ORAL MEDICINE AND RADIOLOGY- PAGE 2

1. Which isotope is most frequently used in radionuclide imaging
(A) Iodine (B) Gallium (C) Selenium (D) Technetium
Ans: D

2. Reversal lines are characteristics on radiograph of
(A) Cementoma (B) Ossifying fibroma (C) Paget’s disease (D) Osteosarcoma
Ans: C

3. Which of the following statement is not true about gamma scintillation camera
(A) Capture photons (B) Change photons into light
(C) Create planar images from voltage signals (D) Convert electrical impulses into sonic energy
Ans: D

4. All of the following forms radiolucent crystal except
(A) Xanthine (B) Cysteine (C) Allopurinol (D) Orotic acid
Ans: B

5. With respect to Water’s view which of the following is correct?
(A) Patient’s head tilted upward, canthomeatal line forms 37° angle with image receptor
(B) Patient’s head tilted downward to touch the image receptor with forehead and mouth wide open
(C) Patient’s head kept straight with respect to receptor so that forehead and chin touch the image receptor
(D) Patient’s head tilted as far as backward and mouth wide open
Ans: A

6. Fusion of teeth which results from the union of adjacent tooth germs of developing teeth is known as
(A) Twinning (B) Concrescence (C) Synodontia (D) Taurodontia
Ans: C

7. Geiger Muller counter device is used for which of the following procedures
(A) Survey for low level radiation exposure (B) Processing of radiographic films
(C) Measuring intensity of radiographic film density (D) Digital subtraction radiography
Ans: A

8. Which of the following properties of tungsten allows it to be used as anode in x-ray tube?
(A) High melting point & high vapor pressure (B) Low melting point & high vapor pressure
(C) Low melting point & low vapor pressure (D) High melting point & low vapor pressure
Ans: D

9. The radiopaque “V” shaped structure located in the midline 1.5 to 2 cm above the alveolar crest on a maxillary IOPA radiograph refers to (A) Intermaxillary suture (B) Nasal Aperture (C) Nose (D) Anterior nasal spine
Ans: D

10. Ghost image in a panoramic image with reference to a particular anatomic structures has the following typical properties
(A) It is always presents higher and on the same side (B) It is always presents higher and on the opposite side
(C) It is always presents lower and on the same side (D) It is always presents lower and on the opposite side
Ans: B

11. Which of the following lesion is not visualized on plain radiography
(A) Nasolabial cyst (B) Static bone cyst (C) Incisive canal cyst (D) Traumatic bone cyst
Ans: A

12. Yellow or brown stains on radiograph can occur because of the following reason
(A) Excessive fixation (B) Accidental exposure to light (C) Insufficient washing (D) Bending of film
Ans: C

13. A plot of the relationship between film optical density and exposure is called
(A) Definitive curve (B) Characteristic curve (C) Nominal curve (D) Density curve
Ans: B

14. The septa present within the ameloblastoma which cause multilocular appearance radiographically represent
(A) New bone formed during pathogenesis (B) Ossified tumor
(C) Metastatic calcification (D) Normal bone trapped within the tumor
Ans: D

15. Radiographically which of the following tumor is known as “greatest mimicker” and hence may mimic other lesions on radiograph
(A) Ameloblastoma (B) Osteoma (C) Central hemangioma (D) Odontogenic myxoma
Ans: C

16. Radiographically which of the following tumor have a soft tissue shadow around the periphery with opacity in the central portion suggesting evidence of mature bone
(A) Osteoblastoma (B) Neurofibroma (C) Ameloblastoma (D) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
Ans: A

17. Which of the following will appear bright in T1 weighted MRI images
(A) CSF (B) Odematous fluid (C) Fat (D) Aqueous humor
Ans: C

18. Which tomographic motion is likely to elicit a streaking artifact
(A) Spiral (B) Linear (C) Elliptic (D) Hypocycloidal
Ans: B

19. Most commonly used piezoelectric material in ultrasonography is
(A) Zinc titanium zirconate (B) Lead zirconate titanate (C) Aluminium zinc titanate (D) Zinc cobalt zirconate
Ans: B

20. Which of the following is the greatest disadvantage of CBCT imaging
(A) High patient radiation dose (B) Interactive analysis (C) Poor soft tissue contrast (D) Low speed scanning
Ans: C

21. In right angle technique, the x-ray receptor is supported
(A) At right angle to both the long axis of teeth and central ray
(B) Parallel to the long axis of teeth and central ray at right angle to teeth & receptor
(C) At right angle to the long axis of the teeth and central ray 45° to receptor
(D) Parallel to both the long axis as well as central ray
Ans: B

22. How long are post extraction sockets usually apparent on radiographs
(A) 6-8 weeks (B) 2-3 months (C) 6-12 months (D) 1-2 years
Ans: C

23. Which radiographic sign indicates poor plaque control around an implant
(A) Asymmetrical migration of the alveolar bone (B) Thin radiolucent outline surrounding the implant
(C) Widening of a neighboring periodontal ligament space (D) Crestal bone loss around the coronal portion of the implant
Ans: D

24. Swirling pattern similar to fingerprint can be seen radiographically in which of the following conditions
(A) Osteoma (B) Ameloblastoma (C) Odontoma (D) Fibrous dysplasia
Ans: D

25. In which of the digital imaging sensors the image is read in a “Bucket Brigade” fashion
(A) Charged couple device (B) Complementary metal oxide semiconductors
(C) Flat panel detectors (D) Photostimulable phosphor
Ans: A

26. Potassium Bromide & Benzotriazole are added to the developing solution, the primary function of these are
(A) Developing (B) Activation (C) Preservation (D) Restraining
Ans: D

27. A radiographic increase in bone density is associated with which systemic disease
(A) Hypothyroidism (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Hypoparathyroidism (D) Hyperparathyroidism
Ans: C

28. Filters that smooth an image in digital imaging techniques are known as
(A) Quantum filters (B) Resolution filters (C) Structure filters (D) Despeckling filters
Ans: D

29. Hypercementosis is seen in all except
(A) Pagets disease (B) Acromegaly (C) Gigantism (D) Hypothyroidism
Ans: D

30. The contrast of a radiographic film could be improved by which of the following method
(A) Increasing the kVp (B) Reducing the exposure time (C) Using higher temperature while processing (D) Collimation
Ans: D

31. A protective coat is placed over phosphor layer in the intensifying screen is made of
(A) Gelatin (B) Fluoride (C) Polymer (D) Aluminium
Ans: C

32. Generalized loss of lamina dura is associated with
(A) Acromegaly (B) Hyperparathyroidism (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Gout
Ans: A

33. Parallax effect is seen during image formation in which of the following case
(A) Usage of double emulsion film (B) Digital imaging (C) Usage of intensifying screen (D) Usage of collimation
Ans: A

34. Snowcapped teeth are seen in which type of Amelogenesis Imperfecta
(A) Hypoplastic (B) Hypomaturation (C) Hypocalcified (D) Hypomaturation, Hypocalcified
Ans: B

35. Which of the following regarding magnification of an radiograph is true
(A) As object - film distance increases, magnification decreases
(B) As x-ray source - film distance increases, magnification decreases
(C) As object - film distance increases, magnification increases
(D) No effect of object - film distance or x-ray source - film distance on magnification
Ans: C

36. Which of the following statement is true when an object is placed at an angle (θ) to the x-ray film
(A) Shadow of the object will be larger than actual dimension
(B) As Angle (θ) increases, foreshortening of an image decreases
(C) No effect of angle (θ) on size of image on radiograph
(D) As Angle (θ) increases, foreshortening of an image increases
Ans: D

37. Radiographically, maxillary sinusitis is checked by
(A) Clouding of antrum (B) Fluid level & bony erosion
(C) Clouding & fluid level (D) Clouding & bony erosion
Ans: C

38. In a patient with exposure of diagnostic level of therapeutic radiation, which one of the following does not occur
(A) Mutagenesis (B) Carcinogenesis (C) Teratogenesis (D) Mucositis
Ans: D

39. Pseudo-image in radiograph is formed
(A) Due to overlapping of umbra (B) Due to overlapping of penumbra
(C) Due to motion between film and object (D) Due to motion between focal spot and object
Ans: B

40. Which of the following factor does not affect contrast
(A) Differential linear attenuation coefficient of material
(B) Thickness of material
(C) Slope of characteristics curve of photographic film
(D) Movement among source, object and film
Ans: D

41. Which of the following is difference between true lateral skull and true cephalometric lateral skull
(A) True lateral skull does not show fractures of middle third of the face whereas cephalomatric shows middle third fracture
(B) True lateral skull is not standardized and reproducible whereas cephalometric is standardize and reproducible
(C) True lateral skull does not show sella turcica whereas cephalometric shows sella turcica
(D) In true lateral skull Central ray does not pass through external auditory meatus whereas in cephalometric it passes through external auditory meatus
Ans: B

42. Which of the following is an indication for rotated puffed cheek PA view
(A) Stones/calculi in parotid gland (B) For impacted third molar
(C) Temporal/infra-temporal space infection (D) Bucco-lingual expansion of cyst or tumors
Ans: A

43. Which of the following view is suitable for intracapsular fracture of TMJ
(A) Rotated Posteroanterior view (B) Towne’s projection (C) Bregma Menton view (D) Reverse towne’s view
Ans: D

44. Which of the following view should be taken for middle face fracture diagnosis
(A) 0 degree Occipitomental view (B) 30 degree Occipitomental view
(C) Both 0 and 30 degree Occipitomental view (D) Reverse Towne’s view
Ans: C

45. In a mandibular periapical radiograph, thin vertical radiolucent line in the interdental space between the incisors is most probably due to
(A) Artifact (B) Nutrient canal (C) Draining sinus (D) Lamina dura
Ans: B

46. Which of the following organ has the highest susceptibility to radiation induced cancer
(A) Colon (B) Liver (C) Thyroid gland (D) Skin
Ans: A

47. Complication of irradiation will include all except
(A) Rampant caries (B) Caries at unusual sites (C) Accelerated periodontal disease (D) Eaten Apple core appearance of teeth
Ans: C

48. Radiotherapy damages all of the following except
(A) DNA (B) Cell membrane (C) RNA (D) Mitochondria
Ans: C

49. Radiation effect on arteries is
(A) Anemia (B) Endarteritis (C) Infection (D) All of the above
Ans: B

50. In radiation biology, latent period represents
(A) Cell rest and cell mitosis (B) The first & last dose of radiation
(C) Film exposure and image development (D) Radiation exposure and onset of symptoms
Ans: D

51. Which of the following is correct
(A) Electromagnetic radiations have neither mass nor weight but have electrical charge
(B) Electromagnetic radiations have mass and weight but not electrical charge
(C) Electromagnetic radiations have neither mass nor weight nor electrical charge
(D) Electromagnetic radiations have mass but not weight and electrical charge
Ans: C

52. Which Radiofrequency pulse adjustment produces a T2-weighted MR image
(A) Short repetition times and short echo times (B) Short repetition times and long echo times
(C) Long repetition times and short echo times (D) Long repetition times and long echo times
Ans: D

53. Mcqueen dell technique is also known as
(A) Transcranial open mouth technique (B) Transcranial close mouth technique
(C) Transpharyngeal technique (D) Transorbital technique
Ans: C

54. Which of the following statement is false about sialogram
(A) Specificity is more than salivary scan (B) Sialogram is done after salivary scan if both are indicated
(C) Sialogram is anatomical and salivary scan is functional (D) Salivary scan is usually indicate in acute inflammatory condition
Ans: D

55. Radiographic waste which is not hazardous is
(A) Lead (B) Silver (C) Diluted developer (D) Sulfide
Ans: C

56. Which of the following is not a radiographic feature of cleidocranial dysplasia
(A) Wormian bones (B) Hypoplastic maxillary sinus (C) Dolicocephaly (D) Unerupted supernumerary teeth
Ans: C

57. Which of the following views can be achieved with cone beam computerized tomography (CBCT)
(A) Tomography (B) Panoramic view (C) Cephalogram (D) All of the above
Ans: D

58. The main radiographic feature of hyperthyroidism is
(A) Irregularity of the cortical bone (B) Teeth root resorption (C) Thinning of lamina dura (D) Cotton wool bone appearance
Ans: C

59. A young adult patient complains of gingival inflammation and loose teeth in one quadrant. Hematologic examination shows normal blood chemistry. Radiographs shows extensive irregular bone loss in the affected area. Biopsy shows histiyocytic proliferation. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Hand schuller Christian disease
(B) Hurler syndrome
(C) Chronic periodontitis
(D) Eosinophillic granuloma
Ans: D

60. Aliasing artifact is due to
(A) Divergence of cone beam (B) Defected or non-calibrated detector elements
(C) Due to previous restoration or implant in patients (D) None of the above
Ans: A

61. Which of the following is true about CBCT in comparison to CT scan
(A) Focal spot size of CBCT is smaller than CT scan
(B) Spatial resolution of CBCT is less than CT scan
(C) CBCT has higher amount of annual background radiation as compared to CT scan
(D) In CBCT voxel dimension depends upon slice thickness whereas in CT it depends on pitch
Ans: B

62. Radiographically, “Hair on end” pattern appearance is seen in the following conditions except
(A) Thalassemia (B) Sickle cell anemia (C) Squamous cell carcinoma (D) Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans: C

63. The corresponding values to Hounsfield unit in CBCT is
(A) Attenuation coefficient (B) Attenuation scale (C) CBCT number (D) Gray scale
Ans: D

64. In panoramic radiograph if chin is placed anterior to focal trough then how it will affect the image
(A) No effect
(B) Image will be blurred and magnified
(C) Image will be blurred and diminished
(D) Image will be blurred and no change in dimensions
Ans: C

65. The amount of radiation required to produce an image of standard density is called
(A) Radiographic contrast (B) Radiographic speed (C) Latitude (D) Radiographic Noise
Ans: B

66. Which of the following can explain the different presentations of various types of clinical manifestations of oral lichen planus
(A) Excessive Melanosis (B) Presence of excessive amount of virus induced particles
(C) Magnitude of subepithelial inflammation (D) All of the above
Ans: C

67. Pipe stem or tram track appearance on a radiograph could be appreciated in which of the following conditions?
(A) Arteriosclerosis (B) Sialolith (C) Phlebolith (D) Calcified styloid process
Ans: A

68. All of the following radiographic appearances could be observed in fibrous dysplasia except
(A) Ground glass (B) Peau d’orange (C) Wispy arrangement (D) Cycle spoke
Ans: D

69. “Shepherd’s Crook sign” is the characteristic of
(A) Renal rickets (B) Hypothyroidism (C) Fibrous dysplasia (D) Pagets disease
Ans: C

70. ‘Bulb-like’ shape of skull on a radiograph could be appreciated in which of the following condition
(A) Treacher Collin syndrome (B) Cleidocranial dysplasia (C) Hemifacial microsomia (D) Crouzon syndrome
Ans: B

71. What is the role of F-centres with respect to phostostimulable phosphor plates in digital imaging
(A) Trapping the electron in a metastable state (B) Source of electron (C) Scintillator (D) Filtration
Ans: A

72. Which of the following lesion occurs between the inferior alveolar canal and inferior border of mandible
(A) Stafne cyst (B) Radicular cyst (C) Aneurysmal bone cyst (D) Retention cyst
Ans: A

73. The Caldwell radiographic view is most useful in evaluating which of the following structures?
(A) TMJ (B) Zygomatic arch (C) Frontal sinuses and ethmoid air cells (D) Nasal bone
Ans: C

ORAL MEDICINE AND RADIOLOGY- PAGE 2

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