -
A) Obstructed labour
B) Advance vaginal malignancy
C) Prolong use of pessary for uterine prolapse
D) Radiotherapy in Carcinoma cervix
Ans: 1
19) Germ cell tumour of ovary is -
A) Brenner’s tumour
B) Dysgerminoma
C) Theca cell Tumour
D) Clear cell Carcinoma
Ans: 2
20) Combined oral contraceptive pills is contraindicated in following except –
A) Nulliparity
B) Thrombo embolism disorder
C) Active liver disease
D) Hyperlipidimea
Ans: 1
21) Pearl index in highest with –
A) Calendar rhythm method
B) Barrier contraceptive
C) Combined oral contraceptive
D) Intra uterine device
Ans: 1
22) For turner syndrome all are true EXCEPT –
A) Absence of sex chromatin body
B) Cubitus vulgus
C) Short stature
D) Normal ovary
Ans: 4
23) Amongst following most likely to be solid malignant tumour of ovary is –
A) Fibroma
B) Mesonephroma
C) Thecoma granulose cell tumour
D) Brenner’s Tumour
Ans: 2
24) Component of fothergills operation are all except –
A) Shorting of uterosacral ligament
B) Amputation of cervix
C) Anterior colporraphy
D) Tightining of Maecenrodt’s ligament in front of cervix
Ans: 1
25) Virilising tumour of the ovary are all except –
A) Granulosa cell tumour
B) Adrenal Like tumour of ovary
C) Arrhenoblastoma
D) Sertoli leydig cell tumour
Ans: 1
26) Primary amnorrhea with absence uterus will be –
A) Turner’s syndrome
B) Imperforated hymen
C) Premature ovarian failure
D) Testicular feminisation syndrome
Ans: 4
27) Call exner bodies are found in –
A) Branner’s tumour
B) Arrhenoblastoma
C) Endometreal sinus tumour
D) Granulosa Theca cell tumour
Ans: 4
28) All of following is used in DIC except:-
A) Heparin
B) Volume expanders
C) Blood transfusion
D) Intravenous fluids
Ans: 2
29) Left ovarian vein drains into –
A) Inferior vena cava
B) Left Renal vain
C) Left common ileac vein
D) Left hypogastric vein
Ans: 2
30) Post abortal sepsis causing renal failure is likely due to
A) E. coli
B) Proteus
C) Clostridium
D) Pseudomonos
Ans: 3
31) Risk factor for endometrial carcinoma are following except –
A) Obesity
B) Diabetes
C) Use of Estrogen
D) Multiparity
Ans: 4
32) Signet ring cell is diagnostic of
A) Krukenberg’s tumour
B) Granulosa cell tumour
C) Sereous cystadeno carcinoma ovary
D) Brenner’s tumour
Ans: 1
33) Mayer Rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome is assocaited with -
A) Vaginal agenesis
B) Tubal agenesis
C) Ovarian agenesis
D) Bicornuate uterus
Ans: 1
34) High serum level of FSH are present in following except –
A) Resistant ovary syndroms
B) Premature ovarian failure
C) Sheehan syndrome
D) Menopause
Ans: 3
35) In coagulation failure serum level of fibrinogen is less than:-
A) 100 mg. /dl
B) 450 mg. /dl
C) 200 mg. /dl
D) 250 mg. /dl
Ans: 1
36) In Testicular feminisation syndrome gonaductomy is indicated in XY female at age of –
A) 16-18 Yrs.
B) 10-11 Yrs.
C) Above 25 Yrs.
D) 12-13 Yrs.
Ans: 1
37) Insulin resistance in pregnancy is because of following except-
A) Human Placental Lactogen
B) Progesteron
C) HCG
D) Estrogen
Ans: 3
38) Transvaginal sonography can detect fetal cardiac activity in –
A) 6 weeks
B) 7 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 10 weeks
Ans: 1
39) Hormone responsible for decidual reaction & arias stella reaction in ectopic pregnancy is-
A) Oestrogen
B) Progesterone
C) HCG
D) HPL
Ans: 2
40) Trophoblast give rise to following except -
A) Placenta
B) Decidua
C) Chorion
D) Amnion
Ans: 2
41) Implantation occurs after how many days of ovulation -
A) 3-5 Days
B) 7-9 Days
C) 13-15 Days
D) None of Above
Ans: 2
42) The drug of choice in treatment of typhoid fever in pregnancy is:-
A) Ampicillin
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Ceftriaxone
Ans: 4
43) Sperm capacitation takes about –
A) 2-4 Hrs.
B) 14-16 Hrs.
C) 6-8 Hrs.
D) 22-24 Hrs.
Ans: 1
44) The formation of primodial follictes in human fetus in complete by –
A) 4 Weeks
B) 13 Weeks
C) 4th Month to 7th Month
D) 8 Weeks
Ans: 3
45) The Diameter in face presentation with fully extended head is –
A) Suboccipito bregmetic
B) Sub mento bregmetic
C) Occipito mental
D) Sub mento vertical
Ans: 2
46) Motile sparmetozoa found on a wet mount of vaginal secretion are indicative of intercourse within the past –
A) 6 Hrs
B) 12 Hrs
C) 48 Hrs
D) 24 Hrs
Ans: 4
47) The largest presenting diameter in cephalic presentation is –
A) Biparictal diameter
B) Suboccipito Bragmatic
C) Occipito frontal
D) None of The above
Ans: 4
48) Most common site of puerperal infection is –
A) Episiotomy Wound
B) Placental Site
C) Vaginal Laceration
D) Cervical Laceration
Ans: 2
49) Commonest cause for puerperal sepsis among following is –
A) Streptococci
B) Anaerobes
C) Gonococci
D) Staphylococci
Ans: 1
50) Galactokinesis means -
A) Sustaining Lactation
B) Secretion of milk
C) Ejection of milk
D) Synthesis of milk
Ans: 3
51) Commonest cause of first trimester abortion is –
A) Trisomy
B) Triploidy
C) Monosomy
D) Aneuploidy
Ans: 1
52) Anti phospholipid syndrome is associated with all of the following except -
A) Pancytopenia
B) Recurrent abortions
C) Venous Thrombosis
D) Pulmonary Hypertension
Ans: 1
53) Decidual casts bleeding per vagina is suggestive of –
A) Inevitable abortion
B) Threatened abortion
C) Tubal abortion
D) None of Above
Ans: 3
54) All of the following are associated with poly hydraminos except –
A) Esophagcal Atrasia
B) Renal Agenesis
C) Anencephaly
D) Diabetes Mellitus
Ans: 2
55) All of the following are causes of APH except –
A) Placenta Previa
B) Abruptio Placenta
C) Circumvallate placenta
D) Battledore placenta
Ans: 4
56) Singer’s alkali denaturation test is done to detect presence of –
A) Maternal Hb
B) Fetal Hb
C) Amneotic fluid
D) Menstrual fluid
Ans: 2
57) Fetal blood loss occurred in –
A) Placenta previa
B) Vasa previa
C) Circum vallate placenta
D) Uterine rupture
Ans: 2
58) The earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is –
A) Tachycardia
B) Oligouria
C) Postural hypotension
D) Low body Temperature
Ans: 1
59) Treatment of choice in placenta accrete is –
A) Manual removal
B) Hysterectomy
C) Hysterotomy
D) Wait and Watch
Ans: 2
60) Risk of Preterm delivery Increased if cervical length is:-
A) 2.5 cm
B) 3 cm
C) 3.5 cm
D) 4 cm
Ans: 1
61) Vaginal delivery is allowed in all except:-
A) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
B) First twin cephalic & second breech
C) Extended breech
D) Mento anterior
Ans: 1
62) Risk factors for preeclampsia are following except –
A) Chronic hypertension
B) Placental is chaemia
C) Multigravida
D) Anti physpholipid syndrome
Ans: 3
63) Karyotype Of Complete Mole Is –
A) 46 XX
B) 45 XO
C) 46 XY
D) XXY
Ans: 1
64) The following conditions are associated with molar pregnancy except –
A) Pregnancy induces hypertension
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Hyperemesis gravidarum
Ans: 3
65) Treatment of choice of 28 weeks size H mole in 40 Yrs. Porous women is –
A) Vacuum Extraction
B) Hysterectomy
C) Hysterotomy
D) Vaginal delivery
Ans: 2
66) Villous pattern is lost in –
A) Invasive mole
B) Tubal mole
C) Hydatidiform mole
D) Chorio carcinoma
Ans: 4
67) Most frequent site of metastasis in a case of choriocarcinoma is –
A) Vagina
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Brain
Ans: 3
68) Gestational Trophoblastic disease with jaundice best drug is –
A) Methotrexate
B) Adriamycin
C) Actinomycin.D
D) Cyclophosphomide
Ans: 3
69) Which of the following regarding choriocarcinoma is true -
A) Worst prognosis
B) Treatment of choice is hysterectomy
C) Lungs metastasis cause haemoptysis
D) Radiotherapy is preferred
Ans: 3
70) Abruptio placentae occurs in all except –
A) Smokers
B) Alcoholic
C) PET
D) Folic acid deficiency
Ans: 2
71) About placenta previa true is:–
A) Incidence increases by two to four fold after LSCS
B) More common in primigravida
C) Most common in developed countries
D) A common cause of PPH
Ans: 1
72) The cause of PPH in a contracted uterus –
A) Cervical laceration
B) Retained Placenta
C) Atomy of uterus
D) None of Above
Ans: 1
73) All of following give rise to PPH except -
A) Twin Pregnancy
B) Small for date fatal
C) Prolonged Labour
D) High Multiparily
Ans: 2
74) Common cause of Retained Placenta –
A) Atonic Uterus
B) Constriction Ring
C) Placenta Accreta
D) Poor voluntary expulsive efforts
Ans: 1
75) Common cause of death in inversion of uterus among the following is:-
A) DIC
B) Haemorrhage
C) Pulmonary Embolism
D) Infection
Ans: 2
76) On per vaginal examination, anterior fontanel & supra orbital ridges is felt in the second stage of labour, presentation is –
A) Brow Presentation
B) Deflex head
C) Flex head
D) Face presentation
Ans: 1
77) Commonest cause of occipto posterior postiton of fatal head during labour –
A) Maternal obesity
B) Deflexion of head
C) Multiparity
D) Android pelvis
Ans: 4
78) Incidence of monozygotic twins is –
A) 1 in 80
B) 1 in 250
C) 1 in 160
D) 1 in 800
Ans: 2
79) Commonest presentation in twin pregnancy is –
A) Both vertex
B) Vertex - transverse
C) Vertex - Breech
D) Both - Breech
Ans: 1
80) Doppler USG in twins is used for –
A) Monitoring growth of twins
B) Twin to twin transfusion
C) Conjoined twin
D) All of the above
Ans: 4
81) Monochoronic mono amniotic twin result, if division occurs –
A) Before 24 Hrs
B) 1-4 days
C) 4-8 days
D) After 8 days
Ans: 4
82) A double headed monster is known as –
A) Diplopagus
B) Dicephalus
C) Craniopagus
D) Heteropagus
Ans: 2
83) Caesarean section is indicates in twin pregnancy in all except -
A) Second twin in transvers be position
B) First twin in transvers lie
C) Mono amniotic twins
D) Both Breech
Ans: 1
84) A double monster fused in pelvic region is called -
A) Ischiopagus
B) Thoracapagus
C) Syncephalus
D) None of These
Ans: 1
85) All of the following are present in Non Immune hydrops fetalis except -
A) Skin oedema
B) Ascites
C) Large Placenta
D) Cardiomegaly
Ans: 4
86) Conjoined twin develop if division of fertilised ovum occur -
A) < 3 day
B) 4-8 day
C) > 14 day
D) None
Ans: 3
87) Hydrops foetalis is seen in following except -
A) Rh incompatibility
B) Syphilis
C) ABO in compatibility
D) CMV Infection
Ans: 3
88) Non Immune hydrops foetalis is seen in all of the following condition except -
A) α Thalassemea
B) Parvovirus-19
C) Rh-Incompatibility
D) Chromosomal anomaly
Ans: 3
89) The Kleihauer test for detecting erythrocytes is base on fact that-
A) Adult erythrocylos are larger than those of fetus
B) Hb A has higher affably to O2 than Hb f
C) Hb F as more resistance to acid elution
D) Hb A take stain less than Hb f
Ans: 3
90) For maturity estimation amniotic fluid cells are stain with –
A) Nile blue sulphate
B) Methyline blue
C) Mucicarmine
D) Sudan black
Ans: 1
91) Post term pregnancy is that which continuous beyond -
A) 300 days
B) 294 days
C) 280 days
D) 270 days
Ans: 2
92) Which of following genital infection is associated with preterm labour -
A) HPV
B) Trichomonas vaginitis
C) Monolial vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
Ans: 4
93) IUFD cause all except -
A) PIH
B) DIC
C) Infection
D) Hypofibrinogenemea
Ans: 1
94) LOVSET MANOEUVER is used in delivery of :-
A) Head
B) Breech
C) Foot
D) Arm
Ans: 4
95) Method of delivery of head in breech is –
A) Scanzoni Manoeuver
B) Mauriceau‘s manoeuver
C) Ritgen manoeuver
D) Piper manoeuver
Ans: 2
96) Most common immunoglobin is secreted by mother in milk & colosturm is:-
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgD
Ans: 1
97) Implantation bleeding is known as:-
A) Hartman’s sign
B) Arias Stella’s sign
C) Hoffmon’s sign
D) Reinz’s sign
Ans: 1
98) All are operation for uterine inversion except:-
A) O sullivan
B) Haultan
C) Spinelli
D) Fentoni
Ans: 4
99) The following are associated with DIC except
A:-IUD
B:-Severe PIH
C:-Abruptio placentae
D:-Fat embolism
Ans: D
100) Most important complication of fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy
A:-Obstetric haemorrhage
B:-Preterm labour
C:-IUD
D:-Neonatal transmission
Ans: A
A) Trisomy
B) Triploidy
C) Monosomy
D) Aneuploidy
Ans: 1
52) Anti phospholipid syndrome is associated with all of the following except -
A) Pancytopenia
B) Recurrent abortions
C) Venous Thrombosis
D) Pulmonary Hypertension
Ans: 1
53) Decidual casts bleeding per vagina is suggestive of –
A) Inevitable abortion
B) Threatened abortion
C) Tubal abortion
D) None of Above
Ans: 3
54) All of the following are associated with poly hydraminos except –
A) Esophagcal Atrasia
B) Renal Agenesis
C) Anencephaly
D) Diabetes Mellitus
Ans: 2
55) All of the following are causes of APH except –
A) Placenta Previa
B) Abruptio Placenta
C) Circumvallate placenta
D) Battledore placenta
Ans: 4
56) Singer’s alkali denaturation test is done to detect presence of –
A) Maternal Hb
B) Fetal Hb
C) Amneotic fluid
D) Menstrual fluid
Ans: 2
57) Fetal blood loss occurred in –
A) Placenta previa
B) Vasa previa
C) Circum vallate placenta
D) Uterine rupture
Ans: 2
58) The earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is –
A) Tachycardia
B) Oligouria
C) Postural hypotension
D) Low body Temperature
Ans: 1
59) Treatment of choice in placenta accrete is –
A) Manual removal
B) Hysterectomy
C) Hysterotomy
D) Wait and Watch
Ans: 2
60) Risk of Preterm delivery Increased if cervical length is:-
A) 2.5 cm
B) 3 cm
C) 3.5 cm
D) 4 cm
Ans: 1
61) Vaginal delivery is allowed in all except:-
A) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
B) First twin cephalic & second breech
C) Extended breech
D) Mento anterior
Ans: 1
62) Risk factors for preeclampsia are following except –
A) Chronic hypertension
B) Placental is chaemia
C) Multigravida
D) Anti physpholipid syndrome
Ans: 3
63) Karyotype Of Complete Mole Is –
A) 46 XX
B) 45 XO
C) 46 XY
D) XXY
Ans: 1
64) The following conditions are associated with molar pregnancy except –
A) Pregnancy induces hypertension
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Hyperemesis gravidarum
Ans: 3
65) Treatment of choice of 28 weeks size H mole in 40 Yrs. Porous women is –
A) Vacuum Extraction
B) Hysterectomy
C) Hysterotomy
D) Vaginal delivery
Ans: 2
66) Villous pattern is lost in –
A) Invasive mole
B) Tubal mole
C) Hydatidiform mole
D) Chorio carcinoma
Ans: 4
67) Most frequent site of metastasis in a case of choriocarcinoma is –
A) Vagina
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Brain
Ans: 3
68) Gestational Trophoblastic disease with jaundice best drug is –
A) Methotrexate
B) Adriamycin
C) Actinomycin.D
D) Cyclophosphomide
Ans: 3
69) Which of the following regarding choriocarcinoma is true -
A) Worst prognosis
B) Treatment of choice is hysterectomy
C) Lungs metastasis cause haemoptysis
D) Radiotherapy is preferred
Ans: 3
70) Abruptio placentae occurs in all except –
A) Smokers
B) Alcoholic
C) PET
D) Folic acid deficiency
Ans: 2
71) About placenta previa true is:–
A) Incidence increases by two to four fold after LSCS
B) More common in primigravida
C) Most common in developed countries
D) A common cause of PPH
Ans: 1
72) The cause of PPH in a contracted uterus –
A) Cervical laceration
B) Retained Placenta
C) Atomy of uterus
D) None of Above
Ans: 1
73) All of following give rise to PPH except -
A) Twin Pregnancy
B) Small for date fatal
C) Prolonged Labour
D) High Multiparily
Ans: 2
74) Common cause of Retained Placenta –
A) Atonic Uterus
B) Constriction Ring
C) Placenta Accreta
D) Poor voluntary expulsive efforts
Ans: 1
75) Common cause of death in inversion of uterus among the following is:-
A) DIC
B) Haemorrhage
C) Pulmonary Embolism
D) Infection
Ans: 2
76) On per vaginal examination, anterior fontanel & supra orbital ridges is felt in the second stage of labour, presentation is –
A) Brow Presentation
B) Deflex head
C) Flex head
D) Face presentation
Ans: 1
77) Commonest cause of occipto posterior postiton of fatal head during labour –
A) Maternal obesity
B) Deflexion of head
C) Multiparity
D) Android pelvis
Ans: 4
78) Incidence of monozygotic twins is –
A) 1 in 80
B) 1 in 250
C) 1 in 160
D) 1 in 800
Ans: 2
79) Commonest presentation in twin pregnancy is –
A) Both vertex
B) Vertex - transverse
C) Vertex - Breech
D) Both - Breech
Ans: 1
80) Doppler USG in twins is used for –
A) Monitoring growth of twins
B) Twin to twin transfusion
C) Conjoined twin
D) All of the above
Ans: 4
81) Monochoronic mono amniotic twin result, if division occurs –
A) Before 24 Hrs
B) 1-4 days
C) 4-8 days
D) After 8 days
Ans: 4
82) A double headed monster is known as –
A) Diplopagus
B) Dicephalus
C) Craniopagus
D) Heteropagus
Ans: 2
83) Caesarean section is indicates in twin pregnancy in all except -
A) Second twin in transvers be position
B) First twin in transvers lie
C) Mono amniotic twins
D) Both Breech
Ans: 1
84) A double monster fused in pelvic region is called -
A) Ischiopagus
B) Thoracapagus
C) Syncephalus
D) None of These
Ans: 1
85) All of the following are present in Non Immune hydrops fetalis except -
A) Skin oedema
B) Ascites
C) Large Placenta
D) Cardiomegaly
Ans: 4
86) Conjoined twin develop if division of fertilised ovum occur -
A) < 3 day
B) 4-8 day
C) > 14 day
D) None
Ans: 3
87) Hydrops foetalis is seen in following except -
A) Rh incompatibility
B) Syphilis
C) ABO in compatibility
D) CMV Infection
Ans: 3
88) Non Immune hydrops foetalis is seen in all of the following condition except -
A) α Thalassemea
B) Parvovirus-19
C) Rh-Incompatibility
D) Chromosomal anomaly
Ans: 3
89) The Kleihauer test for detecting erythrocytes is base on fact that-
A) Adult erythrocylos are larger than those of fetus
B) Hb A has higher affably to O2 than Hb f
C) Hb F as more resistance to acid elution
D) Hb A take stain less than Hb f
Ans: 3
90) For maturity estimation amniotic fluid cells are stain with –
A) Nile blue sulphate
B) Methyline blue
C) Mucicarmine
D) Sudan black
Ans: 1
91) Post term pregnancy is that which continuous beyond -
A) 300 days
B) 294 days
C) 280 days
D) 270 days
Ans: 2
92) Which of following genital infection is associated with preterm labour -
A) HPV
B) Trichomonas vaginitis
C) Monolial vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
Ans: 4
93) IUFD cause all except -
A) PIH
B) DIC
C) Infection
D) Hypofibrinogenemea
Ans: 1
94) LOVSET MANOEUVER is used in delivery of :-
A) Head
B) Breech
C) Foot
D) Arm
Ans: 4
95) Method of delivery of head in breech is –
A) Scanzoni Manoeuver
B) Mauriceau‘s manoeuver
C) Ritgen manoeuver
D) Piper manoeuver
Ans: 2
96) Most common immunoglobin is secreted by mother in milk & colosturm is:-
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgD
Ans: 1
97) Implantation bleeding is known as:-
A) Hartman’s sign
B) Arias Stella’s sign
C) Hoffmon’s sign
D) Reinz’s sign
Ans: 1
98) All are operation for uterine inversion except:-
A) O sullivan
B) Haultan
C) Spinelli
D) Fentoni
Ans: 4
99) The following are associated with DIC except
A:-IUD
B:-Severe PIH
C:-Abruptio placentae
D:-Fat embolism
Ans: D
100) Most important complication of fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy
A:-Obstetric haemorrhage
B:-Preterm labour
C:-IUD
D:-Neonatal transmission
Ans: A
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