MEDICINE - PAGE 3
1. One of the most important communication skill is
(a). Inactive listening
(b). Empathetic listening
(c). Active listening
(d). Specific listening
Answer: Active listening
2. Pulse rate less than 60 bpm is called
(a). Tachypnoea
(b). Tachycardia
(c). Bradypnoea
(d). Bradycardia
Answer: Bradycardia
3. The most important procedure for the prevention of infection is
(a). Wearing gloves and gowns
(b). Proper disposal of used linen
(c). Effective hand washing
(d). Wearing protective eye wear
Answer: Effective hand washing
4. The most appropriate position for a patient with breathing difficulty is
(a). Knee chest position
(b). Sim's position
(c). Prone position
(d). Fowler's position
Answer: Fowler's position
5. The basic unit of society is
(a). Individual
(b). Family
(c). Self help group
(d). Neighbourhood
Answer: Family
6. The most reliable and cost effective method of identifying infectious case of TB is
(a). Mantoux test
(b). Sputum examination
(c). Chest X-ray
(d). Ultrasonography
Answer: Sputum examination
7. A physiological barrier of communication is
(a). Noise
(b). Hearing difficulty
(c). Illiteracy
(d). Language
Answer: Hearing difficulty
8. Immunity against Tuberculosis is provided by the vaccine
(a). DPT
(b). MMR
(c). OPV
(d). BCG
Answer: BCG
9. Which among the following is not a therapeutic effect of hot application?
(a). Controls bleeding
(b). Relieves pain
(c). Promotes healing
(d). Decreases muscle tone
Answer: Controls bleeding
10. Which among the following is a food borne disease?
(a). Hepatitis A
(b). Hepatitis B
(c). Rubella
(d). measles
Answer: Hepatitis A
11. Presence of blood in the sputum is called
(a). Hemoptysis
(b). Hemetemesis
(c). Haemothorax
(d). Haematuria
Answer: Hemoptysis
12. RNTCP was introduced in the year
(a). 1972
(b). 1962
(c). 1992
(d). 1982
Answer: 1992
13. The drug used for the treatment of TB is
(a). Pencillin
(b). Dapsone
(c). Isodryl
(d). Isoniazid
Answer: Isoniazid
14. What type of diet should a TB patient have?
(a). Carbohydrate rich food
(b). Fat rich food
(c). Protein rich food
(d). High fiber diet
Answer: Protein rich food
15. Vitamin that promotes the absorption of calcium is
(a). Vitamin A
(b). Vitamin C
(c). Vitamin D
(d). Vitamin E
Answer: Vitamin D
16. Which of the following is the best method for the disposing hospital wastes?
(a). Composting
(b). Controlled tipping
(c). Dumping
(d). Incineration
Answer: Incineration
17. The specific strategy for the treatment of MDR TB is
(a). DOTS
(b). DRS
(c). DOTS-plus
(d). VCTC
Answer: DOTS-plus
18. Which among the following should be avoided for a good communication?
(a). Use of same language by the sender and receiver
(b). Use of technical words and abbreviations that are not in use
(c). Paying attention to nonverbal messages
(d). Getting and giving feedback
Answer: Use of technical words and abbreviations that are not in use
19. Invasion of micro organisms to a susceptible host is
(a). Infarction
(b). Infection
(c). Contamination
(d). Inflammation
Answer: Infection
20. World TB day is observed on
(a). March 14
(b). November 24
(c). November 14
(d). March 24
Answer: March 24
21. In case of animal bite affected area should be washed with
(a). Spirit
(b). Saline
(c). Warm water
(d). Soap and water
Answer: Soap and water
22. World health day theme for 2015 is
(a). Road safety
(b). Food safety
(c). Vector borne diseases
(d). Focus on high blood pressure
Answer: Food safety
23. As per the RNTCP(Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme),nationwide coverage of DOTS was achieved in the year
(a). 1992
(b). 2000
(c). 2006
(d). 2010
Answer: 2006
24. Along with political and administrative commitment, all are components of DOTS except
(a). Good quality diagnosis
(b). Directly observed treatment
(c). Good quality drugs
(d). Random monitoring and reporting
Answer: Random monitoring and reporting
25. Stop TB strategy published by WHO in 2006 recommends
(a). Core programme as DOTS
(b). TB/HIV & MDR TB management as additional components
(c). Enabling and promoting research
(d). All of the above
Answer: All of the above
(a). Inactive listening
(b). Empathetic listening
(c). Active listening
(d). Specific listening
Answer: Active listening
2. Pulse rate less than 60 bpm is called
(a). Tachypnoea
(b). Tachycardia
(c). Bradypnoea
(d). Bradycardia
Answer: Bradycardia
3. The most important procedure for the prevention of infection is
(a). Wearing gloves and gowns
(b). Proper disposal of used linen
(c). Effective hand washing
(d). Wearing protective eye wear
Answer: Effective hand washing
4. The most appropriate position for a patient with breathing difficulty is
(a). Knee chest position
(b). Sim's position
(c). Prone position
(d). Fowler's position
Answer: Fowler's position
5. The basic unit of society is
(a). Individual
(b). Family
(c). Self help group
(d). Neighbourhood
Answer: Family
6. The most reliable and cost effective method of identifying infectious case of TB is
(a). Mantoux test
(b). Sputum examination
(c). Chest X-ray
(d). Ultrasonography
Answer: Sputum examination
7. A physiological barrier of communication is
(a). Noise
(b). Hearing difficulty
(c). Illiteracy
(d). Language
Answer: Hearing difficulty
8. Immunity against Tuberculosis is provided by the vaccine
(a). DPT
(b). MMR
(c). OPV
(d). BCG
Answer: BCG
9. Which among the following is not a therapeutic effect of hot application?
(a). Controls bleeding
(b). Relieves pain
(c). Promotes healing
(d). Decreases muscle tone
Answer: Controls bleeding
10. Which among the following is a food borne disease?
(a). Hepatitis A
(b). Hepatitis B
(c). Rubella
(d). measles
Answer: Hepatitis A
11. Presence of blood in the sputum is called
(a). Hemoptysis
(b). Hemetemesis
(c). Haemothorax
(d). Haematuria
Answer: Hemoptysis
12. RNTCP was introduced in the year
(a). 1972
(b). 1962
(c). 1992
(d). 1982
Answer: 1992
13. The drug used for the treatment of TB is
(a). Pencillin
(b). Dapsone
(c). Isodryl
(d). Isoniazid
Answer: Isoniazid
14. What type of diet should a TB patient have?
(a). Carbohydrate rich food
(b). Fat rich food
(c). Protein rich food
(d). High fiber diet
Answer: Protein rich food
15. Vitamin that promotes the absorption of calcium is
(a). Vitamin A
(b). Vitamin C
(c). Vitamin D
(d). Vitamin E
Answer: Vitamin D
16. Which of the following is the best method for the disposing hospital wastes?
(a). Composting
(b). Controlled tipping
(c). Dumping
(d). Incineration
Answer: Incineration
17. The specific strategy for the treatment of MDR TB is
(a). DOTS
(b). DRS
(c). DOTS-plus
(d). VCTC
Answer: DOTS-plus
18. Which among the following should be avoided for a good communication?
(a). Use of same language by the sender and receiver
(b). Use of technical words and abbreviations that are not in use
(c). Paying attention to nonverbal messages
(d). Getting and giving feedback
Answer: Use of technical words and abbreviations that are not in use
19. Invasion of micro organisms to a susceptible host is
(a). Infarction
(b). Infection
(c). Contamination
(d). Inflammation
Answer: Infection
20. World TB day is observed on
(a). March 14
(b). November 24
(c). November 14
(d). March 24
Answer: March 24
21. In case of animal bite affected area should be washed with
(a). Spirit
(b). Saline
(c). Warm water
(d). Soap and water
Answer: Soap and water
22. World health day theme for 2015 is
(a). Road safety
(b). Food safety
(c). Vector borne diseases
(d). Focus on high blood pressure
Answer: Food safety
23. As per the RNTCP(Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme),nationwide coverage of DOTS was achieved in the year
(a). 1992
(b). 2000
(c). 2006
(d). 2010
Answer: 2006
24. Along with political and administrative commitment, all are components of DOTS except
(a). Good quality diagnosis
(b). Directly observed treatment
(c). Good quality drugs
(d). Random monitoring and reporting
Answer: Random monitoring and reporting
25. Stop TB strategy published by WHO in 2006 recommends
(a). Core programme as DOTS
(b). TB/HIV & MDR TB management as additional components
(c). Enabling and promoting research
(d). All of the above
Answer: All of the above
26. Which of the following organs can only be donated by a live donor?
(A)Heart
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Eye
Ans: C
(A)Heart
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Eye
Ans: C
27:-Diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is best confirmed by
A:-Sputum examination
B:-Radiography
C:-Mantoux test
D:-History alone
Ans: A
28:-All of the following programmes are sponsored by the Ministry of Social Welfare except
A:-Balawadi nutrition programme
B:-ICDS
C:-Special nutrition programme
D:-Mid-day meal programme
Ans: D
29:-Community health guide measures malnutrition by
A:-Mid-arm circumference
B:-Height and Weight
C:-Skin fold thickness
D:-Any of the above
Ans: D
30:-A normal red blood cell has a life span of
A:-365 days
B:-1 day
C:-24 days
D:-120 days
Ans: D
31:-Which of the following is not an endocrine gland ?
A:-Pituitary
B:-Adrenalls
C:-Pancreas
D:-Spleen
Ans: D
32:-Bending of knee joint is
A:-Flexion
B:-Extension
C:-Abduction
D:-Pronation
Ans: A
33:-The patella or knee cap is a
A:-Long bones
B:-Flat bones
C:-Sesamoid bone
D:-Irregular bones
Ans: C
34:-Length of adult human spinal cord is around
A:-10 cm
B:-15 cm
C:-45 cm
D:-75 cm
Ans: C
35:-Blood volume of average adult human being is
A:-5 Liters
B:-1 Liter
C:-10 Liters
D:-20 Liters
Ans: A
A:-Sputum examination
B:-Radiography
C:-Mantoux test
D:-History alone
Ans: A
28:-All of the following programmes are sponsored by the Ministry of Social Welfare except
A:-Balawadi nutrition programme
B:-ICDS
C:-Special nutrition programme
D:-Mid-day meal programme
Ans: D
29:-Community health guide measures malnutrition by
A:-Mid-arm circumference
B:-Height and Weight
C:-Skin fold thickness
D:-Any of the above
Ans: D
30:-A normal red blood cell has a life span of
A:-365 days
B:-1 day
C:-24 days
D:-120 days
Ans: D
31:-Which of the following is not an endocrine gland ?
A:-Pituitary
B:-Adrenalls
C:-Pancreas
D:-Spleen
Ans: D
32:-Bending of knee joint is
A:-Flexion
B:-Extension
C:-Abduction
D:-Pronation
Ans: A
33:-The patella or knee cap is a
A:-Long bones
B:-Flat bones
C:-Sesamoid bone
D:-Irregular bones
Ans: C
34:-Length of adult human spinal cord is around
A:-10 cm
B:-15 cm
C:-45 cm
D:-75 cm
Ans: C
35:-Blood volume of average adult human being is
A:-5 Liters
B:-1 Liter
C:-10 Liters
D:-20 Liters
Ans: A
36:-The only movable bone in the skull is
A:-Frontal bone
B:-Nasal bone
C:-Mandible
D:-Temporal bone
Ans: C
37:-Most of the Limb Joints are
A:-Synovial joints
B:-Fibrous joints
C:-Cartilaginous joints
D:-None of the above
Ans: A
38:-The lordotic AP projection of chest is use full for evaluating
A:-The carina
B:-Pleural effusion
C:-An apical lesion
D:-All of the above
Ans: C
39:-The metacarpal bones are
A:-Four in numbers
B:-Five in numbers
C:-Fourteen in numbers
D:-Two in numbers
Ans: B
40:-Pleura is the membrane covering
A:-Lung
B:-Heart
C:-Brain
D:-None of the above
Ans: A
41:-Length or esophagus is
A:-10 cm
B:-15 cm
C:-25 cm
D:-40 cm
Ans: C
A:-Frontal bone
B:-Nasal bone
C:-Mandible
D:-Temporal bone
Ans: C
37:-Most of the Limb Joints are
A:-Synovial joints
B:-Fibrous joints
C:-Cartilaginous joints
D:-None of the above
Ans: A
38:-The lordotic AP projection of chest is use full for evaluating
A:-The carina
B:-Pleural effusion
C:-An apical lesion
D:-All of the above
Ans: C
39:-The metacarpal bones are
A:-Four in numbers
B:-Five in numbers
C:-Fourteen in numbers
D:-Two in numbers
Ans: B
40:-Pleura is the membrane covering
A:-Lung
B:-Heart
C:-Brain
D:-None of the above
Ans: A
41:-Length or esophagus is
A:-10 cm
B:-15 cm
C:-25 cm
D:-40 cm
Ans: C
42:-Earliest symptom of carcinoma vocal cord is
A:-Hoarseness
B:-Stridor
C:-Pain
D:-Dysphagia
Ans: A
43:-Prolonged use of vaso constrictor nasal drops result in
A:-Vasomotor rhinitis
B:-Allergic rhinitis
C:-Rhinitis sicca
D:-Rhinitis medicamentosa
Ans: D
44:-'Carhart's Notch' in pure tone audiometry is seen in
A:-Otitis media with effusion
B:-Otitic barotrauma
C:-Otosclerosis
D:-Ototoxicity
Ans: C
45:-Pulse Apex deficit is seen in
A:-Aortic stenosis
B:-Atrial fibrillation
C:-Cardiac failure
D:-Mitral stenosis
Ans: B
46:-Coma vigil is seen in
A:-Enteric fever
B:-Hyperosmolar state
C:-Myxoedema coma
D:-Stroke
Ans: A
47:-Drug used to treat H1N1 infection
A:-Imatinib
B:-Natalizumab
C:-Omalizumab
D:-Oseltamivir
Ans: D
48:-Bronchial breath sound heard in all except
A:-Bronchiectasis
B:-Just above the upper level of pleural effusion
C:-Over the trachea
D:-Pneumonia
Ans: A
49:-Thought broadcast is commonly seen in
A:-Bipolar mood disorder
B:-Schizophrenia
C:-Anxiety disorder
D:-Dementia
Ans: B
50:-K-Complex and Sleep Spindles are seen in
A:-NREM sleep Stage — I
B:-NREM sleep Stage — II
C:-NREM sleep Stage — III
D:-NREM sleep Stage — IV
Ans: B
51:-Lithium is one
A:-Antipsychotic
B:-Anxiolytic
C:-Sedative
D:-Mood stabilizer
Ans: D
52:-Nicotine withdrawal presents with all the symptoms except
A:-Depressed mood
B:-Restlessness
C:-Increased sleep
D:-Increased appetite
Ans: C
53:-In face presentation the engaging diameter is
A:-Occipito frontal
B:-Submento briegmatic
C:-Mento vertical
D:-Biparietal diameter
Ans: B
54:-Magnesium Sulphate toxicity in Eclampsia is treated with
A:-Vit. K injection
B:-Fibrinogen
C:-Protamine sulphate
D:-Calcium gluconate
Ans: D
55:-Spiegelberg criteria is for the diagnosis of
A:-Abdominal pregnancy
B:-Cornual pregnancy
C:-Ovarian pregnancy
D:-Caesarean scar pregnancy
Ans: C
56:-Rate of uterine rupture in previous low vertical incision in the uterus is
A:-0.2 — 1.5%
B:-4 — 9%
C:-1 — 7%
D:-4 — 6%
Ans: C
57:-BOCKHART IMPETIGO is a term use for
A:-Superficial folliculitis
B:-Bullous impetigo
C:-Impetigo contagiosum
D:-Pustular psoriasis in pregnancy
Ans: A
58:-Intertriginous freckling is pathognomonic of
A:-Tuberous sclerosis
B:-Xeroderma pigmentosum
C:-Neurofibromatosis Type 1
D:-Sturge Weber syndrome
Ans: C
59:-The 1982 Revised Criteria for classification of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus includes all except
A:-Malar rash
B:-Alopecia
C:-Photosensitivity
D:-Oral ulcers
Ans: B
60:-Four H's of scurvy are haemorrhagic signs, hypochondriasis, haematologic abnormalities and
A:-Hyperpigmentation
B:-Hyperkeratosis of hair follicles
C:-Hypogonadism
D:-Hypotension
Ans: B
61:-Pel-Ebstein type of fever is seen in
A:-Tuberculosis
B:-Typhoid
C:-Hodgkin's disease
D:-Leukaemia
Ans: C
62:-A 25 old male patient presented in the casualty with history of trauma and bleeding from the nose. On examination he has Le Fort-11 fracture. What is the first line management ?
A:-Oxygen
B:-Reduction of fracture
C:-Blood transfusion
D:-Airway maintenance
Ans: D
63:-A post thyroidectomy patient in the post operative ward complaints of difficulty in breathing. On examination he had stridor and markedly swollen, tense neck. Which one is the first step in the management of this patient ?
A:-Intubate with endotracheal tube
B:-Open the wound to evacuate the haematoma
C:-Perform tracheostomy
D:-Control the bleeding site in the operating room
Ans: B
64:-A 40 year old female patient presents in the casualty department with history of acute onset of severe epigastric pain radiating towards the back. The patient has no significant medical history and previous surgery. On examination, the patient has marked epigastric tenderness with guarding and diminished bowel sounds. The patients' amylase level is 2500 units. What is the most likely cause of this patients pain ?
A:-Peptic ulcer disease
B:-Gall stone
C:-Alcohol abuse
D:-Intestinal colic
Ans: B
65:-Dagger sign in X-ray is seen in
A:-Rheumatoid arthritis
B:-Flurosis
C:-Ankylosing spondylitis
D:-Metaphyseal dysplasia
Ans: C
66:-Pirani score in CTEV assessment do not include
A:-Empty heel
B:-Rigid einus
C:-Lateral head of talus
D:-Cavus angle of foot
Ans: D
67:-Essex-Lopresti lesion in upper limb is
A:-Comminuted fracture proximal ulna with DRUJ disruption
B:-Comminuted fracture radial head with DRUJ disruption
C:-Comminuted fracture distal radius with proximal RUJ disruption
D:-Comminuted fracture distal ulna with proximal RUJ disruption
Ans: B
68:-Spina ventosa
A:-Tuberculous dactilitis
B:-Tuberculous infection of ventricles of brain
C:-Fungal affection of spinal cord
D:-Crystal deposition disorder in spine
Ans: A
69:-The physical modality suitable for an acute injury is
A:-Infra red
B:-Wax bath
C:-Deep heat
D:-Ice application
Ans: D
70:-Jaipur foot has an advantage over conventional prosthetic feet because
A:-Separate Male and Female feet are available
B:-Same foot can be used lifelong (Durable)
C:-It can be used without a footwear (Bare foot walking possible)
D:-It matches any skin colour
Ans: C
71:-Minimum percentage of disability needed to claim the benefits of a physically handicapped is
A:-50%
B:-40%
C:-25%
D:-10%
Ans: B
72:-A disabled friendly toilet should have
A:-Wide entrance for wheelchair to pass
B:-Grab bars inside for support
C:-Ramp (not steps) at the entrance
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
73:-Half life of Radon-222
A:-3.825
B:-5.865
C:-4.369
D:-2.698
Ans: A
74:-The demarcation value between low and high linear energy transfer is at about
A:-1 Kev/μm
B:-10 Kev/μm
C:-100 Kev/μm
D:-1000 Kev/μm
Ans: B
75:-Tolerance dose (5/5) of whole left kidney
A:-1800
B:-2000
C:-2300
D:-2800
Ans: C
76:-Chromosomal translocation in acute myeloid leukemia (AML-M3)
A:-1-19
B:-8-21
C:-15-17
D:-14-18
Ans: C
77:-Minimum Alveolar concentration of sevoflurane is
A:-0.75
B:-1.2
C:-2
D:-6
Ans: C
78:-Pin index for Entanox cylinder is
A:-2, 5
B:-3, 5
C:-3, 6
D:-7
Ans: D
79:-Most common side effect of oral morphine used for cancer pain management is
A:-Itching
B:-Constipation
C:-Respiratory depression
D:-Addiction
Ans: B
80:-Increasing end tidal carbon dioxide concentration seen in capnography during anaesthesia can be due to except
A:-Hypoventilation
B:-Pulmonary embolism
C:-Exhausted sodalime
D:-Hyper pyrexia
Ans: B
81:-A 12 year old girl presented to the out-patient department with history of loss of appetite and sleeplessness. Recently she has become withdrawn and lost interest in studies and play activities. There is also history of freent crying without reason and getting irritable for minor reasons. Detailed examination showed feelings of hopelessness, worthlessness and suicidal ideas. Name the drug which is best suited to treat this condition
A:-Fluoxetine
B:-Haloperidol
C:-Risperidone
D:-Methylphenidate
Ans: A
82:-Which among the following tests for assessing intelligence in a 8 year old child is a purely performance test ?
A:-Malin's intelligence scale for Indian children
B:-Wechsler intelligence scale for children
C:-Seguin form board test
D:-Binet Kamat test of intelligence
Ans: C
83:-The appropriate ART regimen for a 2 year old child on anti TB therapy who weighs 8 Kg and has a Hb of 7 gm% is
A:-d4T + 3TC + NVP
B:-ABC + 3TC + ZDV
C:-ABC + 3TC + LPV/r
D:-ABC + 3TC + d4T
Ans: D
84:-A 2 year old child with moderate to severe pain due to bone metastasis from neuroblastoma should be treated with
A:-Codeine + Paracetamol + Bisacodyl
B:-Morphine + Paracetamol + Bisacodyl
C:-Ibuprofen + Paracetamol + Lansoprazole
D:-Tramadol + Paracetamol + Lansoprazole
Ans: B
85:-The following arteries are branches of internal carotid artery except
A:-Anterior cerebral
B:-Anterior choroidal
C:-Posterior choroidal
D:-Posterior communicating
Ans: C
86:-Name the area where optic nerve leaves the eyeball
A:-Hyaloid fossa
B:-Macula
C:-Blind spot
D:-Fovea
Ans: C
87:-Which bony part is not related to ureter ?
A:-Sacroiliac joint
B:-Tips of transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae
C:-Ischial spine
D:-Anterior superior iliac spine
Ans: D
88:-Fibres carried by greater splanchnic nerve
A:-Preganglionic sympathetic
B:-Postganglionic sympathetic
C:-Preganglionic parasympathetic
D:-Postganglionic parasympathetic
Ans: A
89:-Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of
A:-Tyrosinase
B:-Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
C:-Phenyl alanine oxidase
D:-Tyrosine transaminase
Ans: B
90:-Active form of Vitamin D
A:-Vitamin `D_(3)`
B:-Calcitriol
C:-7 - Dehydrocholesterol
D:-Vitamin `D_(2)`
Ans: B
91:-Molecular scissors used in Recombinant DNA Technology
A:-RNA polymerase
B:-Taq polymerase
C:-Restriction endonuclease
D:-Ligase
Ans: C
92:-Metabolic acidosis is seen in
A:-Diabetic ketoacidosis
B:-Severe vomiting
C:-Hysteric hyperventilation
D:-Severe respiratory infection
Ans: A
93:-The hormone which is critical in the control of renal water output and plasma osmolality is
A:-Cortisol
B:-Thyroxine
C:-Oxytocin
D:-Vasopressin
Ans: D
94:-Which sensation does not reach the thalamic nuclei before it is relayed to cerebral cortex ?
A:-Smell
B:-Taste
C:-Hearing
D:-Vision
Ans: A
95:-Gradenigo's syndrome is a feature of
A:-Lateral sinus thrombosis
B:-Petrositis
C:-Acute mastoiditis
D:-Labyrinthitis
Ans: B
96:-High pressure nervous syndrome occurs in deep dives with diver breathing
A:-100% `O_(2)`
B:-Compressed air
C:-`O_(2)`-helium mixture
D:-Gas mixture with 80% `N_(2)`
Ans: C
97:-Christmas tree stains are used in the detection of
A:-Vaginal epithelial cells
B:-Chorionic villi
C:-Red blood cells
D:-Spermatozoa
Ans: D
98:-Karl Pearson's formula is used to estimate
A:-Stature
B:-Race
C:-Age
D:-Sex
Ans: A
99:-Which is the toxic principle of "DATURA" ?
A:-Abrine
B:-Brucine
C:-Hyoscine
D:-Papaverine
Ans: C
100:-Declaration of HELSINKI deals with
A:-Human organ transplantation
B:-Rights of medical practitioners
C:-Codes of medical ethics
D:-Human experimentation
Ans: D
A:-Hoarseness
B:-Stridor
C:-Pain
D:-Dysphagia
Ans: A
43:-Prolonged use of vaso constrictor nasal drops result in
A:-Vasomotor rhinitis
B:-Allergic rhinitis
C:-Rhinitis sicca
D:-Rhinitis medicamentosa
Ans: D
44:-'Carhart's Notch' in pure tone audiometry is seen in
A:-Otitis media with effusion
B:-Otitic barotrauma
C:-Otosclerosis
D:-Ototoxicity
Ans: C
45:-Pulse Apex deficit is seen in
A:-Aortic stenosis
B:-Atrial fibrillation
C:-Cardiac failure
D:-Mitral stenosis
Ans: B
46:-Coma vigil is seen in
A:-Enteric fever
B:-Hyperosmolar state
C:-Myxoedema coma
D:-Stroke
Ans: A
47:-Drug used to treat H1N1 infection
A:-Imatinib
B:-Natalizumab
C:-Omalizumab
D:-Oseltamivir
Ans: D
48:-Bronchial breath sound heard in all except
A:-Bronchiectasis
B:-Just above the upper level of pleural effusion
C:-Over the trachea
D:-Pneumonia
Ans: A
49:-Thought broadcast is commonly seen in
A:-Bipolar mood disorder
B:-Schizophrenia
C:-Anxiety disorder
D:-Dementia
Ans: B
50:-K-Complex and Sleep Spindles are seen in
A:-NREM sleep Stage — I
B:-NREM sleep Stage — II
C:-NREM sleep Stage — III
D:-NREM sleep Stage — IV
Ans: B
51:-Lithium is one
A:-Antipsychotic
B:-Anxiolytic
C:-Sedative
D:-Mood stabilizer
Ans: D
52:-Nicotine withdrawal presents with all the symptoms except
A:-Depressed mood
B:-Restlessness
C:-Increased sleep
D:-Increased appetite
Ans: C
53:-In face presentation the engaging diameter is
A:-Occipito frontal
B:-Submento briegmatic
C:-Mento vertical
D:-Biparietal diameter
Ans: B
54:-Magnesium Sulphate toxicity in Eclampsia is treated with
A:-Vit. K injection
B:-Fibrinogen
C:-Protamine sulphate
D:-Calcium gluconate
Ans: D
55:-Spiegelberg criteria is for the diagnosis of
A:-Abdominal pregnancy
B:-Cornual pregnancy
C:-Ovarian pregnancy
D:-Caesarean scar pregnancy
Ans: C
56:-Rate of uterine rupture in previous low vertical incision in the uterus is
A:-0.2 — 1.5%
B:-4 — 9%
C:-1 — 7%
D:-4 — 6%
Ans: C
57:-BOCKHART IMPETIGO is a term use for
A:-Superficial folliculitis
B:-Bullous impetigo
C:-Impetigo contagiosum
D:-Pustular psoriasis in pregnancy
Ans: A
58:-Intertriginous freckling is pathognomonic of
A:-Tuberous sclerosis
B:-Xeroderma pigmentosum
C:-Neurofibromatosis Type 1
D:-Sturge Weber syndrome
Ans: C
59:-The 1982 Revised Criteria for classification of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus includes all except
A:-Malar rash
B:-Alopecia
C:-Photosensitivity
D:-Oral ulcers
Ans: B
60:-Four H's of scurvy are haemorrhagic signs, hypochondriasis, haematologic abnormalities and
A:-Hyperpigmentation
B:-Hyperkeratosis of hair follicles
C:-Hypogonadism
D:-Hypotension
Ans: B
61:-Pel-Ebstein type of fever is seen in
A:-Tuberculosis
B:-Typhoid
C:-Hodgkin's disease
D:-Leukaemia
Ans: C
62:-A 25 old male patient presented in the casualty with history of trauma and bleeding from the nose. On examination he has Le Fort-11 fracture. What is the first line management ?
A:-Oxygen
B:-Reduction of fracture
C:-Blood transfusion
D:-Airway maintenance
Ans: D
63:-A post thyroidectomy patient in the post operative ward complaints of difficulty in breathing. On examination he had stridor and markedly swollen, tense neck. Which one is the first step in the management of this patient ?
A:-Intubate with endotracheal tube
B:-Open the wound to evacuate the haematoma
C:-Perform tracheostomy
D:-Control the bleeding site in the operating room
Ans: B
64:-A 40 year old female patient presents in the casualty department with history of acute onset of severe epigastric pain radiating towards the back. The patient has no significant medical history and previous surgery. On examination, the patient has marked epigastric tenderness with guarding and diminished bowel sounds. The patients' amylase level is 2500 units. What is the most likely cause of this patients pain ?
A:-Peptic ulcer disease
B:-Gall stone
C:-Alcohol abuse
D:-Intestinal colic
Ans: B
65:-Dagger sign in X-ray is seen in
A:-Rheumatoid arthritis
B:-Flurosis
C:-Ankylosing spondylitis
D:-Metaphyseal dysplasia
Ans: C
66:-Pirani score in CTEV assessment do not include
A:-Empty heel
B:-Rigid einus
C:-Lateral head of talus
D:-Cavus angle of foot
Ans: D
67:-Essex-Lopresti lesion in upper limb is
A:-Comminuted fracture proximal ulna with DRUJ disruption
B:-Comminuted fracture radial head with DRUJ disruption
C:-Comminuted fracture distal radius with proximal RUJ disruption
D:-Comminuted fracture distal ulna with proximal RUJ disruption
Ans: B
68:-Spina ventosa
A:-Tuberculous dactilitis
B:-Tuberculous infection of ventricles of brain
C:-Fungal affection of spinal cord
D:-Crystal deposition disorder in spine
Ans: A
69:-The physical modality suitable for an acute injury is
A:-Infra red
B:-Wax bath
C:-Deep heat
D:-Ice application
Ans: D
70:-Jaipur foot has an advantage over conventional prosthetic feet because
A:-Separate Male and Female feet are available
B:-Same foot can be used lifelong (Durable)
C:-It can be used without a footwear (Bare foot walking possible)
D:-It matches any skin colour
Ans: C
71:-Minimum percentage of disability needed to claim the benefits of a physically handicapped is
A:-50%
B:-40%
C:-25%
D:-10%
Ans: B
72:-A disabled friendly toilet should have
A:-Wide entrance for wheelchair to pass
B:-Grab bars inside for support
C:-Ramp (not steps) at the entrance
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
73:-Half life of Radon-222
A:-3.825
B:-5.865
C:-4.369
D:-2.698
Ans: A
74:-The demarcation value between low and high linear energy transfer is at about
A:-1 Kev/μm
B:-10 Kev/μm
C:-100 Kev/μm
D:-1000 Kev/μm
Ans: B
75:-Tolerance dose (5/5) of whole left kidney
A:-1800
B:-2000
C:-2300
D:-2800
Ans: C
76:-Chromosomal translocation in acute myeloid leukemia (AML-M3)
A:-1-19
B:-8-21
C:-15-17
D:-14-18
Ans: C
77:-Minimum Alveolar concentration of sevoflurane is
A:-0.75
B:-1.2
C:-2
D:-6
Ans: C
78:-Pin index for Entanox cylinder is
A:-2, 5
B:-3, 5
C:-3, 6
D:-7
Ans: D
79:-Most common side effect of oral morphine used for cancer pain management is
A:-Itching
B:-Constipation
C:-Respiratory depression
D:-Addiction
Ans: B
80:-Increasing end tidal carbon dioxide concentration seen in capnography during anaesthesia can be due to except
A:-Hypoventilation
B:-Pulmonary embolism
C:-Exhausted sodalime
D:-Hyper pyrexia
Ans: B
81:-A 12 year old girl presented to the out-patient department with history of loss of appetite and sleeplessness. Recently she has become withdrawn and lost interest in studies and play activities. There is also history of freent crying without reason and getting irritable for minor reasons. Detailed examination showed feelings of hopelessness, worthlessness and suicidal ideas. Name the drug which is best suited to treat this condition
A:-Fluoxetine
B:-Haloperidol
C:-Risperidone
D:-Methylphenidate
Ans: A
82:-Which among the following tests for assessing intelligence in a 8 year old child is a purely performance test ?
A:-Malin's intelligence scale for Indian children
B:-Wechsler intelligence scale for children
C:-Seguin form board test
D:-Binet Kamat test of intelligence
Ans: C
83:-The appropriate ART regimen for a 2 year old child on anti TB therapy who weighs 8 Kg and has a Hb of 7 gm% is
A:-d4T + 3TC + NVP
B:-ABC + 3TC + ZDV
C:-ABC + 3TC + LPV/r
D:-ABC + 3TC + d4T
Ans: D
84:-A 2 year old child with moderate to severe pain due to bone metastasis from neuroblastoma should be treated with
A:-Codeine + Paracetamol + Bisacodyl
B:-Morphine + Paracetamol + Bisacodyl
C:-Ibuprofen + Paracetamol + Lansoprazole
D:-Tramadol + Paracetamol + Lansoprazole
Ans: B
85:-The following arteries are branches of internal carotid artery except
A:-Anterior cerebral
B:-Anterior choroidal
C:-Posterior choroidal
D:-Posterior communicating
Ans: C
86:-Name the area where optic nerve leaves the eyeball
A:-Hyaloid fossa
B:-Macula
C:-Blind spot
D:-Fovea
Ans: C
87:-Which bony part is not related to ureter ?
A:-Sacroiliac joint
B:-Tips of transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae
C:-Ischial spine
D:-Anterior superior iliac spine
Ans: D
88:-Fibres carried by greater splanchnic nerve
A:-Preganglionic sympathetic
B:-Postganglionic sympathetic
C:-Preganglionic parasympathetic
D:-Postganglionic parasympathetic
Ans: A
89:-Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of
A:-Tyrosinase
B:-Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
C:-Phenyl alanine oxidase
D:-Tyrosine transaminase
Ans: B
90:-Active form of Vitamin D
A:-Vitamin `D_(3)`
B:-Calcitriol
C:-7 - Dehydrocholesterol
D:-Vitamin `D_(2)`
Ans: B
91:-Molecular scissors used in Recombinant DNA Technology
A:-RNA polymerase
B:-Taq polymerase
C:-Restriction endonuclease
D:-Ligase
Ans: C
92:-Metabolic acidosis is seen in
A:-Diabetic ketoacidosis
B:-Severe vomiting
C:-Hysteric hyperventilation
D:-Severe respiratory infection
Ans: A
93:-The hormone which is critical in the control of renal water output and plasma osmolality is
A:-Cortisol
B:-Thyroxine
C:-Oxytocin
D:-Vasopressin
Ans: D
94:-Which sensation does not reach the thalamic nuclei before it is relayed to cerebral cortex ?
A:-Smell
B:-Taste
C:-Hearing
D:-Vision
Ans: A
95:-Gradenigo's syndrome is a feature of
A:-Lateral sinus thrombosis
B:-Petrositis
C:-Acute mastoiditis
D:-Labyrinthitis
Ans: B
96:-High pressure nervous syndrome occurs in deep dives with diver breathing
A:-100% `O_(2)`
B:-Compressed air
C:-`O_(2)`-helium mixture
D:-Gas mixture with 80% `N_(2)`
Ans: C
97:-Christmas tree stains are used in the detection of
A:-Vaginal epithelial cells
B:-Chorionic villi
C:-Red blood cells
D:-Spermatozoa
Ans: D
98:-Karl Pearson's formula is used to estimate
A:-Stature
B:-Race
C:-Age
D:-Sex
Ans: A
99:-Which is the toxic principle of "DATURA" ?
A:-Abrine
B:-Brucine
C:-Hyoscine
D:-Papaverine
Ans: C
100:-Declaration of HELSINKI deals with
A:-Human organ transplantation
B:-Rights of medical practitioners
C:-Codes of medical ethics
D:-Human experimentation
Ans: D
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