PAEDIATRICS-PAGE 1
PAEDIATRICS MCQ
1) Delayed clamping of Umbilical Cord at birth for nearly 2 minutes is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Improved iron status
B) Improved clinical anemia at 2-6 month of age
C) Increase in polycythemia among infants
D) Increased chances of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia during neonatal period
Ans: 4
2) To ensure that the needs of children and adults across the globe are not obscured by local needs, 8 Millenium Development Goals (MDG) were established in 2000. What is the target of MDG number 4 to be achieved until 2015?
A) Reduce Under 5 Mortality rate by 1/4
B) Reduce Under 5 Mortality rate by 2/3
C) Reduce Infant Mortality rate by 1/4
D) Reduce Infant Mortality rate by 2/3
Ans: 2
3) Papular-purpuric ‘ Gloves and socks’ syndrome is caused by
A) EB virus
B) West Nile Virus
C) Parvo virus B19
D) KFD virus
Ans: 3
4) The range of environmental temperature at which the BMR (Basal Metabolic rate) of the baby is at a minimum, oxygen consumption is least and the baby maintains its normal body temperature is called as:
A) Thermoneutral environment
B) Thermal confort zone
C) Ambient environmental temperature
D) Ideal thermal environment
Ans: 1
5) One of the following is a strongly recommended (Evidence strong) intervention to reduce systemic infections in the first 48 hours and prevent future neurodevelopmental impairment in preterm neonates:
A) IV IG administration
B) Use of Insulin for hyperglycemia
C) Avoiding aminoglycoside exposure for >7 days
D) Use of antenatal steroid
Ans: 4
6) Ovaries and testes in a fetus become distinguishable at ________ weeks of gestation:
A) 8 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 16 weeks
D) 20 weeks
Ans: 1
7) A form of fetal programming where two genes are inherited but one is turned off through environmentally induced modification is called as:
A) Epigenetic imprinting
B) Polymorphism
C) Gene modification
D) Gene heterogenesity
Ans: 1
8) The developmental implication of developmental milestone “Uncovers toys after seeing it hidden” is:
A) Symbolic thought
B) Beginning of labelling
C) Object permanence
D) Self discovery, Cause and effect
Ans: 3
9) An event that is caused by an error in vaccine preparation, handling, or administration is called as:
A) Coincidental event
B) Injection reaction
C) Vaccine reaction
D) Programme error
Ans: 4
10) The most accepted International recommendations for the reporting of randomized clinical studies have been given by:
A) Joint statement for Reporting Randomised control trials
B) Recommendations for Reporting Randomised control trials
C) Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials
D) Guidelines for Randomised control trials
Ans: 3
11) When calculating sample size for a research study, all of the following are considerations EXCEPT:
A) Power of study
B) Prevalence
C) Expected Confidence level
D) Randomization
Ans: 4
12) What age range does the Phallic/Oedipal stage of Freud (Psychosexual) theory correspond to:
A) 0-1 year
B) 3-6 year
C) 2-3 year
D) 6-12 year
Ans: 2
13) What is the first visible sign of puberty and the hallmark of SMR2 in boys and at what age in years does it occur?
A) Testicular enlargement and 9 ½ years
B) Pubic hair and 11 ½ years
C) Testicular enlargement and 11 ½ years
D) Pubic hair and 9 ½ years
Ans: 1
14) Preterm infants ingesting unfortified breast milk need to be supplemented with what doses of calcium, and Vitamin D?
A) Calcium (80-120 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (200-400 IU/day)
B) Calcium (40-80 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (400-1000 IU/day)
C) Calcium (500-1000 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (200-400 IU/day)
D) Calcium (150-220 mg/ kg/day) and Vitamin D (400-1000 IU/day)
Ans: 4
15) Pinpoint pupil is NOT seen in
A) Pontine hemorrhage
B) Cerebellar lesions
C) Opiates poisoning
D) Botulism
Ans: 4
16) Triangular facies is indicative of
A) Russel silver syndrome
B) Mobius syndrome
C) Soto syndrome
D) Nephrotic syndrome
Ans: 1
17) Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP) is defined as those cases of Acute flaccid paralysis:
A) Who have residual weakness 6 months after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated
B) Who have residual weakness 60 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated
C) Who have residual weakness 6 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated
D) Who have residual weakness 60 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, both vaccine related poliovirus and wild virus is isolated
Ans: 2
18) Hypernatremic dehydration in children leads to irritability, restlessness, weakness, lethargy and fever. What is the most devastating consequence of Hypernatremia in children?
A) Seizures
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Brain hemorrhage
D) Hypocalcemia
Ans: 3
19) Children heterozygous for having ____________ (this is a genetic phenomenon) for KCNE2 gene (Potassium Channel -voltage gated) have higher chance of having life threatening arrhythmias after administration of Erythromycin?
A) Gene Polymorphism
B) Anticipation
C) Ontogeny
D) Phylogeny
Ans: 1
20) A 7 days old infant born with insignificant antenatal and neonatal history presents with poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy, rapidly progressive coma, metabolic acidosis, a peculiar odour of his urine, hypertonicity with severe opisthotonous which alternate with bouts of flaccidity. Was initially empirically diagnosed as having CNS infection and sepsis but had repeated hypoglycemia and the correction of hypoglycemia did not improve his clinical condition. What is the most likely differential for this clinical presentation?
A) Phenylketonuria
B) Tyrosenemia
C) Maple Syrup Urine disease
D) Isovaleric academia
Ans: 3
21) What is the body temperature range to categorise a neonate as having Mild hypothermia or cold stress?
A) 35.4 to 36.0 deg C
B) 33.4 to 34.4 deg C
C) 34.4 to 35.4 deg C
D) 36 to 36.4 deg C
Ans: 4
22) A 15 day old neonate presents with intractable vomiting, severe acidosis, intermittent lethargy, seizures, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, hypocalcemia, hyperammonemia and hyperglycemia. What is the most likely differential for this clinical presentation?
A) Severe gram negative sepsis
B) Urea Cycle defects
C) Isovaleric acidemia
D) Pyloric stenosis
Ans: 3
23) Infection involving the superficial tissue layers anterior to the orbital septum is termed preseptal cellulitis. Which of the following does NOT cause Preseptal cellulitis?
A) H Influenzae
B) Bacteriodes Fragilis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus Pneumonae
Ans: 2
24) What is the minimum age of vaccination of Human Papilloma virus vaccine:
A) 11 years
B) 9 years
C) 15 years
D) 13 years
Ans: 2
25) What is the minimal internal diameter of “Giant Coronary aneurysm” in children with Kawasaki disease which pose highest risk for rupture, thrombosis, stenosis and myocardial infarction?
A) 8 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
Ans: 1
26) Delayed eruption is usually considered when there are no teeth by approximately ________ of age:
A) 18 month of age (mean +3 SD)
B) 9 month of age (mean +3 SD)
C) 16 month of age (mean +3 SD)
D) 13 month of age (mean +3 SD)
Ans: 4
27) Severe ocular itching, photophobia, foreign body sensation and lacrymation in a 6 year old boy with thick ropey discharge, trantas dots, horner points and cobble stoning (giant papillae) on upper tarsal plate are diagnostic of:
A) Vernal Conjunctivitis
B) Atopic Conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Giant Papillary conjunctivitis
Ans: 1
28) Rapid Eye movement (REM) Sleep appears to be involved in all EXCEPT:
A) Consolidation of memory
B) Promoting the plasticity of central nervous system
C) Protective brain from injury
D) Mood regulation
Ans: 4
29) Humanized monoclonal antibody that binds IgE to prevent its binding to the high affinity IgE receptor and blocking IgE mediated allergic response and inflammation in Bronchial Asthma is:
A) Pelvizumab
B) Natalizumab
C) Omalizumab
D) Etilizumab
Ans: 3
30) Children with Chediak Higashi Syndrome have light skin, silvery hair, solar sensitivity, photophobia, frequent infections, neuropathy, prolonged bleeding times with normal platelet count. What is the treatment which improves the clinical status of some children in the stable phase?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin B1
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin E
Ans: 3
31) All of the following are high specificity skeletal injuries related with child abuse, EXCEPT:
A) Metaphyseal corner lesions
B) First rib fracture
C) Clavicle fracture
D) Sternal fracture
Ans: 3
32) What is the pharmaceutical name for the popular “Rave medication” consumed at dance parties by adolescent children as one of the club drugs?
A) Lysergic acid diethyl amide
B) Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
C) Phencyclidine
D) Cocaine
Ans: 2
33) What is the commonest aneuploidy seen in neonates born with single umbilical artery?
A) Trisomy 18
B) Trisomy 13
C) Trisomy 21
D) Trisomy 15
Ans: 1
34) The most common finding in children with severe viral enteritis :
A) Isotonic dehydration with Acidosis
B) Isotonic dehydration with Alkalosis
C) Hypotonic dehydration with Acidosis
D) Hypotonic dehydration with Alkalosis
Ans: 1
35) The most common pathogenic organism causing pyogenic liver abscess in children is:
A) Staphylococcus Aureus
B) H Influenzae
C) Entamoeba Histolytic
D) Klebseilla
Ans: 1
36) Surgical or device closure is advised in all symptomatic and also for asymptomatic children having Atrial Septal defect (Secondum variety) when the Qp : Qs ratio is at least:
A) 1.5 :1
B) 2:1
C) 2.5:1
D) 1:1
Ans: 2
37) 30 : 2 compression to ventilation ration is used for all cardiac arrest victims EXCEPT:
A) Single rescuer adult victim
B) Two rescuer adult victim
C) Single rescuer infant victim
D) Two rescuer infant victim
Ans: 4
38) The most common congenital cardiac defect associated with sudden death in children is:
A) Valvular aortic stenosis
B) Origin of the left coronary artery from the right sinus of valsalva
C) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
D) Congenital Mitral regurgitation
Ans: 1
39) All treatments used in treatment of High altitude pulmonary edema except
A) Positive end expiratory pressure
B) BETA-adrenergic Agonists
C) Nifedipine
D) Steroids
Ans: 4
40) The two embryonic hemoglobin are:
A) Fetal Hemoglobin and Gower Hemoglobin
B) Fetal Hemoglobin and Portland Hemoglobin
C) Portland Hemoglobin and Hb A2
D) Gower Hemoglobin and Portland Hemoglobin
Ans: 4
41) Low molecular weight heparins are used very frequently to prevent propagation of thrombus in children with stroke.
What is the laboratory test used in blood to monitor the LMW Heparins?
A) Anti factor Xa
B) Factor Xa
C) Thrombin
D) Antithrombin
Ans: 1
42) A 2 year old male child presents with congenital hypothyroidism with generalized muscular pseudo hypertrophy. What is the diagnosis?
A) Lyonized Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Limb girdle dystrophy with congenital hypothyroidism
C) Kocher Debre Semelaigne syndrome
D) Isolated Pseudohypertrophy with Congenital hypothyroidism
Ans: 3
43) What is the mechanism of action of anti epileptic drug Phenytoin?
A) Blocking reuptake of neuroinhibitory transmitter GABA
B) By binding to the GABA transaminase receptor
C) By blocking calcium channels
D) By blocking sodium-dependent channels and decreasing depolarization dependent calcium uptake
Ans: 4
44) Discrete nodules in the iris called as Lisch nodule and representing melanocytic hamartomas of the iris are seen most commonly in:
A) Tuberous Sclerosis
B) Neurofibromatosis
C) Incontinentia Pigmenti
D) I Cell disease
Ans: 2
45) Behavioral observation audiometry is used as a screening test for hearing in age group:
A) <6 months
B) 6-30 months
C) 30-60 months
D) >60 months
Ans: 1
46) Which of the following is false regarding serum biochemistry and weight monitoring of a term neonate:
A) Hyponatremia with weight loss suggests sodium depletion and merits sodium replacement
B) Hyponatremia with weight gain suggests water excess and necessitates fluid restriction
C) Hypernatremia with weight loss suggests excess sodium and would require salt restriction
D) Hypernatremia with weight gain suggests salt and water load and require fluid and sodium restriction
Ans: 3
47) Which of the following is not a classification/scoring system for neonatal Hypoxic Ischemic encephalopathy?
A) Feliz scoring
B) Sarnat and Sarnat
C) Levene grading
D) Thompson scoring
Ans: 1
48) Which of the following are the qualities of a “Green light food” as per Traffic light diet plan for children?
A) Nutrition dense, but higher in calories and fat
B) Low-Calorie, high fiber, low fat, nutrition-dense
C) High in calories, sugar and fat
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
49) A rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in SLC19A2 gene and characterised by megaloblastic anemia, diabetes mellitus and sensorinerual hearing loss responds to which of the following nutrient?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin B1
D) Folic acid
Ans: 3
50) All of the following are Vitamin B6 dependent syndromes, EXCEPT:
A) Pyridoxine dependent seizures
B) Xanthenurenic aciduria
C) Cystathionuria
D) Darier disease
Ans: 4
A) Improved iron status
B) Improved clinical anemia at 2-6 month of age
C) Increase in polycythemia among infants
D) Increased chances of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia during neonatal period
Ans: 4
2) To ensure that the needs of children and adults across the globe are not obscured by local needs, 8 Millenium Development Goals (MDG) were established in 2000. What is the target of MDG number 4 to be achieved until 2015?
A) Reduce Under 5 Mortality rate by 1/4
B) Reduce Under 5 Mortality rate by 2/3
C) Reduce Infant Mortality rate by 1/4
D) Reduce Infant Mortality rate by 2/3
Ans: 2
3) Papular-purpuric ‘ Gloves and socks’ syndrome is caused by
A) EB virus
B) West Nile Virus
C) Parvo virus B19
D) KFD virus
Ans: 3
4) The range of environmental temperature at which the BMR (Basal Metabolic rate) of the baby is at a minimum, oxygen consumption is least and the baby maintains its normal body temperature is called as:
A) Thermoneutral environment
B) Thermal confort zone
C) Ambient environmental temperature
D) Ideal thermal environment
Ans: 1
5) One of the following is a strongly recommended (Evidence strong) intervention to reduce systemic infections in the first 48 hours and prevent future neurodevelopmental impairment in preterm neonates:
A) IV IG administration
B) Use of Insulin for hyperglycemia
C) Avoiding aminoglycoside exposure for >7 days
D) Use of antenatal steroid
Ans: 4
6) Ovaries and testes in a fetus become distinguishable at ________ weeks of gestation:
A) 8 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 16 weeks
D) 20 weeks
Ans: 1
7) A form of fetal programming where two genes are inherited but one is turned off through environmentally induced modification is called as:
A) Epigenetic imprinting
B) Polymorphism
C) Gene modification
D) Gene heterogenesity
Ans: 1
8) The developmental implication of developmental milestone “Uncovers toys after seeing it hidden” is:
A) Symbolic thought
B) Beginning of labelling
C) Object permanence
D) Self discovery, Cause and effect
Ans: 3
9) An event that is caused by an error in vaccine preparation, handling, or administration is called as:
A) Coincidental event
B) Injection reaction
C) Vaccine reaction
D) Programme error
Ans: 4
10) The most accepted International recommendations for the reporting of randomized clinical studies have been given by:
A) Joint statement for Reporting Randomised control trials
B) Recommendations for Reporting Randomised control trials
C) Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials
D) Guidelines for Randomised control trials
Ans: 3
11) When calculating sample size for a research study, all of the following are considerations EXCEPT:
A) Power of study
B) Prevalence
C) Expected Confidence level
D) Randomization
Ans: 4
12) What age range does the Phallic/Oedipal stage of Freud (Psychosexual) theory correspond to:
A) 0-1 year
B) 3-6 year
C) 2-3 year
D) 6-12 year
Ans: 2
13) What is the first visible sign of puberty and the hallmark of SMR2 in boys and at what age in years does it occur?
A) Testicular enlargement and 9 ½ years
B) Pubic hair and 11 ½ years
C) Testicular enlargement and 11 ½ years
D) Pubic hair and 9 ½ years
Ans: 1
14) Preterm infants ingesting unfortified breast milk need to be supplemented with what doses of calcium, and Vitamin D?
A) Calcium (80-120 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (200-400 IU/day)
B) Calcium (40-80 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (400-1000 IU/day)
C) Calcium (500-1000 mg/kg/day) and Vitamin D (200-400 IU/day)
D) Calcium (150-220 mg/ kg/day) and Vitamin D (400-1000 IU/day)
Ans: 4
15) Pinpoint pupil is NOT seen in
A) Pontine hemorrhage
B) Cerebellar lesions
C) Opiates poisoning
D) Botulism
Ans: 4
16) Triangular facies is indicative of
A) Russel silver syndrome
B) Mobius syndrome
C) Soto syndrome
D) Nephrotic syndrome
Ans: 1
17) Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP) is defined as those cases of Acute flaccid paralysis:
A) Who have residual weakness 6 months after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated
B) Who have residual weakness 60 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated
C) Who have residual weakness 6 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, vaccine related poliovirus but no wild virus is isolated
D) Who have residual weakness 60 days after the onset of paralysis and from whose stool samples, both vaccine related poliovirus and wild virus is isolated
Ans: 2
18) Hypernatremic dehydration in children leads to irritability, restlessness, weakness, lethargy and fever. What is the most devastating consequence of Hypernatremia in children?
A) Seizures
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Brain hemorrhage
D) Hypocalcemia
Ans: 3
19) Children heterozygous for having ____________ (this is a genetic phenomenon) for KCNE2 gene (Potassium Channel -voltage gated) have higher chance of having life threatening arrhythmias after administration of Erythromycin?
A) Gene Polymorphism
B) Anticipation
C) Ontogeny
D) Phylogeny
Ans: 1
20) A 7 days old infant born with insignificant antenatal and neonatal history presents with poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy, rapidly progressive coma, metabolic acidosis, a peculiar odour of his urine, hypertonicity with severe opisthotonous which alternate with bouts of flaccidity. Was initially empirically diagnosed as having CNS infection and sepsis but had repeated hypoglycemia and the correction of hypoglycemia did not improve his clinical condition. What is the most likely differential for this clinical presentation?
A) Phenylketonuria
B) Tyrosenemia
C) Maple Syrup Urine disease
D) Isovaleric academia
Ans: 3
21) What is the body temperature range to categorise a neonate as having Mild hypothermia or cold stress?
A) 35.4 to 36.0 deg C
B) 33.4 to 34.4 deg C
C) 34.4 to 35.4 deg C
D) 36 to 36.4 deg C
Ans: 4
22) A 15 day old neonate presents with intractable vomiting, severe acidosis, intermittent lethargy, seizures, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, hypocalcemia, hyperammonemia and hyperglycemia. What is the most likely differential for this clinical presentation?
A) Severe gram negative sepsis
B) Urea Cycle defects
C) Isovaleric acidemia
D) Pyloric stenosis
Ans: 3
23) Infection involving the superficial tissue layers anterior to the orbital septum is termed preseptal cellulitis. Which of the following does NOT cause Preseptal cellulitis?
A) H Influenzae
B) Bacteriodes Fragilis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus Pneumonae
Ans: 2
24) What is the minimum age of vaccination of Human Papilloma virus vaccine:
A) 11 years
B) 9 years
C) 15 years
D) 13 years
Ans: 2
25) What is the minimal internal diameter of “Giant Coronary aneurysm” in children with Kawasaki disease which pose highest risk for rupture, thrombosis, stenosis and myocardial infarction?
A) 8 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
Ans: 1
26) Delayed eruption is usually considered when there are no teeth by approximately ________ of age:
A) 18 month of age (mean +3 SD)
B) 9 month of age (mean +3 SD)
C) 16 month of age (mean +3 SD)
D) 13 month of age (mean +3 SD)
Ans: 4
27) Severe ocular itching, photophobia, foreign body sensation and lacrymation in a 6 year old boy with thick ropey discharge, trantas dots, horner points and cobble stoning (giant papillae) on upper tarsal plate are diagnostic of:
A) Vernal Conjunctivitis
B) Atopic Conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Giant Papillary conjunctivitis
Ans: 1
28) Rapid Eye movement (REM) Sleep appears to be involved in all EXCEPT:
A) Consolidation of memory
B) Promoting the plasticity of central nervous system
C) Protective brain from injury
D) Mood regulation
Ans: 4
29) Humanized monoclonal antibody that binds IgE to prevent its binding to the high affinity IgE receptor and blocking IgE mediated allergic response and inflammation in Bronchial Asthma is:
A) Pelvizumab
B) Natalizumab
C) Omalizumab
D) Etilizumab
Ans: 3
30) Children with Chediak Higashi Syndrome have light skin, silvery hair, solar sensitivity, photophobia, frequent infections, neuropathy, prolonged bleeding times with normal platelet count. What is the treatment which improves the clinical status of some children in the stable phase?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin B1
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin E
Ans: 3
31) All of the following are high specificity skeletal injuries related with child abuse, EXCEPT:
A) Metaphyseal corner lesions
B) First rib fracture
C) Clavicle fracture
D) Sternal fracture
Ans: 3
32) What is the pharmaceutical name for the popular “Rave medication” consumed at dance parties by adolescent children as one of the club drugs?
A) Lysergic acid diethyl amide
B) Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
C) Phencyclidine
D) Cocaine
Ans: 2
33) What is the commonest aneuploidy seen in neonates born with single umbilical artery?
A) Trisomy 18
B) Trisomy 13
C) Trisomy 21
D) Trisomy 15
Ans: 1
34) The most common finding in children with severe viral enteritis :
A) Isotonic dehydration with Acidosis
B) Isotonic dehydration with Alkalosis
C) Hypotonic dehydration with Acidosis
D) Hypotonic dehydration with Alkalosis
Ans: 1
35) The most common pathogenic organism causing pyogenic liver abscess in children is:
A) Staphylococcus Aureus
B) H Influenzae
C) Entamoeba Histolytic
D) Klebseilla
Ans: 1
36) Surgical or device closure is advised in all symptomatic and also for asymptomatic children having Atrial Septal defect (Secondum variety) when the Qp : Qs ratio is at least:
A) 1.5 :1
B) 2:1
C) 2.5:1
D) 1:1
Ans: 2
37) 30 : 2 compression to ventilation ration is used for all cardiac arrest victims EXCEPT:
A) Single rescuer adult victim
B) Two rescuer adult victim
C) Single rescuer infant victim
D) Two rescuer infant victim
Ans: 4
38) The most common congenital cardiac defect associated with sudden death in children is:
A) Valvular aortic stenosis
B) Origin of the left coronary artery from the right sinus of valsalva
C) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
D) Congenital Mitral regurgitation
Ans: 1
39) All treatments used in treatment of High altitude pulmonary edema except
A) Positive end expiratory pressure
B) BETA-adrenergic Agonists
C) Nifedipine
D) Steroids
Ans: 4
40) The two embryonic hemoglobin are:
A) Fetal Hemoglobin and Gower Hemoglobin
B) Fetal Hemoglobin and Portland Hemoglobin
C) Portland Hemoglobin and Hb A2
D) Gower Hemoglobin and Portland Hemoglobin
Ans: 4
41) Low molecular weight heparins are used very frequently to prevent propagation of thrombus in children with stroke.
What is the laboratory test used in blood to monitor the LMW Heparins?
A) Anti factor Xa
B) Factor Xa
C) Thrombin
D) Antithrombin
Ans: 1
42) A 2 year old male child presents with congenital hypothyroidism with generalized muscular pseudo hypertrophy. What is the diagnosis?
A) Lyonized Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Limb girdle dystrophy with congenital hypothyroidism
C) Kocher Debre Semelaigne syndrome
D) Isolated Pseudohypertrophy with Congenital hypothyroidism
Ans: 3
43) What is the mechanism of action of anti epileptic drug Phenytoin?
A) Blocking reuptake of neuroinhibitory transmitter GABA
B) By binding to the GABA transaminase receptor
C) By blocking calcium channels
D) By blocking sodium-dependent channels and decreasing depolarization dependent calcium uptake
Ans: 4
44) Discrete nodules in the iris called as Lisch nodule and representing melanocytic hamartomas of the iris are seen most commonly in:
A) Tuberous Sclerosis
B) Neurofibromatosis
C) Incontinentia Pigmenti
D) I Cell disease
Ans: 2
45) Behavioral observation audiometry is used as a screening test for hearing in age group:
A) <6 months
B) 6-30 months
C) 30-60 months
D) >60 months
Ans: 1
46) Which of the following is false regarding serum biochemistry and weight monitoring of a term neonate:
A) Hyponatremia with weight loss suggests sodium depletion and merits sodium replacement
B) Hyponatremia with weight gain suggests water excess and necessitates fluid restriction
C) Hypernatremia with weight loss suggests excess sodium and would require salt restriction
D) Hypernatremia with weight gain suggests salt and water load and require fluid and sodium restriction
Ans: 3
47) Which of the following is not a classification/scoring system for neonatal Hypoxic Ischemic encephalopathy?
A) Feliz scoring
B) Sarnat and Sarnat
C) Levene grading
D) Thompson scoring
Ans: 1
48) Which of the following are the qualities of a “Green light food” as per Traffic light diet plan for children?
A) Nutrition dense, but higher in calories and fat
B) Low-Calorie, high fiber, low fat, nutrition-dense
C) High in calories, sugar and fat
D) None of the above
Ans: 2
49) A rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in SLC19A2 gene and characterised by megaloblastic anemia, diabetes mellitus and sensorinerual hearing loss responds to which of the following nutrient?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin B1
D) Folic acid
Ans: 3
50) All of the following are Vitamin B6 dependent syndromes, EXCEPT:
A) Pyridoxine dependent seizures
B) Xanthenurenic aciduria
C) Cystathionuria
D) Darier disease
Ans: 4
51) In Children having mild Vitamin K deficiency, Prothrombin time may be normal and estimation of Protein induced in vitamin K absence (PIVKA) is useful to detect early Vitamin K Deficiency. What is the exact form of PIVKA?
A) Undercarboxylated Factor VII
B) Undercarboxylated Factor II
C) Carboxylated Factor VII
D) Carboxylated Factor II
Ans: 2
52) Diagnostic criteria for Syndrome of Inappropirate Antidiuretic hormone secretion include all EXCEPT:
A) Urine Osmolality >100 mOsm/kg (Usually >Plasma)
B) Serum Osmolality <280 mOsm/kg and serum sodium <135 meq/l
C) Urine Sodium <30 meq/l
D) Reversal of “Sodium Wasting” and correction of hyponatremia with water restriction
Ans: 3
53) The clinical consequences of hypokalemia in skeletal muscle include muscle weakness and cramps. What is the level of Serum Potassium at which Paralysis is a possible complication of hypokalemia?
A) Serum Potassium at 2.0 meq/l
B) Serum Potassium at 2.5 meq/l
C) Serum Potassium at 3.0 meq/l
D) Serum Potassium at 3.5 meq/l
Ans: 2
54) All of the following are causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT:
A) Renal Tubular acidosis
B) Diarrhea
C) Acidosis due to Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
D) Urinary tract diversions
Ans: 3
55) All of the following are appropriate pair of a poison with its antidote, EXCEPT:
A) Poison-Carbon Monooxide Antidote-Oxygen
B) Poison-Salicylates Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
C) Poison-Sulfonyl Ureas Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
D) Poison-Tricyclic Antidepressants Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
Ans: 3
56) The clinical features of eye opening, best verbal response and best motor response in Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 will best fit as:
A) Eye opening to pain, Making incomprehensible sounds and has flexion as best motor response
B) Spontaneous eye opening, Confused and localises pain
C) Eye opening to pain, confused and localises pain
D) No response, Incomprehensible sounds and extension as best motor response
Ans: 1
57) All the following are correct steps in the Pediatric advanced life support tachycardia algorithm for the management of Possible Ventricular Tachycardia with a pulse and poor perfusion, EXCEPT:
A) Maintain patent airway, assist breathing if necessary
B) Defibrillation
C) Oxygenation at highest possible FiO2
D) Consideration of adenosine if rhythm is regular and monomorphic QRS
Ans: 2
58) The commonest indication for Liver Transplantation in children is:
A) Metabolic and inborn disorders of Liver
B) Autoimmune and Familial Cholestatic disorders
C) Biliary atresia
D) Acute Hepatic Necrosis
Ans: 3
59) The genetic mutation most commonly linked with Congenital Central Hypoventilation Syndrome is:
A) Mutation in Sodium Channel alpha 1 subunit (SCN1A)
B) Mutation in paired-like homeobox 2B gene (PHOX2B)
C) Mutation in outer Dynein arm (DNAH5)
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
60) The most frequently used index of cardiac function measured by M-Mode echocardiography in children is percent Fractional shortening (%FS) and is calculated by the formula: Where LVED is Left Ventricular end diastolic dimension, LVES is Left ventricular end systolic dimension
A) (LVED-LVES)/LVED
B) (LVES-LVED)/LVES
C) LVED-LVES/LVED
D) LVES-LVED/LVES
Ans: 1
61) All of the following are indicators of Iron deficiency anemia, EXCEPT:
A) Increased serum levels of Serum Transferrin receptor (sTfR)
B) Increased serum levels of Hepcidin
C) Reduced levels of Serum Ferritin
D) Reduced Mean Corpuscular volume
Ans: 2
62) Treatment should be considered in infants with echocardiographically proven hemodynamically significant patent ductur arteriosus in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) Features of Congestive heart failure
B) Unexplained oxygen requirement (FiO2 more than or equal to 30%) or rising Oxygen requirement on respiratory support
C) Recurrent apnea requiring respiratory support (CPAP/Nasal IMV/Invasive ventilation) attributed to PDA
D) In all preterm neonates <2000 gm birth weight
Ans: 4
63) Which of the following is true regarding storage of Expressed Breast milk (EBM)?
A) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 6 hours and 24 hours in refrigerator
B) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 24 hours and 6 days in refrigerator
C) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 18 hours and 1 month in refrigerator
D) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 6 hours and 6 days in refrigerator
Ans: 1
64) Which of the following is a test for diagnosing single gene disorders:
A) Linkage Analysis
B) Array Competitive genomic hybridization
C) Direct Mutation (DNA sequence-based) analysis
D) All of the above
Ans: 4
65) In medical education, one of the most widely used ways of organizing levels of expertise is according to __________
of Educational Objectives:
A) Curricular reforms
B) Blooms Taxonomy
C) Sirus Theory
D) Millers Theory
Ans: 2
66) Infant of diabetic mother have the following EXCEPT :
A) Macrosomia
B) Neural tube defect
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypocalcaemia
Ans: 3
67) What is the commonest organism causing Cerebrospinal fluid shunt related infectons?
A) Staph Aureus
B) Gram Negative Bacilli
C) Coagulase negative Staphylococcus
D) Enterococci
Ans: 3
68) Which of the following antibiotics is a fifth generation Cephalosporin?
A) Ceftaroline
B) Cefepime
C) Cefpirome
D) Ceftolozane
Ans: 1
69) All of the following are major criteria for staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, EXCEPT:
A) Acute fever (Temperature >38.8 deg C (101.8 deg F)
B) Central Nervous System abnormalities
C) Hypotension (Orthostatic, shock, Blood Pressure below age-appropriate norms)
D) Rash (Erythroderma with convalescent desquamation)
Ans: 2
70) All of the following are true regarding the Jones Criteria as revised in 2015 by the American heart association, EXCEPT:
A) Describes 5 Major criteria, 4 minor criteria and a requirement of evidence of recent Group A Streptococcal infection (GAS)
B) Diagnosis of recurrent Acute Rheumatic fever in Moderate/High risk population requires 2 minor criteria and evidence of preceding GAS infection
C) Has separate criteria for Low risk and Moderate/High risk population
D) Acute Rheumatic fever diagnosed in the presence of 2 major or 1 Major and 2 minor criteria with evidence of preceding GAS infection
Ans: 2
71) The most common manifestation of Late onset Neonatal Group B Streptococcal disease is:
A) Bacteremia and Meningitis
B) Sepsis
C) Pneumonia
D) Focal infections of bone and Joints
Ans: 1
72) The common name for Roseola Infantum caused by Human Herpes Virus 6 A and 6B is:
A) Exanthema Subitum
B) Fifth disease
C) Herpes fever
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
73) Appropriate therapy with antiretroviral agents results in a syndrome characterised by an increased inflammatory response from the recovered immune system to subclinical opportunistic infections. What is this syndrome called as?
A) HIV related hyper-reactivity syndrome
B) AIDS related inflammatory syndrome
C) Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
D) CD4 responsive inflammatory syndrome
Ans: 3
74) What is the most common severe complication of malaria in children?
A) Cerebral Malaria
B) Respiratory distress
C) Severe Malarial anemia
D) Hypoglycemia
Ans: 3
75) As per the Perinatal Risk Stratification of Preterm Neonates and Developmental outcomes-PRE (Preterm Risk Evaluation) Network, which of the following will constitute a moderate risk category?
A) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia
B) Gestation <30 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia
C) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight <1250 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia
D) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, More than or equal to 5 days of hypoglycaemia
Ans: 1
76) All is true regarding the “One-and-a-half Syndrome , except:
A) Caused because of a large Median Longitudional fasciculus lesion and involving Sixth Nerve nucleus
B) Failure of conjugate gaze on the side of the lesion and failure of adduction to the opposite side
C) Failure of upgaze, sometimes with convergence-retraction nystagmus
D) Unaffected Vertical movements
Ans: 3
77) The “V ” wave of Jugular venous pulses is produced due to:
A) Atrial systole preceding trisucpid valve closure
B) Descent of the triscuspid valve ring
C) Closure of tricuspid valve
D) Passive filling of atrium during ventricular systole
Ans: 4
78) What is the approximate Total fetal Cardiac output ?
A) 300 ml/kg/min
B) 450ml/kg/min
C) 600 ml/kg/min
D) 150 ml/kg/min
Ans: 2
79) Causes of wide splitting of second heart sound include all EXCEPT:
A) Aortic atresia
B) Ebstein anomaly
C) Total Anamolous pulmonary venous return
D) Right bundle branch block
Ans: 1
80:-In IgA nephropathy deposition of IgA occurs in
A:-glomerular capillaries B:-glomerular mesangium C:-glomerular basement membrane D:-tubules
Ans: B
81:-Which one of the following abnormalities most likely to be seen in Pulmonary function test in a patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?
A:-Decreased diffusing capacity of the lung for Carbon monoxide
B:-Decreased functional residual capacity
C:-Decreased residual volume
D:-Decreased supine vital capacity
Ans: D
82:-Environmental enteric dysfunction has been associated with
A:-Oedematous malnutrition B:-Tropical sprue C:-Mal rotation D:-Intucception
Ans: A
83:-A simple screening test for B-cell defect is by the measurement of
A:-IgA B:-IgG C:-IgE D:-IgM
Ans: A
84:-The genu valgus the intermalleolar distance for more than __________ cm is pathological.
A:-4 cm B:-6 cm C:-5 cm D:-8 cm
Ans: D
85:-The clinical definition of shock by WHO in resource limited setting is
A:-cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse
B:-cold extremities with weak and fast pulse
C:-capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse
D:-cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs
Ans: A
86:-Management of early treatment failure in malaria include all except
A:-Look for diarrhoea and vomiting
B:-Treat with second line drugs
C:-Consider it as resistant malaria
D:-Do a rapid diagnostic test to see for fresh infection
Ans: D
87:-The optimal mode of therapy now for EHPVO
A:-mesentrico portal bypass B:-endoscopic variceal band ligation C:-endoscopic sclerotherapy D:-distal spleno-renal shunt Ans: A
88:-Pulmonary capillary blood from which lung unit has the lowest `"PO_2"`
A:-V = 2 l/mt Q = 0.2 l/mt B:-V = 2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt C:-V = 0.2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt D:-V = 0 Q = 2 l/mt
Ans: D
89:-Fractional IPV is
A:-1/4th of a full dose B:-1/5th of a full dose C:-1/2 of the full dose D:-1/3rd of the full dose
Ans: B
90:-Thrombocytopenia is an AEFI of which vaccine
A:-Measles B:-BCG C:-DPT D:-Hepatitis B
Ans: A
91:-Isoniazid preventive therapy should be given to child in all situations except
A:-For all HIV infected children who are tuberculin skin test positive
B:-All TST positive children who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy
C:-A child born to mother who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy
D:-Close contacts of index cases with proved DR-TB
Ans: D
92:-In Di-Georges syndrome which of these is not included in catch-22 mnemonic
A:-Cardiac abnormality B:-Hyperthyroidism C:-Hypocalcaemia D:-Abnormal facies
Ans: B
93:-Anakinra acts on which interleukin and blocks its activity
A:-IL 3 B:-IL 4 C:-IL 2 D:-IL 1
Ans: D
94:-Who recommended IV fluid for maintenance IV fluid all except?
A:-RL with 5% dextrose B:-NS with 5% dextrose
C:-1/2 NS with 5% dextrose D:-RL
Ans: D
95:-Drug of choice for carbapenemase producing carbapenem resistant organisms
A:-Meropenem B:-Colistin with Meropenem
C:-Vancomycin D:-Linezolid
Ans: B
96:-Sign that remain useful for assessing dehydration status in children with severe acute malnutrition is
A:-Loss of skin turgor B:-Eyes appear sunken
C:-Child irritable D:-Eagerness to drink
Ans: D
97:-The upstream markers in hemodynamic monitoring in critically ill child include all except
A:-Blood pressure B:-Heart rate
C:-Central venous pressure D:-Urine output
Ans: D
98:-Within ADHD which of the following is not classified as a problem relating to hyperactivity-impulsivity?
A:-Doesn't appear to listen when being told something or spoken to
B:-Experience difficulties in playing quietly
C:-Talks excessively
D:-Rather than sitting still, squirms in seat and fidgets
Ans: A
99. A 6 year old child presents with oliguria, haematuria, puffiness of face, convulsions, B.P. of 200/100 mm Hg and blood urea 80 mg%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
(b) Nephrotic syndrome
(c) Acute glomerulonephritis with hypertensive encephalopathy
(d) Obstructive uropathy
Ans: C
100. A 3 year old child is brought for sudden inability to walk following fever of two days duration. On clinical examination, sensorium is normal, both the lower limbs are hypotonic with the right limb more affected than the left. Plantar reflex is equivocal and deep tendon reflexes are not elicitable in the lower limbs on both sides. The most probable diagnosis is
(a) Acute poliomyelitis (b) Acute rheumatic fever
(c) Acute transverse myelitis (d) Acute infective polyneuritis
Ans: A
A) Undercarboxylated Factor VII
B) Undercarboxylated Factor II
C) Carboxylated Factor VII
D) Carboxylated Factor II
Ans: 2
52) Diagnostic criteria for Syndrome of Inappropirate Antidiuretic hormone secretion include all EXCEPT:
A) Urine Osmolality >100 mOsm/kg (Usually >Plasma)
B) Serum Osmolality <280 mOsm/kg and serum sodium <135 meq/l
C) Urine Sodium <30 meq/l
D) Reversal of “Sodium Wasting” and correction of hyponatremia with water restriction
Ans: 3
53) The clinical consequences of hypokalemia in skeletal muscle include muscle weakness and cramps. What is the level of Serum Potassium at which Paralysis is a possible complication of hypokalemia?
A) Serum Potassium at 2.0 meq/l
B) Serum Potassium at 2.5 meq/l
C) Serum Potassium at 3.0 meq/l
D) Serum Potassium at 3.5 meq/l
Ans: 2
54) All of the following are causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT:
A) Renal Tubular acidosis
B) Diarrhea
C) Acidosis due to Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
D) Urinary tract diversions
Ans: 3
55) All of the following are appropriate pair of a poison with its antidote, EXCEPT:
A) Poison-Carbon Monooxide Antidote-Oxygen
B) Poison-Salicylates Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
C) Poison-Sulfonyl Ureas Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
D) Poison-Tricyclic Antidepressants Antidote-Sodium Bicarbonate
Ans: 3
56) The clinical features of eye opening, best verbal response and best motor response in Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 will best fit as:
A) Eye opening to pain, Making incomprehensible sounds and has flexion as best motor response
B) Spontaneous eye opening, Confused and localises pain
C) Eye opening to pain, confused and localises pain
D) No response, Incomprehensible sounds and extension as best motor response
Ans: 1
57) All the following are correct steps in the Pediatric advanced life support tachycardia algorithm for the management of Possible Ventricular Tachycardia with a pulse and poor perfusion, EXCEPT:
A) Maintain patent airway, assist breathing if necessary
B) Defibrillation
C) Oxygenation at highest possible FiO2
D) Consideration of adenosine if rhythm is regular and monomorphic QRS
Ans: 2
58) The commonest indication for Liver Transplantation in children is:
A) Metabolic and inborn disorders of Liver
B) Autoimmune and Familial Cholestatic disorders
C) Biliary atresia
D) Acute Hepatic Necrosis
Ans: 3
59) The genetic mutation most commonly linked with Congenital Central Hypoventilation Syndrome is:
A) Mutation in Sodium Channel alpha 1 subunit (SCN1A)
B) Mutation in paired-like homeobox 2B gene (PHOX2B)
C) Mutation in outer Dynein arm (DNAH5)
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
60) The most frequently used index of cardiac function measured by M-Mode echocardiography in children is percent Fractional shortening (%FS) and is calculated by the formula: Where LVED is Left Ventricular end diastolic dimension, LVES is Left ventricular end systolic dimension
A) (LVED-LVES)/LVED
B) (LVES-LVED)/LVES
C) LVED-LVES/LVED
D) LVES-LVED/LVES
Ans: 1
61) All of the following are indicators of Iron deficiency anemia, EXCEPT:
A) Increased serum levels of Serum Transferrin receptor (sTfR)
B) Increased serum levels of Hepcidin
C) Reduced levels of Serum Ferritin
D) Reduced Mean Corpuscular volume
Ans: 2
62) Treatment should be considered in infants with echocardiographically proven hemodynamically significant patent ductur arteriosus in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) Features of Congestive heart failure
B) Unexplained oxygen requirement (FiO2 more than or equal to 30%) or rising Oxygen requirement on respiratory support
C) Recurrent apnea requiring respiratory support (CPAP/Nasal IMV/Invasive ventilation) attributed to PDA
D) In all preterm neonates <2000 gm birth weight
Ans: 4
63) Which of the following is true regarding storage of Expressed Breast milk (EBM)?
A) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 6 hours and 24 hours in refrigerator
B) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 24 hours and 6 days in refrigerator
C) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 18 hours and 1 month in refrigerator
D) EBM can be stored at room temperature for about 6 hours and 6 days in refrigerator
Ans: 1
64) Which of the following is a test for diagnosing single gene disorders:
A) Linkage Analysis
B) Array Competitive genomic hybridization
C) Direct Mutation (DNA sequence-based) analysis
D) All of the above
Ans: 4
65) In medical education, one of the most widely used ways of organizing levels of expertise is according to __________
of Educational Objectives:
A) Curricular reforms
B) Blooms Taxonomy
C) Sirus Theory
D) Millers Theory
Ans: 2
66) Infant of diabetic mother have the following EXCEPT :
A) Macrosomia
B) Neural tube defect
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypocalcaemia
Ans: 3
67) What is the commonest organism causing Cerebrospinal fluid shunt related infectons?
A) Staph Aureus
B) Gram Negative Bacilli
C) Coagulase negative Staphylococcus
D) Enterococci
Ans: 3
68) Which of the following antibiotics is a fifth generation Cephalosporin?
A) Ceftaroline
B) Cefepime
C) Cefpirome
D) Ceftolozane
Ans: 1
69) All of the following are major criteria for staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, EXCEPT:
A) Acute fever (Temperature >38.8 deg C (101.8 deg F)
B) Central Nervous System abnormalities
C) Hypotension (Orthostatic, shock, Blood Pressure below age-appropriate norms)
D) Rash (Erythroderma with convalescent desquamation)
Ans: 2
70) All of the following are true regarding the Jones Criteria as revised in 2015 by the American heart association, EXCEPT:
A) Describes 5 Major criteria, 4 minor criteria and a requirement of evidence of recent Group A Streptococcal infection (GAS)
B) Diagnosis of recurrent Acute Rheumatic fever in Moderate/High risk population requires 2 minor criteria and evidence of preceding GAS infection
C) Has separate criteria for Low risk and Moderate/High risk population
D) Acute Rheumatic fever diagnosed in the presence of 2 major or 1 Major and 2 minor criteria with evidence of preceding GAS infection
Ans: 2
71) The most common manifestation of Late onset Neonatal Group B Streptococcal disease is:
A) Bacteremia and Meningitis
B) Sepsis
C) Pneumonia
D) Focal infections of bone and Joints
Ans: 1
72) The common name for Roseola Infantum caused by Human Herpes Virus 6 A and 6B is:
A) Exanthema Subitum
B) Fifth disease
C) Herpes fever
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
73) Appropriate therapy with antiretroviral agents results in a syndrome characterised by an increased inflammatory response from the recovered immune system to subclinical opportunistic infections. What is this syndrome called as?
A) HIV related hyper-reactivity syndrome
B) AIDS related inflammatory syndrome
C) Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
D) CD4 responsive inflammatory syndrome
Ans: 3
74) What is the most common severe complication of malaria in children?
A) Cerebral Malaria
B) Respiratory distress
C) Severe Malarial anemia
D) Hypoglycemia
Ans: 3
75) As per the Perinatal Risk Stratification of Preterm Neonates and Developmental outcomes-PRE (Preterm Risk Evaluation) Network, which of the following will constitute a moderate risk category?
A) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia
B) Gestation <30 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia
C) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight <1250 gm, 1-4 days of hypoglycaemia
D) Gestation 30-32 weeks, Birth Weight 1251-1500 gm, More than or equal to 5 days of hypoglycaemia
Ans: 1
76) All is true regarding the “One-and-a-half Syndrome , except:
A) Caused because of a large Median Longitudional fasciculus lesion and involving Sixth Nerve nucleus
B) Failure of conjugate gaze on the side of the lesion and failure of adduction to the opposite side
C) Failure of upgaze, sometimes with convergence-retraction nystagmus
D) Unaffected Vertical movements
Ans: 3
77) The “V ” wave of Jugular venous pulses is produced due to:
A) Atrial systole preceding trisucpid valve closure
B) Descent of the triscuspid valve ring
C) Closure of tricuspid valve
D) Passive filling of atrium during ventricular systole
Ans: 4
78) What is the approximate Total fetal Cardiac output ?
A) 300 ml/kg/min
B) 450ml/kg/min
C) 600 ml/kg/min
D) 150 ml/kg/min
Ans: 2
79) Causes of wide splitting of second heart sound include all EXCEPT:
A) Aortic atresia
B) Ebstein anomaly
C) Total Anamolous pulmonary venous return
D) Right bundle branch block
Ans: 1
80:-In IgA nephropathy deposition of IgA occurs in
A:-glomerular capillaries B:-glomerular mesangium C:-glomerular basement membrane D:-tubules
Ans: B
81:-Which one of the following abnormalities most likely to be seen in Pulmonary function test in a patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?
A:-Decreased diffusing capacity of the lung for Carbon monoxide
B:-Decreased functional residual capacity
C:-Decreased residual volume
D:-Decreased supine vital capacity
Ans: D
82:-Environmental enteric dysfunction has been associated with
A:-Oedematous malnutrition B:-Tropical sprue C:-Mal rotation D:-Intucception
Ans: A
83:-A simple screening test for B-cell defect is by the measurement of
A:-IgA B:-IgG C:-IgE D:-IgM
Ans: A
84:-The genu valgus the intermalleolar distance for more than __________ cm is pathological.
A:-4 cm B:-6 cm C:-5 cm D:-8 cm
Ans: D
85:-The clinical definition of shock by WHO in resource limited setting is
A:-cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse
B:-cold extremities with weak and fast pulse
C:-capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse
D:-cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs
Ans: A
86:-Management of early treatment failure in malaria include all except
A:-Look for diarrhoea and vomiting
B:-Treat with second line drugs
C:-Consider it as resistant malaria
D:-Do a rapid diagnostic test to see for fresh infection
Ans: D
87:-The optimal mode of therapy now for EHPVO
A:-mesentrico portal bypass B:-endoscopic variceal band ligation C:-endoscopic sclerotherapy D:-distal spleno-renal shunt Ans: A
88:-Pulmonary capillary blood from which lung unit has the lowest `"PO_2"`
A:-V = 2 l/mt Q = 0.2 l/mt B:-V = 2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt C:-V = 0.2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt D:-V = 0 Q = 2 l/mt
Ans: D
89:-Fractional IPV is
A:-1/4th of a full dose B:-1/5th of a full dose C:-1/2 of the full dose D:-1/3rd of the full dose
Ans: B
90:-Thrombocytopenia is an AEFI of which vaccine
A:-Measles B:-BCG C:-DPT D:-Hepatitis B
Ans: A
91:-Isoniazid preventive therapy should be given to child in all situations except
A:-For all HIV infected children who are tuberculin skin test positive
B:-All TST positive children who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy
C:-A child born to mother who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy
D:-Close contacts of index cases with proved DR-TB
Ans: D
92:-In Di-Georges syndrome which of these is not included in catch-22 mnemonic
A:-Cardiac abnormality B:-Hyperthyroidism C:-Hypocalcaemia D:-Abnormal facies
Ans: B
93:-Anakinra acts on which interleukin and blocks its activity
A:-IL 3 B:-IL 4 C:-IL 2 D:-IL 1
Ans: D
94:-Who recommended IV fluid for maintenance IV fluid all except?
A:-RL with 5% dextrose B:-NS with 5% dextrose
C:-1/2 NS with 5% dextrose D:-RL
Ans: D
95:-Drug of choice for carbapenemase producing carbapenem resistant organisms
A:-Meropenem B:-Colistin with Meropenem
C:-Vancomycin D:-Linezolid
Ans: B
96:-Sign that remain useful for assessing dehydration status in children with severe acute malnutrition is
A:-Loss of skin turgor B:-Eyes appear sunken
C:-Child irritable D:-Eagerness to drink
Ans: D
97:-The upstream markers in hemodynamic monitoring in critically ill child include all except
A:-Blood pressure B:-Heart rate
C:-Central venous pressure D:-Urine output
Ans: D
98:-Within ADHD which of the following is not classified as a problem relating to hyperactivity-impulsivity?
A:-Doesn't appear to listen when being told something or spoken to
B:-Experience difficulties in playing quietly
C:-Talks excessively
D:-Rather than sitting still, squirms in seat and fidgets
Ans: A
99. A 6 year old child presents with oliguria, haematuria, puffiness of face, convulsions, B.P. of 200/100 mm Hg and blood urea 80 mg%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
(b) Nephrotic syndrome
(c) Acute glomerulonephritis with hypertensive encephalopathy
(d) Obstructive uropathy
Ans: C
100. A 3 year old child is brought for sudden inability to walk following fever of two days duration. On clinical examination, sensorium is normal, both the lower limbs are hypotonic with the right limb more affected than the left. Plantar reflex is equivocal and deep tendon reflexes are not elicitable in the lower limbs on both sides. The most probable diagnosis is
(a) Acute poliomyelitis (b) Acute rheumatic fever
(c) Acute transverse myelitis (d) Acute infective polyneuritis
Ans: A
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