INFECTIOUS DISEASES
INFECTIOUS DISEASES MCQs
1. Serum Galactomannan may help in the diagnosis of
(A) Mucormycosis. (B) Invasive aspergillosis. (C) Cryptococcosis. (D) Candidemia
Ans: B
2. Bullous myringitis in a patient with pneumonia is suggestive of infection due to
(A) Coxiella Burnetti (B) Legionella Pneumophila (C) Haemophilus influenzae (D) Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Ans: D
3. All the following drugs can be used to treat MRSA bacteremia EXCEPT
(A) Linezolid (B) Teicoplanin (C) Daptomycin (D) Vancomycin
Ans: A
4. All the following are caused by Flavi viruses EXCEPT
(A) Hepatitis C (B) West Nile (C) Ebola (D) Yellow fever
Ans: C
5. All the following statements are TRUE about oseltamivir EXCEPT
(A) Excreted primarily by the kidneys.
(B) Neuropsychiatric side effects are more common in children.
(C) Not effective against Influenza B. (D) Resistance develop by changes in viral Neuraminidase enzyme.
Ans: C
6. Antimicrobial spectrum of Tigecycline includes all the following EXCEPT
(A) Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) Acinetobacter baumanni (C) MRSA (D) Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Ans: D
7. Nitrofurantoin is indicated in the treatment of E.coli.
(A) Cystitis (B) Pyelonephritis (C) Bacteremia (D) Osteomyelitis
Ans: A
8. CENTOR scoring system [criteria] is used to diagnose
(A) IMN (B) Diphtheria (C) Streptococcal Pharyngitis (D) Pertussis
Ans: C
9. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in all the following situations EXCEPT
(A) Catheterised patients. (B) Post renal transplant. (C) Prior to urological intervention. (D) Pregnancy
Ans: A
10. Duncan's disease is associated with
(A) EBV (B) HHV-6 (C) HHV-8 (D) CMV
Ans: A
11. Parvovirus infection is associated with all the following EXCEPT
(A) Milker's nodules (B) Hydrops fetalis (C) Chronic Anaemia (D) Polyarthropathy syndrome
Ans: A
12. All the following statements are true about Human Papilloma Virus [HPV] infection EXCEPT
(A) Quadrivalent HPV Vaccine is licensed for administration in girls and young women between 9 to 26 years of age.
(B) HPV types 6 and 11 cause 90% of anogenital warts.
(C) Cervical cancer screening is not required in quadrivalent HPV vaccinated ladies. (
D) Epidermodysplasia verruciformis is associated with HPV infection.
Ans: C
13. All the following statements are true about HIVAN[HIV associated nephropathy] EXCEPT
(A) Proteinuria is the hallmark of HIVAN.
(B) USG reveals bilaterally symmetrical contracted kidneys.
(C) FSGS is present in 80%.
(D) Edema and hypertension are rare.
Ans: B
14. Vacuolar myelopathy in HIV is similar to
(A) Conus cauda syndrome. (B) Subacute combined degeneration of the cord (C) Ataxic hemiparesis. (D) Freidrich's ataxia
Ans: B
15. All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) Herpangina is caused by coxsackievirus A.
(B) Hand -foot-and-mouth disease is caused by coxsackievirus A-16 or enterovirus 71.
(C) Erythematous halo differentiate koplik's spots from Fordyce's spots.
(D) Hecht's pneumonia is usually seen in immunocompetent healthy adults.
Ans: D
16. All the following statements are TRUE about mumps EXCEPT
(A) Mumps meningitis can occur in the absence of parotitis.
(B) Sterility after mumps orchitis is rare.
(C) Hypoglycorrhachia is seen in mumps meningitis.
(D) Glucocorticoids and tunica albuginea incision are recommended in severe mumps orchitis.
Ans: D
17. Babes nodules are seen in
(A) Cerebral malaria (B) Neurobrucellosis (C) Rabies (D) Lyme's disease
Ans: C
18. Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by
(A) Balmuthia mandrillaris (B) Acanthamoeba cultbersoni (C) Naegleria fowled (D) Angiostrongylus cantonensis
Ans: C
19. Human monoclonal antibody Bezlotoxumab is used in the treatment of
(A) Babesiosis (B) HIV (C) Clostridium difficile colitis (D) Ebola
Ans: C
20. Using the right drug at the right dose at the right time for the right duration for the right patient, inorder to minimize collateral damage due to alteration of gut microbiota is referred to as
A) Antibiotic heterogeneity (B) Antibiotic optimization (C) Antibiotic apocalypse (D) Antibiotic stewardship __________
Ans: D
(A) Mucormycosis. (B) Invasive aspergillosis. (C) Cryptococcosis. (D) Candidemia
Ans: B
2. Bullous myringitis in a patient with pneumonia is suggestive of infection due to
(A) Coxiella Burnetti (B) Legionella Pneumophila (C) Haemophilus influenzae (D) Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Ans: D
3. All the following drugs can be used to treat MRSA bacteremia EXCEPT
(A) Linezolid (B) Teicoplanin (C) Daptomycin (D) Vancomycin
Ans: A
4. All the following are caused by Flavi viruses EXCEPT
(A) Hepatitis C (B) West Nile (C) Ebola (D) Yellow fever
Ans: C
5. All the following statements are TRUE about oseltamivir EXCEPT
(A) Excreted primarily by the kidneys.
(B) Neuropsychiatric side effects are more common in children.
(C) Not effective against Influenza B. (D) Resistance develop by changes in viral Neuraminidase enzyme.
Ans: C
6. Antimicrobial spectrum of Tigecycline includes all the following EXCEPT
(A) Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) Acinetobacter baumanni (C) MRSA (D) Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Ans: D
7. Nitrofurantoin is indicated in the treatment of E.coli.
(A) Cystitis (B) Pyelonephritis (C) Bacteremia (D) Osteomyelitis
Ans: A
8. CENTOR scoring system [criteria] is used to diagnose
(A) IMN (B) Diphtheria (C) Streptococcal Pharyngitis (D) Pertussis
Ans: C
9. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in all the following situations EXCEPT
(A) Catheterised patients. (B) Post renal transplant. (C) Prior to urological intervention. (D) Pregnancy
Ans: A
10. Duncan's disease is associated with
(A) EBV (B) HHV-6 (C) HHV-8 (D) CMV
Ans: A
11. Parvovirus infection is associated with all the following EXCEPT
(A) Milker's nodules (B) Hydrops fetalis (C) Chronic Anaemia (D) Polyarthropathy syndrome
Ans: A
12. All the following statements are true about Human Papilloma Virus [HPV] infection EXCEPT
(A) Quadrivalent HPV Vaccine is licensed for administration in girls and young women between 9 to 26 years of age.
(B) HPV types 6 and 11 cause 90% of anogenital warts.
(C) Cervical cancer screening is not required in quadrivalent HPV vaccinated ladies. (
D) Epidermodysplasia verruciformis is associated with HPV infection.
Ans: C
13. All the following statements are true about HIVAN[HIV associated nephropathy] EXCEPT
(A) Proteinuria is the hallmark of HIVAN.
(B) USG reveals bilaterally symmetrical contracted kidneys.
(C) FSGS is present in 80%.
(D) Edema and hypertension are rare.
Ans: B
14. Vacuolar myelopathy in HIV is similar to
(A) Conus cauda syndrome. (B) Subacute combined degeneration of the cord (C) Ataxic hemiparesis. (D) Freidrich's ataxia
Ans: B
15. All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
(A) Herpangina is caused by coxsackievirus A.
(B) Hand -foot-and-mouth disease is caused by coxsackievirus A-16 or enterovirus 71.
(C) Erythematous halo differentiate koplik's spots from Fordyce's spots.
(D) Hecht's pneumonia is usually seen in immunocompetent healthy adults.
Ans: D
16. All the following statements are TRUE about mumps EXCEPT
(A) Mumps meningitis can occur in the absence of parotitis.
(B) Sterility after mumps orchitis is rare.
(C) Hypoglycorrhachia is seen in mumps meningitis.
(D) Glucocorticoids and tunica albuginea incision are recommended in severe mumps orchitis.
Ans: D
17. Babes nodules are seen in
(A) Cerebral malaria (B) Neurobrucellosis (C) Rabies (D) Lyme's disease
Ans: C
18. Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by
(A) Balmuthia mandrillaris (B) Acanthamoeba cultbersoni (C) Naegleria fowled (D) Angiostrongylus cantonensis
Ans: C
19. Human monoclonal antibody Bezlotoxumab is used in the treatment of
(A) Babesiosis (B) HIV (C) Clostridium difficile colitis (D) Ebola
Ans: C
20. Using the right drug at the right dose at the right time for the right duration for the right patient, inorder to minimize collateral damage due to alteration of gut microbiota is referred to as
A) Antibiotic heterogeneity (B) Antibiotic optimization (C) Antibiotic apocalypse (D) Antibiotic stewardship __________
Ans: D
1. Paradoxical carrier is defined as
(A) A carrier who has never suffered from the disease caused by the pathogen.
(B) A carrier status for more than 6 months duration.
(C) A carrier who acquires the pathogen from another carrier.
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
22. Causative organism for valley fever is
(A) Blastomyces dermatitidis (B) Histoplasma capsulatum (C) Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis (D) Coccidiodes Immitis
Ans: D
23. Drug of choice for invasive Aspergillosis
(A) Voriconazole (B) Amphotericin deoxycholate (C) Micafungin (D) Liposomal Amphotericin
Ans: A
24. As per Biomedical waste segregation [BMW] 2016 rules, contaminated recyclable waste should be disposed in
(A) Blue cardboard with blue label (B) Yellow bags (C) White punctures proof containers (D) Red bags
Ans: A
25. Most common organism responsible for sepsis following dog bite is
(A) Streptobacillus moniliformis (B) Pasteurella Multocida (C) Capnocytophaga canimorsus (D) Bartonella bacilliformis
Ans: C
26. Tropical fever syndrome usually associated with sensory neural deafness is
(A) Scrub typhus (B) Chikungunya (C) Dengue Haemorrhagic fever (D) Leptospirosis
Ans: A
27. Urinary antigen test may be useful in the diagnosis of all the following except.
(A) Histoplasmosis (B) Pontiac fever (C) Pneumococcal pneumonia (D) Brucellosis
Ans: D
28. Drug of choice for Methicillin Susceptible Staphylococcus Aureus [MSSA] bacteremia is
(A) Cloxacillin (B) Vancomycin (C) Daptomycin (D) Linezoli d
Ans: A
29. Mutation detected by CB-NAAT[GenXpert] is
(A) katG (B) rpoB (C) inhA (D) All of the above
Ans: B
30. Name the organism susceptible to intravenous Polymyxin E.
(A) Staphylococcus Aureus. (B) Bacteriodes fragilis. (C) Pseudomonas Aeuroginosa. (D) Serratia Marcescens.
Ans: C
31. Avian Influenza outbreak in Kuttanad in 2016 was due to
(A) H1N1 (B) H3N2 (C) H5N1 (D) H7N2
Ans: C
32. MERS is caused by
(A) Metapneumo virus (B) Orthomyxo virus (C) Paramyxo virus (D) Corona virus
Ans: D
33. Antibiotics exhibiting concentration dependend bactericidal activity include all the following except
(A) Cefuroxime (B) Ciprofloxacin (C) Amikacin (D) Metronidazole
Ans: A
34. Delhi declaration for AMR[Antimicrobial Resistance] containment was in the year
(A) 2011 (B) 2017 (C) 2015 (D) 2013
Ans: B
35. High level INH resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to the presence of mutations in which gene ?
(A) catG (B) inhA (C) rpoB (D) rrs
Ans: A
36. Corynebacterium species implicated in prosthetic valve endocarditis.
(A) Corynebacterium ulcerans (B) Corynebacterium jeikeium (C) Corynebacterium hofmanni (D) Corynebacterium xerosis
Ans: B
37. All of the following are features of postpartum clostridium sordelli toxic shock syndrome except
(A) Haemoconcentration (B) Lack of purulent discharge (C) High grade fever (D) Peripheral edema and effusion
Ans: C
38. Route of administration of Zanamivir for H1N1 influenza is
(A) Intravenous (B) Oral (C) Inhalation (D) Intramuscular
Ans: C
39. Viral haemorrhagic fever with case fatality rate of 40 to 50% is
(A) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (B) Kyasanur forest disease (C) Dengue Hemorrhagic fever (D) Yellow fever
Ans: A
40. Common etiologic agents of infection in splenectomized patients are all except
(A) Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Salmonella (D) Haemophilus influenza
Ans: A
(A) A carrier who has never suffered from the disease caused by the pathogen.
(B) A carrier status for more than 6 months duration.
(C) A carrier who acquires the pathogen from another carrier.
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
22. Causative organism for valley fever is
(A) Blastomyces dermatitidis (B) Histoplasma capsulatum (C) Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis (D) Coccidiodes Immitis
Ans: D
23. Drug of choice for invasive Aspergillosis
(A) Voriconazole (B) Amphotericin deoxycholate (C) Micafungin (D) Liposomal Amphotericin
Ans: A
24. As per Biomedical waste segregation [BMW] 2016 rules, contaminated recyclable waste should be disposed in
(A) Blue cardboard with blue label (B) Yellow bags (C) White punctures proof containers (D) Red bags
Ans: A
25. Most common organism responsible for sepsis following dog bite is
(A) Streptobacillus moniliformis (B) Pasteurella Multocida (C) Capnocytophaga canimorsus (D) Bartonella bacilliformis
Ans: C
26. Tropical fever syndrome usually associated with sensory neural deafness is
(A) Scrub typhus (B) Chikungunya (C) Dengue Haemorrhagic fever (D) Leptospirosis
Ans: A
27. Urinary antigen test may be useful in the diagnosis of all the following except.
(A) Histoplasmosis (B) Pontiac fever (C) Pneumococcal pneumonia (D) Brucellosis
Ans: D
28. Drug of choice for Methicillin Susceptible Staphylococcus Aureus [MSSA] bacteremia is
(A) Cloxacillin (B) Vancomycin (C) Daptomycin (D) Linezoli d
Ans: A
29. Mutation detected by CB-NAAT[GenXpert] is
(A) katG (B) rpoB (C) inhA (D) All of the above
Ans: B
30. Name the organism susceptible to intravenous Polymyxin E.
(A) Staphylococcus Aureus. (B) Bacteriodes fragilis. (C) Pseudomonas Aeuroginosa. (D) Serratia Marcescens.
Ans: C
31. Avian Influenza outbreak in Kuttanad in 2016 was due to
(A) H1N1 (B) H3N2 (C) H5N1 (D) H7N2
Ans: C
32. MERS is caused by
(A) Metapneumo virus (B) Orthomyxo virus (C) Paramyxo virus (D) Corona virus
Ans: D
33. Antibiotics exhibiting concentration dependend bactericidal activity include all the following except
(A) Cefuroxime (B) Ciprofloxacin (C) Amikacin (D) Metronidazole
Ans: A
34. Delhi declaration for AMR[Antimicrobial Resistance] containment was in the year
(A) 2011 (B) 2017 (C) 2015 (D) 2013
Ans: B
35. High level INH resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to the presence of mutations in which gene ?
(A) catG (B) inhA (C) rpoB (D) rrs
Ans: A
36. Corynebacterium species implicated in prosthetic valve endocarditis.
(A) Corynebacterium ulcerans (B) Corynebacterium jeikeium (C) Corynebacterium hofmanni (D) Corynebacterium xerosis
Ans: B
37. All of the following are features of postpartum clostridium sordelli toxic shock syndrome except
(A) Haemoconcentration (B) Lack of purulent discharge (C) High grade fever (D) Peripheral edema and effusion
Ans: C
38. Route of administration of Zanamivir for H1N1 influenza is
(A) Intravenous (B) Oral (C) Inhalation (D) Intramuscular
Ans: C
39. Viral haemorrhagic fever with case fatality rate of 40 to 50% is
(A) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (B) Kyasanur forest disease (C) Dengue Hemorrhagic fever (D) Yellow fever
Ans: A
40. Common etiologic agents of infection in splenectomized patients are all except
(A) Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Salmonella (D) Haemophilus influenza
Ans: A
41. All the following statements about meningococcemia are true except
(A) Most often affects young children.
(B) Rapidly progressive form is usually associated with meningitis.
(C) Almost three-quarters of patients will have a rash.
(D) Household members of index case are at 400-800 times greater risk of contacting disease than the general population.
Ans: B
42. Septic shock and bullous hemorrhagic skin lesions after ingestion of contaminated shell fish is associated with (A) Aeromonas hydrophila (B) Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (C) Capnocytophaga canimorsus (D) Vibrio vulnificus
Ans: D
43. All the following are features of cerebral malaria except
(A) Photophobia is rare. (B) Symmetric encephalopathy is typical. (C) Nuchal rigidity is common. (D) Unrecognized infection results in 20 to 30% mortality rate.
Ans: C
44. All the following statements about infective endocarditis are true except
(A) Injection drug users usually develop tricuspid valve endocarditis.
(B) Microabscess in brain and meninges occur commonly in streptoccal endocarditis.
(C) Endocarditis caused by nutritional variant streptococci is treated with regimen for moderately penicillin resistant streptococci.
(D) Sensitivity of Transthoracic echocardiography to detect vegetations is 65%.
Ans: B
45. Bacterial food poisoning with shortest incubation period is due to
(A) Vibrio cholera. (B) Salmonella typhimurium. (C) Staphylococcus aureus. (D) Clostridium Perfringens.
Ans: C
46. Antibiotic that pose significantly less risk for development of clostridium difficile colitis is
(A) Ciprofloxacin (B) Cefuroxime (C) Clindamycin (D) Penicillin
Ans: D
47. Painless, non-tender, indurated ulcers with firm, non-tender inguinal adenopathy is suggestive of
(A) Chancroid (B) Lymphogranuloma venereum (C) Primary syphilis (D) Ureaplasma urealyticum
Ans: C
48. Which of the following drugs does not require dose adjustment in renal insufficiency ?
(A) Tenofovir alafenamide (B) Zidovudine (C) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (D) Abacavir
Ans: D
49. Early onset health-care associated pneumonia is usually due to
(A) Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) MRSA (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) Acinetobacter baumanni
Ans: C
50. All the following are components of ventilator associated pneumonia bundle except
(A) Elevation of head end of bed to 60°. (B) Daily sedation interruption. (C) Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis. (D) Deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis.
Ans: A
51. Infections occurring in recipient within one month of hematopoietic stem cell transplant include all the following except.
(A) Candida (B) CMV (C) HSV (D) HHV-6
Ans: B
52. All the following organisms are susceptible to cotrimoxazole except.
(A) Nocardia (B) Cryptosporidium parvum (C) Isospora belli (D) Stenotrophomonas maltophila
Ans: B
53. All the following drugs can be used in the treatment of CMV pneumonia except.
(A) Valacyclovir (B) Foscarnet (C) Cidofovir (D) Ganciclovir
Ans: A
54. Name the antibiotic that acts by disrupting membrane permeability by electrostatic charge alteration.
(A) Tigecycline (B) Fosfomycin (C) Nitrofurantoin (D) Polymyxin B
Ans: D
55. Serotonin syndrome when coadministered with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors is observed with.
(A) Clarithromycin (B) Aztreonam (C) Linezolid (D) Cefepime
Ans: C
56. Concurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia,endocarditis and meningitis is referred to as
(A) Austrian's triad (B) Beck's triad (C) Dieulafoy's triad (D) Anderson triad
Ans: A
57. All the following are TRUE about diphtheria EXCEPT.
(A) Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to underlying tissues.
(B) High grade fever.
(C) Diphtheria antitoxin cannot neutralize cell bound toxin.
(D) Diphtheria neuropathy is a non-inflammatory demyelinating disorder mediated by exotoxin.
Ans: B
58. The process by which Plasmodium falciparum infected RBCs adher to uninfected RBCs is referred to as
(A) Rosette (B) Cytoadherence (C) Agglutination (D) Emperipolesis
Ans: A
59. Which of the following is not usually seen in children with severe malaria ?
(A) Deep jaundice (B) Metabolic acidosis (C) Hypoglycemia (D) Severe Anaemia
Ans: A
60. Organism implicated in granulomatosis infantiseptica is
(A) Bartonella henselae (B) Brucella abortus (C) Coxiella Burnetti (D) Listeria monocytogenes
Ans: D
61. All the following statements are TRUE about tetanus EXCEPT
(A) Median time after onset of injury is seven days.
(B) Neonatal tetanus is usually generalized.
(C) Cerebrospinal fluid examination shows lymphocytic pleocytosis.
(D) Ablett classification is used to asses clinical severity of tetanus.
Ans: C
62. All the followings drugs can be used in treatment of mucormycosis except
(A) Amphotericin deoxycholate (B) Posaconazole (C) Ravuconazole (D) Micafungin
Ans: D
63. Modified Hodge test is used to detect resistance to
(A) Macrolides (B) Aminoglycosides (C) Quinolones (D) Carbapenems
Ans: D
64. Heterophile negative mononucleosis is seen in all EXCEPT
(A) Toxoplasmosis. (B) HIV (C) CMV (D) EBV
Ans: D
65. All the following statements are TRUE about food-borne botulism EXCEPT
(A) Paralytic ileus is common. (B) Symmetric ascending paralysis is characteristic (C) Fever is usually absent. (D) Incubation period depends on toxin dose.
Ans: B
66. Spontaneous non-traumatic myonecrosis in patients with carcinoma of gastrointestinal tract is usually due to
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Clostridium septicum (C) Streptococcus bovis (D) Clostridium ramosum
Ans: B
67. All the following drugs can be used for chemoprophylaxis against meningococcal disease EXCEPT.
(A) Rifampin. (B) Ciprofloxacin. (C) Azithromycin. (D) Cotrimoxazole.
Ans: D
68. All the following statements are TRUE about Gonococcal infections EXCEPT
(A) Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation of gonorrhea in males.
(B) Axial skeleton is usually involved in gonococcal arthritis.
(C) Clinical manifestations of gonococcal urethritis are more severe than those of non-gonococcal urethritis.
(D) Menstruation is a risk factor for gonococcal arthritis.
Ans: B
69. Presence of gram negative coccobacilli in CSF is suggestive of meningitis due to
(A) Pneumococci (B) Haemophilus Influenzae (C) Meningococci (D) Listeria monocytogenes
Ans: B
70. All the following statements about nocardiosis are TRUE EXCEPT.
(A) Nocardia Asteroides complex is the most commonly isolated nocardia species from clinical specimens.
(B) Risk of disseminated disease is higher in patients with deficient humoral immunity.
(C) Nocardia farcinica is more virulent and prone to dissemination.
(D) Sulfonamides are the drugs of choice for Nocardiosis.
Ans: B
71. All the following statements are TRUE about actinomycosis EXCEPT
(A) Pelvic Actinomycosis is commonly associated with IUCD use.
(B) Mediastinal infection is uncommon.
(C) Actinomyces israelii is not an acid-fast organism.
(D) Sulfur granules are pathognomonic of actinomycosis.
Ans: D
72. All the following statements are TRUE about military tuberculosis EXCEPT
(A) Cryptic Miliary Tuberculosis is seen in infants.
(B) Non-reactive military tuberculosis is an acute septicemic form.
(C) Choroid tubercles are seen in upto 30% of cases.
(D) Sputum smear microscopy is negative in up to 80% of cases.
Ans: A
73. Lucio's phenomenon is seen in
(A) Treated lepromatous leprosy.
(B) Untreated lepromatous leprosy.
(C) Treated tuberculoid leprosy.
(D) Untreated tuberculoid leprosy.
Ans: B
74. All the following Non-tuberculous mycobacteria are rapid growers except.
(A) M.chelonae (B) M.Abscessus (C) M.Fortuitum (D) M.Kansasii
Ans: D
75. Which antimycobacterial agent requires dose modification when creatinine clearance is < 30 ml/min.
(A) Isoniazid (B) Rifampicin (C) Rifabutin (D) Pyrazinamide
Ans: D
76. All the following statements are TRUE about neurosyphilis EXCEPT
(A) CSF VDRL has high specificity but low sensitivity.
(B) CSF VDRL sensitivity is highest in tabes dorsalis.
(C) A non-reactive CSF FTA test may be used to rule out neurosyphilis.
(D) Meningovascular syphilis presents as a gradually progressive vascular syndrome.
Ans: B
77. All the following statements are true about Weil's syndrome except.
(A) Mortality rates are 5 to 15%.
(B) Associated with severe hepatic necrosis.
(C) Splenomegaly is seen in 20% of cases.
(D) Elevated creatinine kinase helps to differentiate it from viral hepatitis.
Ans: B
78. Drug of choice for treating scrub typhus in pregnancy is
(A) Ceftriaxone (B) Doxycycline (C) Azithromycin (D) Clarithromycin
Ans: C
79. Which of the following is the commonest clinical finding in enteric fever ?
(A) Coated tongue (B) Rose spots (C) Abdominal tenderness (D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Ans: A
80. Pastia's lines are characteristically seen in
(A) Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. (B) Scarlet fever. (C) IMN. (D) Kawasaki disease.
Ans: B
(A) Most often affects young children.
(B) Rapidly progressive form is usually associated with meningitis.
(C) Almost three-quarters of patients will have a rash.
(D) Household members of index case are at 400-800 times greater risk of contacting disease than the general population.
Ans: B
42. Septic shock and bullous hemorrhagic skin lesions after ingestion of contaminated shell fish is associated with (A) Aeromonas hydrophila (B) Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (C) Capnocytophaga canimorsus (D) Vibrio vulnificus
Ans: D
43. All the following are features of cerebral malaria except
(A) Photophobia is rare. (B) Symmetric encephalopathy is typical. (C) Nuchal rigidity is common. (D) Unrecognized infection results in 20 to 30% mortality rate.
Ans: C
44. All the following statements about infective endocarditis are true except
(A) Injection drug users usually develop tricuspid valve endocarditis.
(B) Microabscess in brain and meninges occur commonly in streptoccal endocarditis.
(C) Endocarditis caused by nutritional variant streptococci is treated with regimen for moderately penicillin resistant streptococci.
(D) Sensitivity of Transthoracic echocardiography to detect vegetations is 65%.
Ans: B
45. Bacterial food poisoning with shortest incubation period is due to
(A) Vibrio cholera. (B) Salmonella typhimurium. (C) Staphylococcus aureus. (D) Clostridium Perfringens.
Ans: C
46. Antibiotic that pose significantly less risk for development of clostridium difficile colitis is
(A) Ciprofloxacin (B) Cefuroxime (C) Clindamycin (D) Penicillin
Ans: D
47. Painless, non-tender, indurated ulcers with firm, non-tender inguinal adenopathy is suggestive of
(A) Chancroid (B) Lymphogranuloma venereum (C) Primary syphilis (D) Ureaplasma urealyticum
Ans: C
48. Which of the following drugs does not require dose adjustment in renal insufficiency ?
(A) Tenofovir alafenamide (B) Zidovudine (C) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (D) Abacavir
Ans: D
49. Early onset health-care associated pneumonia is usually due to
(A) Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) MRSA (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) Acinetobacter baumanni
Ans: C
50. All the following are components of ventilator associated pneumonia bundle except
(A) Elevation of head end of bed to 60°. (B) Daily sedation interruption. (C) Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis. (D) Deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis.
Ans: A
51. Infections occurring in recipient within one month of hematopoietic stem cell transplant include all the following except.
(A) Candida (B) CMV (C) HSV (D) HHV-6
Ans: B
52. All the following organisms are susceptible to cotrimoxazole except.
(A) Nocardia (B) Cryptosporidium parvum (C) Isospora belli (D) Stenotrophomonas maltophila
Ans: B
53. All the following drugs can be used in the treatment of CMV pneumonia except.
(A) Valacyclovir (B) Foscarnet (C) Cidofovir (D) Ganciclovir
Ans: A
54. Name the antibiotic that acts by disrupting membrane permeability by electrostatic charge alteration.
(A) Tigecycline (B) Fosfomycin (C) Nitrofurantoin (D) Polymyxin B
Ans: D
55. Serotonin syndrome when coadministered with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors is observed with.
(A) Clarithromycin (B) Aztreonam (C) Linezolid (D) Cefepime
Ans: C
56. Concurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia,endocarditis and meningitis is referred to as
(A) Austrian's triad (B) Beck's triad (C) Dieulafoy's triad (D) Anderson triad
Ans: A
57. All the following are TRUE about diphtheria EXCEPT.
(A) Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to underlying tissues.
(B) High grade fever.
(C) Diphtheria antitoxin cannot neutralize cell bound toxin.
(D) Diphtheria neuropathy is a non-inflammatory demyelinating disorder mediated by exotoxin.
Ans: B
58. The process by which Plasmodium falciparum infected RBCs adher to uninfected RBCs is referred to as
(A) Rosette (B) Cytoadherence (C) Agglutination (D) Emperipolesis
Ans: A
59. Which of the following is not usually seen in children with severe malaria ?
(A) Deep jaundice (B) Metabolic acidosis (C) Hypoglycemia (D) Severe Anaemia
Ans: A
60. Organism implicated in granulomatosis infantiseptica is
(A) Bartonella henselae (B) Brucella abortus (C) Coxiella Burnetti (D) Listeria monocytogenes
Ans: D
61. All the following statements are TRUE about tetanus EXCEPT
(A) Median time after onset of injury is seven days.
(B) Neonatal tetanus is usually generalized.
(C) Cerebrospinal fluid examination shows lymphocytic pleocytosis.
(D) Ablett classification is used to asses clinical severity of tetanus.
Ans: C
62. All the followings drugs can be used in treatment of mucormycosis except
(A) Amphotericin deoxycholate (B) Posaconazole (C) Ravuconazole (D) Micafungin
Ans: D
63. Modified Hodge test is used to detect resistance to
(A) Macrolides (B) Aminoglycosides (C) Quinolones (D) Carbapenems
Ans: D
64. Heterophile negative mononucleosis is seen in all EXCEPT
(A) Toxoplasmosis. (B) HIV (C) CMV (D) EBV
Ans: D
65. All the following statements are TRUE about food-borne botulism EXCEPT
(A) Paralytic ileus is common. (B) Symmetric ascending paralysis is characteristic (C) Fever is usually absent. (D) Incubation period depends on toxin dose.
Ans: B
66. Spontaneous non-traumatic myonecrosis in patients with carcinoma of gastrointestinal tract is usually due to
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Clostridium septicum (C) Streptococcus bovis (D) Clostridium ramosum
Ans: B
67. All the following drugs can be used for chemoprophylaxis against meningococcal disease EXCEPT.
(A) Rifampin. (B) Ciprofloxacin. (C) Azithromycin. (D) Cotrimoxazole.
Ans: D
68. All the following statements are TRUE about Gonococcal infections EXCEPT
(A) Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation of gonorrhea in males.
(B) Axial skeleton is usually involved in gonococcal arthritis.
(C) Clinical manifestations of gonococcal urethritis are more severe than those of non-gonococcal urethritis.
(D) Menstruation is a risk factor for gonococcal arthritis.
Ans: B
69. Presence of gram negative coccobacilli in CSF is suggestive of meningitis due to
(A) Pneumococci (B) Haemophilus Influenzae (C) Meningococci (D) Listeria monocytogenes
Ans: B
70. All the following statements about nocardiosis are TRUE EXCEPT.
(A) Nocardia Asteroides complex is the most commonly isolated nocardia species from clinical specimens.
(B) Risk of disseminated disease is higher in patients with deficient humoral immunity.
(C) Nocardia farcinica is more virulent and prone to dissemination.
(D) Sulfonamides are the drugs of choice for Nocardiosis.
Ans: B
71. All the following statements are TRUE about actinomycosis EXCEPT
(A) Pelvic Actinomycosis is commonly associated with IUCD use.
(B) Mediastinal infection is uncommon.
(C) Actinomyces israelii is not an acid-fast organism.
(D) Sulfur granules are pathognomonic of actinomycosis.
Ans: D
72. All the following statements are TRUE about military tuberculosis EXCEPT
(A) Cryptic Miliary Tuberculosis is seen in infants.
(B) Non-reactive military tuberculosis is an acute septicemic form.
(C) Choroid tubercles are seen in upto 30% of cases.
(D) Sputum smear microscopy is negative in up to 80% of cases.
Ans: A
73. Lucio's phenomenon is seen in
(A) Treated lepromatous leprosy.
(B) Untreated lepromatous leprosy.
(C) Treated tuberculoid leprosy.
(D) Untreated tuberculoid leprosy.
Ans: B
74. All the following Non-tuberculous mycobacteria are rapid growers except.
(A) M.chelonae (B) M.Abscessus (C) M.Fortuitum (D) M.Kansasii
Ans: D
75. Which antimycobacterial agent requires dose modification when creatinine clearance is < 30 ml/min.
(A) Isoniazid (B) Rifampicin (C) Rifabutin (D) Pyrazinamide
Ans: D
76. All the following statements are TRUE about neurosyphilis EXCEPT
(A) CSF VDRL has high specificity but low sensitivity.
(B) CSF VDRL sensitivity is highest in tabes dorsalis.
(C) A non-reactive CSF FTA test may be used to rule out neurosyphilis.
(D) Meningovascular syphilis presents as a gradually progressive vascular syndrome.
Ans: B
77. All the following statements are true about Weil's syndrome except.
(A) Mortality rates are 5 to 15%.
(B) Associated with severe hepatic necrosis.
(C) Splenomegaly is seen in 20% of cases.
(D) Elevated creatinine kinase helps to differentiate it from viral hepatitis.
Ans: B
78. Drug of choice for treating scrub typhus in pregnancy is
(A) Ceftriaxone (B) Doxycycline (C) Azithromycin (D) Clarithromycin
Ans: C
79. Which of the following is the commonest clinical finding in enteric fever ?
(A) Coated tongue (B) Rose spots (C) Abdominal tenderness (D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Ans: A
80. Pastia's lines are characteristically seen in
(A) Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. (B) Scarlet fever. (C) IMN. (D) Kawasaki disease.
Ans: B
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Human Anatomy
- Human Anatomy- Page 1
- Infectious Diseases
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine