ORTHOPAEDICS- PAGE 1
ORTHOPAEDICS MCQs
1:-The mechanism of action of a 'Position' screw is
A:-Used as a fulcrum to direct an intramedullary nail
B:-Temporary fixation used with articulated compression device
C:-Holds anatomical parts in correct relation to each other
D:-A point of fixation used to anchor a wire loop
Ans: C
2:-In Oestern and Tcheme classification of closed fractures, 'superficial abrasion/contusion with mild fracture pattern's is
A:-Grade 1
B:-Grade 2
C:-Grade 3
D:-Grade 4
Ans: A
3:-Ultimate tensile strength (Mpa) of cortical bone is
A:-2
B:-10
C:-70
D:-100
Ans: D
4:-The following muscle attaches to the anterior surface of the fibular shaft, except
A:-Tibialis posterior
B:-Peroneus tertius
C:-Extensor Digtorum longus
D:-Extensor Hallucis longus
Ans: A
5:-In anterior tibial syndrome, the following are false except
A:-Extensor digitorum brevis is involved in the late phase
B:-Electromyographic changes in the muscles are absent
C:-Not seen in fractures of tibia
D:-Ext. digitorum longus is always involved
Ans: A
6:-The following muscles attaches to the posterior diaphysis of Tibia, except
A:-Tibialis poeterior
B:-Flexor digitorum longus
C:-Popliteus
D:-Biceps femoris
Ans: D
7:-The following are false about Sarcoidosis, except
A:-Reossification of the lesions are likely during healing
B:-Bony lesions often expand the cortex
C:-Lymphocytes in surrounding tissues are sparse
D:-Long bones and vertebrae are frequently involved
Ans: C
8:-The following are true about congenital neurofibromatosis, except
A:-Inherited as Autosomal Dominant trait
B:-In adults, 5 or more cafe au lait spots of 1.5 cm dia. are diagnostic
C:-Kyphoscoliosis with single mid thoracic curve
D:-In children café au lait are found most over the buttocks
Ans: C
9:-The following are accessory ossicles in the foot, except
A:-Os peroneum
B:-Os cuboideum
C:-Os tibile externum
D:-Os supra tibiale
Ans: D
10:-In classification of Apophyseal injuries of Olecranon in children, Type III A is
A:-Incomplete stress fracture
B:-Pure apophyseal avulsions
C:-Apophyseal-metaphyseal combinations
D:-Apophysitis
Ans: B
11:-In proximal radius fractures, 'Reduction injuries' associated with elbow dislocation are classified as
A:-Type C
B:-Type D
C:-Type E
D:-Type F
Ans: B
12:-The following attach to Radius, except
A:-Abductor Pollicis Longus
B:-Anconeus
C:-Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
D:-Extensior Pollicis Longus
Ans: B
13:-Posterior interosseous nerve supplies all, except
A:-Extensior Pollicis Brevis
B:-Abductor Pollicis Longus
C:-Pronator Quadratus
D:-Extensior Pollicis Longus
Ans: C
14:-The acceptable residual angulation in metaphyseal fractures in the sagittal plane in girls aged 9-11 years is
A:-10 deg
B:-15 deg
C:-5 deg
D:-20 deg
Ans: A
15:-Unicameral bone cysts are considered 'active' if they have the following features, except
A:-Thick membrane
B:-Single cavity
C:-Children < 12 years
D:-Intralesional pressure > 30 cm `H_(2)O`
Ans: A
16:-The following are usually involve the posterior elements of the vertebra, except
A:-Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
B:-Osteoid Osteoma
C:-Giant Cell Tumour
D:-Osteochondroma
Ans: C
17:-The peak age in years, for pathologic fracture for Chondroblastoma is
A:-0 - 5
B:-5 - 10
C:-10 - 20
D:-20 - 30
Ans: C
18:-In Glasgow coma scale, ''Eye opening :To speech'' has a score of
A:-2
B:-4
C:-1
D:-3
Ans: D
19:-The dosing schedule of Naproxen (oral) in children is
A:-5-10 mg/kg q 6h
B:-10-15 mg/kg q 6h
C:-5-7.5 mg/kg q 12h
D:-15 mg/kg q 6h
Ans: C
20:-The following is true of Rhabdomyosarcoma, except
A:-occurs exclusively in striated muscles
B:-Tumour giant cells are seen
C:-Cell usually have cross striations
D:-Greatest incidence is between 30-60 years of age
Ans: A
A:-Used as a fulcrum to direct an intramedullary nail
B:-Temporary fixation used with articulated compression device
C:-Holds anatomical parts in correct relation to each other
D:-A point of fixation used to anchor a wire loop
Ans: C
2:-In Oestern and Tcheme classification of closed fractures, 'superficial abrasion/contusion with mild fracture pattern's is
A:-Grade 1
B:-Grade 2
C:-Grade 3
D:-Grade 4
Ans: A
3:-Ultimate tensile strength (Mpa) of cortical bone is
A:-2
B:-10
C:-70
D:-100
Ans: D
4:-The following muscle attaches to the anterior surface of the fibular shaft, except
A:-Tibialis posterior
B:-Peroneus tertius
C:-Extensor Digtorum longus
D:-Extensor Hallucis longus
Ans: A
5:-In anterior tibial syndrome, the following are false except
A:-Extensor digitorum brevis is involved in the late phase
B:-Electromyographic changes in the muscles are absent
C:-Not seen in fractures of tibia
D:-Ext. digitorum longus is always involved
Ans: A
6:-The following muscles attaches to the posterior diaphysis of Tibia, except
A:-Tibialis poeterior
B:-Flexor digitorum longus
C:-Popliteus
D:-Biceps femoris
Ans: D
7:-The following are false about Sarcoidosis, except
A:-Reossification of the lesions are likely during healing
B:-Bony lesions often expand the cortex
C:-Lymphocytes in surrounding tissues are sparse
D:-Long bones and vertebrae are frequently involved
Ans: C
8:-The following are true about congenital neurofibromatosis, except
A:-Inherited as Autosomal Dominant trait
B:-In adults, 5 or more cafe au lait spots of 1.5 cm dia. are diagnostic
C:-Kyphoscoliosis with single mid thoracic curve
D:-In children café au lait are found most over the buttocks
Ans: C
9:-The following are accessory ossicles in the foot, except
A:-Os peroneum
B:-Os cuboideum
C:-Os tibile externum
D:-Os supra tibiale
Ans: D
10:-In classification of Apophyseal injuries of Olecranon in children, Type III A is
A:-Incomplete stress fracture
B:-Pure apophyseal avulsions
C:-Apophyseal-metaphyseal combinations
D:-Apophysitis
Ans: B
11:-In proximal radius fractures, 'Reduction injuries' associated with elbow dislocation are classified as
A:-Type C
B:-Type D
C:-Type E
D:-Type F
Ans: B
12:-The following attach to Radius, except
A:-Abductor Pollicis Longus
B:-Anconeus
C:-Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
D:-Extensior Pollicis Longus
Ans: B
13:-Posterior interosseous nerve supplies all, except
A:-Extensior Pollicis Brevis
B:-Abductor Pollicis Longus
C:-Pronator Quadratus
D:-Extensior Pollicis Longus
Ans: C
14:-The acceptable residual angulation in metaphyseal fractures in the sagittal plane in girls aged 9-11 years is
A:-10 deg
B:-15 deg
C:-5 deg
D:-20 deg
Ans: A
15:-Unicameral bone cysts are considered 'active' if they have the following features, except
A:-Thick membrane
B:-Single cavity
C:-Children < 12 years
D:-Intralesional pressure > 30 cm `H_(2)O`
Ans: A
16:-The following are usually involve the posterior elements of the vertebra, except
A:-Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
B:-Osteoid Osteoma
C:-Giant Cell Tumour
D:-Osteochondroma
Ans: C
17:-The peak age in years, for pathologic fracture for Chondroblastoma is
A:-0 - 5
B:-5 - 10
C:-10 - 20
D:-20 - 30
Ans: C
18:-In Glasgow coma scale, ''Eye opening :To speech'' has a score of
A:-2
B:-4
C:-1
D:-3
Ans: D
19:-The dosing schedule of Naproxen (oral) in children is
A:-5-10 mg/kg q 6h
B:-10-15 mg/kg q 6h
C:-5-7.5 mg/kg q 12h
D:-15 mg/kg q 6h
Ans: C
20:-The following is true of Rhabdomyosarcoma, except
A:-occurs exclusively in striated muscles
B:-Tumour giant cells are seen
C:-Cell usually have cross striations
D:-Greatest incidence is between 30-60 years of age
Ans: A
21:-The following are true about Caffey's disease, except
A:-Warm swellings over the mandibles
B:-Leukoctosis
C:-Lesions in the Scapula are usually unilateral
D:-Onion peel like appearance on X rays
Ans: A
22:-Sarcoidosis is also known as the following, except
A:-Osteitis tuberculosis simplex cyctoides
B:-Schaumann's disease
C:-Jungling's disease
D:-Uveoparotid fever
Ans: A
23:-In chronic low back pain, correlation between CT and EMG for localisation of nerve root injury is between
A:-20 to 35%
B:-80 to 85%
C:-45 to 50%
D:-65 to 73%
Ans: D
24:-Acute Brachial neuritis usually affects
A:-Long thoracic nerve
B:-Radial nerve
C:-Musculocutaneous curve
D:-Dorsal scapular nerve
Ans: A
25:-The following are true in Necrotising facilitis caused by streptococcus Pyogenes, except
A:-Often begins at the site of a non penetrating injury
B:-Creatine Phosphokinase is elevated
C:-Renal impairment is common
D:-Usually associated with gas in deep tissues
Ans: D
26:-Lytic changes of bone are radiologically visible due to loss of __________% of bone density.
A:-50 - 75
B:-35 - 45
C:-20 - 30
D:-More than 80
Ans: A
27:-The most common site of haematohgenous osteomyelitis in adults is
A:-Vertebrae
B:-Upper Tibia
C:-Pubis
D:-Neck of Femur
Ans: A
28:-Common causes of Sternal Osteomyelitis after cardiac surgery are all except
A:-Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
B:-Staph. Aureus
C:-Gram negative enteric bacilli
D:-Mycoplasma
Ans: A
29:-Ossification center of Greater tuberosity of Humerus appears between the following age
A:-Present at birth
B:-5 to 7 year
C:-9 to 10 year
D:-3rd month to 2 year
Ans: D
30:-The most widespread type of cartilage in the body is
A:-Hyaline cartilage
B:-Fibrocartilage
C:-Elastic cartilage
D:-Chondro cartilage
Ans: A
31:-The following factors hindring absorption of calcium from the intestine, except
A:-Excessive Phosphates
B:-Excessive fatty acids
C:-Excessive Carbonates
D:-Excessive Magnesium
Ans: D
32:-Which of the following is a feature of High Phosphorous rickets?
A:-Marked alkalosis
B:-Normal parathyroid activity
C:-Monkeberg sclerosis
D:-Large bowel retains the excess Calcium
Ans: C
33:-The following is true of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism due to renal damage, except
A:-High serum Phosphorous
B:-High Calcium level
C:-Stunted growth
D:-Marrow fibrosis
Ans: B
34:-Of the following, which bone is most frequently involved by Paget's disease
A:-Skull
B:-Spine
C:-Tibia
D:-Fibula
Ans: A
35:-Empty can' test is done to detect
A:-Sacroliliac joint pathology
B:-Iliopsoas tear
C:-Deltoid ligament pathology
D:-Supraspinatus impingement
Ans: D
36:-Birbeck granuless in Histiocyosis X are found inside
A:-Endoplasmic Reticulum
B:-Langerhan's cells
C:-Mitochondria
D:-Ribosome
Ans: B
37:-The following is true about Ollier's disease, except
A:-More common than Mafucci's syndrome
B:-Bilateral distribution of enchondromas
C:-Haemangiomas are not seen
D:-Lymphangioma is absent
Ans: B
38:-The following are associated with 'coxa saltans' except
A:-Thickened lliotibial band
B:-Slipping of anterior edge of Gluteus Maximus
C:-Illiopsoas tendinitis
D:-Rectus femoris tear
Ans: D
39:-The following is true about Riche Cannieu Anastomosis, except
A:-May be misdiagnosed as Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
B:-Connection from MN to UN in the forearm
C:-Electomyography is helpful in diagnosing the condition
D:-All intrinsic muscles of hand may be innervated by Ulnar nerve
Ans: B
40:-''Jersey Finger'' commonly affects
A:-Ring finger
B:-Index finger
C:-Little finger
D:-Middle finger
Ans: A
41:-The manifestations of Neurofibromatosis include all except
A:-Hypoplasia of transverse process of Thoracic vertebrae
B:-Anterior scalloping of Thoracic vertebrae
C:-Lateral scaloping of cervical vertebrae
D:-Hypoplasia of pedicles
Ans: C
42:-The following is true about Non osteogenic Fibroma of bone
A:-Long axis perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
B:-Central location in the bone
C:-Thin border of decreased density
D:-Both ends of Fibula may be involved
Ans: D
43:-Features of Fibrous dysplasia include all except
A:-Serum Calcium levels are usually normal
B:-Ground glass appearance of bone
C:-Leonine ossea
D:-Malignant transformation in 30-50%
Ans: D
44:-Gurd test is aid in diagnosis of
A:-Ischial bursitis
B:-Peroneal tenosynovitis
C:-Fat embolism
D:-Acromion bursitis
Ans: C
45:-The following is true regarding liposarcoma
A:-Polyherdral cells are not seen in liposarcoma
B:-Liposarcoma can metastasise to bones
C:-Usually seen in adults 40 years or more
D:-Liposarcoma do not originate within medullary cavity
Ans: B
46:-The following is true about Gaucher's disease except
A:-Patients are susceptible for infections
B:-An increase in the number of plasma cells are often seen
C:-Lower part of femur is clubbed and expanded
D:-X linked recessive inheritance
Ans: D
47:-Needle shaped negative birefringent crystals in synovial fluid is seen in
A:-Homocystinuria
B:-Gout
C:-Cystinuria
D:-Alkaptonuria
Ans: B
48:-Which of the following is not useful in treatment of homocystinuria ?
A:-Vit B6
B:-Niacin
C:-Folic acid
D:-Vit B12
Ans: B
49:-Which of the following congenital disorders can present with hyperuricemia?
A:-Alkaptonuria
B:-Tay Sach's disease
C:-Von Gierke's disease
D:-Homocystinuria
Ans: C
50:-Aldol Cross links are seen in
A:-Elastin
B:-Collagen
C:-Procollagen
D:-Desmosine
Ans: B
51:-The following are false about ''Park and Harris'' Lines, except
A:-Cannot occur after generalised illness
B:-They are usually distributed relatively symmetrically
C:-The lines near the end of the shaft are thinner
D:-Does not occur after trauma
Ans: B
52:-The function of Ostenectin in bone is
A:-Binds hydroxy apatite
B:-Controls mineralisation
C:-Binds Calcium
D:-Cell attachment
Ans: C
53:-The normal value of blood pressure in a 12 year old (systolic-diastolic) in mm Hg is
A:-60 - 35
B:-115 - 65
C:-120 - 65
D:-98 - 57
Ans: B
54:-The maximum recommended does of local anaesthetic - Lidocaine (with Epinephrine) in children is
A:-6 mg/kg
B:-5 mg/kg
C:-2.5 mg/kg
D:-7 mg/kg
Ans: D
55:-Recommended catheter placement for compartmental pressure measurement, the following is false
A:-Thigh : Anterior compartment
B:-Leg : Anterior / Posterior compartment
C:-Forearm : Extensor compartment
D:-Hand : Interosseous compartment
Ans: C
A:-Warm swellings over the mandibles
B:-Leukoctosis
C:-Lesions in the Scapula are usually unilateral
D:-Onion peel like appearance on X rays
Ans: A
22:-Sarcoidosis is also known as the following, except
A:-Osteitis tuberculosis simplex cyctoides
B:-Schaumann's disease
C:-Jungling's disease
D:-Uveoparotid fever
Ans: A
23:-In chronic low back pain, correlation between CT and EMG for localisation of nerve root injury is between
A:-20 to 35%
B:-80 to 85%
C:-45 to 50%
D:-65 to 73%
Ans: D
24:-Acute Brachial neuritis usually affects
A:-Long thoracic nerve
B:-Radial nerve
C:-Musculocutaneous curve
D:-Dorsal scapular nerve
Ans: A
25:-The following are true in Necrotising facilitis caused by streptococcus Pyogenes, except
A:-Often begins at the site of a non penetrating injury
B:-Creatine Phosphokinase is elevated
C:-Renal impairment is common
D:-Usually associated with gas in deep tissues
Ans: D
26:-Lytic changes of bone are radiologically visible due to loss of __________% of bone density.
A:-50 - 75
B:-35 - 45
C:-20 - 30
D:-More than 80
Ans: A
27:-The most common site of haematohgenous osteomyelitis in adults is
A:-Vertebrae
B:-Upper Tibia
C:-Pubis
D:-Neck of Femur
Ans: A
28:-Common causes of Sternal Osteomyelitis after cardiac surgery are all except
A:-Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
B:-Staph. Aureus
C:-Gram negative enteric bacilli
D:-Mycoplasma
Ans: A
29:-Ossification center of Greater tuberosity of Humerus appears between the following age
A:-Present at birth
B:-5 to 7 year
C:-9 to 10 year
D:-3rd month to 2 year
Ans: D
30:-The most widespread type of cartilage in the body is
A:-Hyaline cartilage
B:-Fibrocartilage
C:-Elastic cartilage
D:-Chondro cartilage
Ans: A
31:-The following factors hindring absorption of calcium from the intestine, except
A:-Excessive Phosphates
B:-Excessive fatty acids
C:-Excessive Carbonates
D:-Excessive Magnesium
Ans: D
32:-Which of the following is a feature of High Phosphorous rickets?
A:-Marked alkalosis
B:-Normal parathyroid activity
C:-Monkeberg sclerosis
D:-Large bowel retains the excess Calcium
Ans: C
33:-The following is true of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism due to renal damage, except
A:-High serum Phosphorous
B:-High Calcium level
C:-Stunted growth
D:-Marrow fibrosis
Ans: B
34:-Of the following, which bone is most frequently involved by Paget's disease
A:-Skull
B:-Spine
C:-Tibia
D:-Fibula
Ans: A
35:-Empty can' test is done to detect
A:-Sacroliliac joint pathology
B:-Iliopsoas tear
C:-Deltoid ligament pathology
D:-Supraspinatus impingement
Ans: D
36:-Birbeck granuless in Histiocyosis X are found inside
A:-Endoplasmic Reticulum
B:-Langerhan's cells
C:-Mitochondria
D:-Ribosome
Ans: B
37:-The following is true about Ollier's disease, except
A:-More common than Mafucci's syndrome
B:-Bilateral distribution of enchondromas
C:-Haemangiomas are not seen
D:-Lymphangioma is absent
Ans: B
38:-The following are associated with 'coxa saltans' except
A:-Thickened lliotibial band
B:-Slipping of anterior edge of Gluteus Maximus
C:-Illiopsoas tendinitis
D:-Rectus femoris tear
Ans: D
39:-The following is true about Riche Cannieu Anastomosis, except
A:-May be misdiagnosed as Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
B:-Connection from MN to UN in the forearm
C:-Electomyography is helpful in diagnosing the condition
D:-All intrinsic muscles of hand may be innervated by Ulnar nerve
Ans: B
40:-''Jersey Finger'' commonly affects
A:-Ring finger
B:-Index finger
C:-Little finger
D:-Middle finger
Ans: A
41:-The manifestations of Neurofibromatosis include all except
A:-Hypoplasia of transverse process of Thoracic vertebrae
B:-Anterior scalloping of Thoracic vertebrae
C:-Lateral scaloping of cervical vertebrae
D:-Hypoplasia of pedicles
Ans: C
42:-The following is true about Non osteogenic Fibroma of bone
A:-Long axis perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
B:-Central location in the bone
C:-Thin border of decreased density
D:-Both ends of Fibula may be involved
Ans: D
43:-Features of Fibrous dysplasia include all except
A:-Serum Calcium levels are usually normal
B:-Ground glass appearance of bone
C:-Leonine ossea
D:-Malignant transformation in 30-50%
Ans: D
44:-Gurd test is aid in diagnosis of
A:-Ischial bursitis
B:-Peroneal tenosynovitis
C:-Fat embolism
D:-Acromion bursitis
Ans: C
45:-The following is true regarding liposarcoma
A:-Polyherdral cells are not seen in liposarcoma
B:-Liposarcoma can metastasise to bones
C:-Usually seen in adults 40 years or more
D:-Liposarcoma do not originate within medullary cavity
Ans: B
46:-The following is true about Gaucher's disease except
A:-Patients are susceptible for infections
B:-An increase in the number of plasma cells are often seen
C:-Lower part of femur is clubbed and expanded
D:-X linked recessive inheritance
Ans: D
47:-Needle shaped negative birefringent crystals in synovial fluid is seen in
A:-Homocystinuria
B:-Gout
C:-Cystinuria
D:-Alkaptonuria
Ans: B
48:-Which of the following is not useful in treatment of homocystinuria ?
A:-Vit B6
B:-Niacin
C:-Folic acid
D:-Vit B12
Ans: B
49:-Which of the following congenital disorders can present with hyperuricemia?
A:-Alkaptonuria
B:-Tay Sach's disease
C:-Von Gierke's disease
D:-Homocystinuria
Ans: C
50:-Aldol Cross links are seen in
A:-Elastin
B:-Collagen
C:-Procollagen
D:-Desmosine
Ans: B
51:-The following are false about ''Park and Harris'' Lines, except
A:-Cannot occur after generalised illness
B:-They are usually distributed relatively symmetrically
C:-The lines near the end of the shaft are thinner
D:-Does not occur after trauma
Ans: B
52:-The function of Ostenectin in bone is
A:-Binds hydroxy apatite
B:-Controls mineralisation
C:-Binds Calcium
D:-Cell attachment
Ans: C
53:-The normal value of blood pressure in a 12 year old (systolic-diastolic) in mm Hg is
A:-60 - 35
B:-115 - 65
C:-120 - 65
D:-98 - 57
Ans: B
54:-The maximum recommended does of local anaesthetic - Lidocaine (with Epinephrine) in children is
A:-6 mg/kg
B:-5 mg/kg
C:-2.5 mg/kg
D:-7 mg/kg
Ans: D
55:-Recommended catheter placement for compartmental pressure measurement, the following is false
A:-Thigh : Anterior compartment
B:-Leg : Anterior / Posterior compartment
C:-Forearm : Extensor compartment
D:-Hand : Interosseous compartment
Ans: C
56:-The following is true about Neurogenic shock, except
A:-Hypotension
B:-Cold extremities
C:-Bradycardia
D:-Urine output is normal
Ans: B
57:-In Young and Burgess classification, APC type III includes
A:-Complete disruption of Sacro Iliac Joint
B:-Opening of anterior part of Sacro Iliac Joint
C:-Sacral fracture on side of impact
D:-Vertical displacement of hemipelvis
Ans: A
58:-The structures causing irreducible anterior hip dislocation are all except
A:-Rectus femoris
B:-Labrum
C:-Ligamentum teres
D:-Capsule
Ans: C
59:-In femoral neck fractures, OTA 31-B3.1 correlates to
A:-Garden 1
B:-Garden 2
C:-Garden 3
D:-Garden4
Ans: C
60:-The following are features of Cleidocranial Dyostosis, except
A:-Hypertelorism
B:-Supernumerary teeth
C:-Widened symphysis pubis
D:-Usually Autosomal Recessive
Ans: D
61:-Hunters syndrome is mucopolysaccridoses type
A:-MPS Type I H
B:-MPS Type II
C:-MPS Type III A
D:-MPS Type IV
Ans: B
62:-In Hastings Classification of Heterotopic Ossification, Type III is
A:-Limitation of forearm pronation / supination
B:-Limitation of elbow flexion / extension
C:-Radiological findings without functional limitation
D:-Bony ankylosis of elbow
Ans: D
63:-Which is described as Type I Monteggia equivalent fracture by Bado, except?
A:-Fracture of proximal radius
B:-Radial neck fracture
C:-Anterior dislocation of radial head
D:-# ulnar diaphysis & olecranon with posterior dislocation of radial head
Ans: D
64:-The Central compartment of the foot contains
A:-Flexor digitorum brevis
B:-Abductor hallucis
C:-Flexor digiti minimi
D:-Interosseous muscles
Ans: A
65:-The best radiologic view to assess Scaphoid tubercle fracture is
A:-45 degree oblique semi-pronated
B:-Ulnar deviated AP
C:-Lateral
D:-Neutral AP
Ans: A
66:-The type III periprosthetic Tibia Fractures after Total Knee Arthroplasty, fracture location is
A:-Tibial plateau
B:-Adjacent to the stem
C:-Distal to Prosthesis
D:-Tibial tubercle
Ans: C
67:-The criteria for 'Complex Regional Pain Syndrome' in Orthopaedic setting includes all except
A:-Non dermatomal neuropathic pain
B:-Abnormalities of sweating
C:-Swelling
D:-Painless joint mobility
Ans: D
68:-In Mirels criteria for risk of pathologic fracture, moderate pain is assigned a variable of
A:-0
B:-1
C:-2
D:-3
Ans: C
69:-In Osteoporosis, BMD T-score is
A:-> - 1
B:--1 to -2.5
C:-< 2.5
D:-> 2.5
Ans: C
70:-The volume of contrast needed for Hip arthroscopy is
A:-10 ml
B:-15 ml
C:-40 ml
D:-50 ml
Ans: B
71:-The type of evidence in Observational study is considered as
A:-Very low quality
B:-Low quality
C:-Moderate quality
D:-High quality
Ans: B
72:-In Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS), systolic BP transiently < 90 mm Hg has a score of
A:-0
B:-1
C:-2
D:-3
Ans: B
73:-The Functional Independence Measurement (FIM) score is based on
A:-12 Physical and psychological categories
B:-21 items of basic capacities & higher performance levels
C:-13 motor and 5 cognitive items
D:-3 function scales
Ans: C
74:-Indications for 'Early Total Care' in trauma patients includes
A:-Lactate <2 mmol/L
B:-Urine output > 0.5 ml/kg/hr
C:-Mild hypercapnia
D:-Ionotropic stimulation is needed
Ans: A
75:-Cotton Ball spots in the skull is seen in
A:-Fibrosarcoma
B:-Hyperparathyroidism
C:-Myeloma
D:-Pagets disease
Ans: D
76:-All are Lipoid histiocytoses, except
A:-Nemann-Pick disease
B:-Gauches splenomegaly
C:-Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
D:-Letterer-Siwe disease
Ans: D
77:-The views used in ''FAST'' ultrasound scans include all except
A:-longitudinal subxipoid view
B:-Right upper quadrant view of abdomen
C:-Longitudinal left upper quadrant view of abdomen
D:-Bilateral longitudinal thoracic views
Ans: A
78:-The following are false about defined parameters for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, except
A:-Body temperature > 38 deg C or < 36 deg C
B:-PaCO2 > 32 mm Hg
C:-Heart rate < 90 beats / min
D:-Resp. rate < 20 / min
Ans: C
79:-Serum Inflammatory markers for Medicator activity include all, except
A:-Interleukin-1
B:-Lipopolysaccharide binding protein
C:-Interleukin-18
D:-Tumour necrosis factor
Ans: B
80:-Coded value of 3 in Unweighted Reverse Trauma Score as used in Field Triage, has respiratory rate of
A:-6-9 / min
B:-> 29 / min
C:-1-5 / min
D:-10-29 / min
Ans: B
81:-Rugger jersey spine is seen in
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Eosinophilic granuloma
C) Hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal disease
D) Both 1 and 3
Ans: D
82:-In radial nerve palsy when palmaris longus is sutured to the rerouted extensor pollicis longus which movements of the thumb are regained
A) abduction and extension
B) adduction and flexion
C) abduction and flexion
D) adduction and extension
Ans: A
83:-In a child of eight years which of the following epiphyseal centres around the elbow will be absent ?
A) capitellum
B) medial epicondyle
C) radial head
D) olecranon
Ans: D
84:-If the second half of the POLO test is positive it means that
A) posterior cruciate ligament is too tight
B) flexion gap is too narrow
C) both statements are true
D) both statements are wrong
Ans: C
85:-In scapholunate dissociation
A) Watson's test is negative
B) Scapholunate space is 4 mm
C) Cortical ring sign is absent
D) Scapholunate angle <70 in the lateral view
Ans: B
86:-What is false regarding pseudoachondroplasia ?
A) normal skull and facies
B) platyspondyly with anterior central beaking
C) epiphysis alone is affected
D) shallow acetabulam
Ans: C
87:-In which among the following dwarfs the spine alone is involved without limb involvement ?
A) Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
B) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
C) Morquio's syndrome
D) Diastrophic dwarfism
Ans: C
88:-In rickets, non union of osteotomy is sure to occur, if it is done before which stage of Lovett
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 3
Ans: D
89:-Which is not a feature of sabre tibia ?
A) sharp curve
B) mid shaft involved
C) generally purely anterior curve
D) occurs upto the age of 15
Ans: A
90:-In a case of brachial plexus injury, if you get all the modalities of triple response to histamine over an insensitive dermatome the lesion is then
A) Preganglionic
B) Postganglionic
C) Neither of the two
D) Both 1 and 2
Ans: A
91:-In the early stages of a case of syringomyelia, over the affected area the patient will be able to appreciate
A) pin pricks
B) hot objects
C) light touch
D) none of these
Ans: C
92:-In protrusion acetabuli the CE angle of Weiberg will be greater than
A) 30 degree
B) 20 degree
C) 50 degree
D) 40 degree
Ans: D
93:-The normal measurements of volar tilt of radius, radial inclination and radial height are respectively
A) 20 degree, 11 degree and 20 mm
B) 25 degree, 30 degree and 25 mm
C) 11 degree, 23 degree and 11 mm
D) 30 degree, 40 degree and 30 mm
Ans: C
94:-Applying Mirel's criteria, a peritrochanteric blastic lesion with moderate pain will need prophylactic internal fixation when the lesion involves
A) <1/3 diameter of the bone
B) >2/3 diameter of the bone
C) 1/3 − 2/3 diameter of the bone
D) cannot comment
Ans: C
95:-The three fragment triplane fracture is a combination of Salter-Harris type
A) 2 and 3
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 2 and 4
Ans: A
96:-Geographical skull is seen in
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Eosinophilic granuloma
D) Pagets disease
Ans: C
97:-In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus anterior spike and crescent sign in the X-ray respectively represent
A) tilt and rotation
B) rotation and tilt
C) posterior displacement and tilt
D) tilt and posterior displacement
Ans: B
98:-Harmon approach is valuable for exposure of which part of tibia ?
A) Upper one thirdB) Upper two third
C) Middle two third
D) Middle one third
Ans: C
99:-Osteoid osteoma does not affect
A) Clavicle
B) Vertebrae
C) Skull
D) Fibula
Ans: C
100:-In a pelvis X-ray only the principal compressive trabeculae stand out prominently and the remaining trabeculae have been essentially absorbed, then the Singh's index is
A) Grade 4
B) Grade 3
C) Grade 2
D) Grade 1
Ans: C
A:-Hypotension
B:-Cold extremities
C:-Bradycardia
D:-Urine output is normal
Ans: B
57:-In Young and Burgess classification, APC type III includes
A:-Complete disruption of Sacro Iliac Joint
B:-Opening of anterior part of Sacro Iliac Joint
C:-Sacral fracture on side of impact
D:-Vertical displacement of hemipelvis
Ans: A
58:-The structures causing irreducible anterior hip dislocation are all except
A:-Rectus femoris
B:-Labrum
C:-Ligamentum teres
D:-Capsule
Ans: C
59:-In femoral neck fractures, OTA 31-B3.1 correlates to
A:-Garden 1
B:-Garden 2
C:-Garden 3
D:-Garden4
Ans: C
60:-The following are features of Cleidocranial Dyostosis, except
A:-Hypertelorism
B:-Supernumerary teeth
C:-Widened symphysis pubis
D:-Usually Autosomal Recessive
Ans: D
61:-Hunters syndrome is mucopolysaccridoses type
A:-MPS Type I H
B:-MPS Type II
C:-MPS Type III A
D:-MPS Type IV
Ans: B
62:-In Hastings Classification of Heterotopic Ossification, Type III is
A:-Limitation of forearm pronation / supination
B:-Limitation of elbow flexion / extension
C:-Radiological findings without functional limitation
D:-Bony ankylosis of elbow
Ans: D
63:-Which is described as Type I Monteggia equivalent fracture by Bado, except?
A:-Fracture of proximal radius
B:-Radial neck fracture
C:-Anterior dislocation of radial head
D:-# ulnar diaphysis & olecranon with posterior dislocation of radial head
Ans: D
64:-The Central compartment of the foot contains
A:-Flexor digitorum brevis
B:-Abductor hallucis
C:-Flexor digiti minimi
D:-Interosseous muscles
Ans: A
65:-The best radiologic view to assess Scaphoid tubercle fracture is
A:-45 degree oblique semi-pronated
B:-Ulnar deviated AP
C:-Lateral
D:-Neutral AP
Ans: A
66:-The type III periprosthetic Tibia Fractures after Total Knee Arthroplasty, fracture location is
A:-Tibial plateau
B:-Adjacent to the stem
C:-Distal to Prosthesis
D:-Tibial tubercle
Ans: C
67:-The criteria for 'Complex Regional Pain Syndrome' in Orthopaedic setting includes all except
A:-Non dermatomal neuropathic pain
B:-Abnormalities of sweating
C:-Swelling
D:-Painless joint mobility
Ans: D
68:-In Mirels criteria for risk of pathologic fracture, moderate pain is assigned a variable of
A:-0
B:-1
C:-2
D:-3
Ans: C
69:-In Osteoporosis, BMD T-score is
A:-> - 1
B:--1 to -2.5
C:-< 2.5
D:-> 2.5
Ans: C
70:-The volume of contrast needed for Hip arthroscopy is
A:-10 ml
B:-15 ml
C:-40 ml
D:-50 ml
Ans: B
71:-The type of evidence in Observational study is considered as
A:-Very low quality
B:-Low quality
C:-Moderate quality
D:-High quality
Ans: B
72:-In Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS), systolic BP transiently < 90 mm Hg has a score of
A:-0
B:-1
C:-2
D:-3
Ans: B
73:-The Functional Independence Measurement (FIM) score is based on
A:-12 Physical and psychological categories
B:-21 items of basic capacities & higher performance levels
C:-13 motor and 5 cognitive items
D:-3 function scales
Ans: C
74:-Indications for 'Early Total Care' in trauma patients includes
A:-Lactate <2 mmol/L
B:-Urine output > 0.5 ml/kg/hr
C:-Mild hypercapnia
D:-Ionotropic stimulation is needed
Ans: A
75:-Cotton Ball spots in the skull is seen in
A:-Fibrosarcoma
B:-Hyperparathyroidism
C:-Myeloma
D:-Pagets disease
Ans: D
76:-All are Lipoid histiocytoses, except
A:-Nemann-Pick disease
B:-Gauches splenomegaly
C:-Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
D:-Letterer-Siwe disease
Ans: D
77:-The views used in ''FAST'' ultrasound scans include all except
A:-longitudinal subxipoid view
B:-Right upper quadrant view of abdomen
C:-Longitudinal left upper quadrant view of abdomen
D:-Bilateral longitudinal thoracic views
Ans: A
78:-The following are false about defined parameters for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, except
A:-Body temperature > 38 deg C or < 36 deg C
B:-PaCO2 > 32 mm Hg
C:-Heart rate < 90 beats / min
D:-Resp. rate < 20 / min
Ans: C
79:-Serum Inflammatory markers for Medicator activity include all, except
A:-Interleukin-1
B:-Lipopolysaccharide binding protein
C:-Interleukin-18
D:-Tumour necrosis factor
Ans: B
80:-Coded value of 3 in Unweighted Reverse Trauma Score as used in Field Triage, has respiratory rate of
A:-6-9 / min
B:-> 29 / min
C:-1-5 / min
D:-10-29 / min
Ans: B
81:-Rugger jersey spine is seen in
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Eosinophilic granuloma
C) Hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal disease
D) Both 1 and 3
Ans: D
82:-In radial nerve palsy when palmaris longus is sutured to the rerouted extensor pollicis longus which movements of the thumb are regained
A) abduction and extension
B) adduction and flexion
C) abduction and flexion
D) adduction and extension
Ans: A
83:-In a child of eight years which of the following epiphyseal centres around the elbow will be absent ?
A) capitellum
B) medial epicondyle
C) radial head
D) olecranon
Ans: D
84:-If the second half of the POLO test is positive it means that
A) posterior cruciate ligament is too tight
B) flexion gap is too narrow
C) both statements are true
D) both statements are wrong
Ans: C
85:-In scapholunate dissociation
A) Watson's test is negative
B) Scapholunate space is 4 mm
C) Cortical ring sign is absent
D) Scapholunate angle <70 in the lateral view
Ans: B
86:-What is false regarding pseudoachondroplasia ?
A) normal skull and facies
B) platyspondyly with anterior central beaking
C) epiphysis alone is affected
D) shallow acetabulam
Ans: C
87:-In which among the following dwarfs the spine alone is involved without limb involvement ?
A) Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
B) Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
C) Morquio's syndrome
D) Diastrophic dwarfism
Ans: C
88:-In rickets, non union of osteotomy is sure to occur, if it is done before which stage of Lovett
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 3
Ans: D
89:-Which is not a feature of sabre tibia ?
A) sharp curve
B) mid shaft involved
C) generally purely anterior curve
D) occurs upto the age of 15
Ans: A
90:-In a case of brachial plexus injury, if you get all the modalities of triple response to histamine over an insensitive dermatome the lesion is then
A) Preganglionic
B) Postganglionic
C) Neither of the two
D) Both 1 and 2
Ans: A
91:-In the early stages of a case of syringomyelia, over the affected area the patient will be able to appreciate
A) pin pricks
B) hot objects
C) light touch
D) none of these
Ans: C
92:-In protrusion acetabuli the CE angle of Weiberg will be greater than
A) 30 degree
B) 20 degree
C) 50 degree
D) 40 degree
Ans: D
93:-The normal measurements of volar tilt of radius, radial inclination and radial height are respectively
A) 20 degree, 11 degree and 20 mm
B) 25 degree, 30 degree and 25 mm
C) 11 degree, 23 degree and 11 mm
D) 30 degree, 40 degree and 30 mm
Ans: C
94:-Applying Mirel's criteria, a peritrochanteric blastic lesion with moderate pain will need prophylactic internal fixation when the lesion involves
A) <1/3 diameter of the bone
B) >2/3 diameter of the bone
C) 1/3 − 2/3 diameter of the bone
D) cannot comment
Ans: C
95:-The three fragment triplane fracture is a combination of Salter-Harris type
A) 2 and 3
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 2 and 4
Ans: A
96:-Geographical skull is seen in
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Eosinophilic granuloma
D) Pagets disease
Ans: C
97:-In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus anterior spike and crescent sign in the X-ray respectively represent
A) tilt and rotation
B) rotation and tilt
C) posterior displacement and tilt
D) tilt and posterior displacement
Ans: B
98:-Harmon approach is valuable for exposure of which part of tibia ?
A) Upper one thirdB) Upper two third
C) Middle two third
D) Middle one third
Ans: C
99:-Osteoid osteoma does not affect
A) Clavicle
B) Vertebrae
C) Skull
D) Fibula
Ans: C
100:-In a pelvis X-ray only the principal compressive trabeculae stand out prominently and the remaining trabeculae have been essentially absorbed, then the Singh's index is
A) Grade 4
B) Grade 3
C) Grade 2
D) Grade 1
Ans: C
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine