ORAL MEDICINE AND RADIOLOGY- PAGE 1

1. Excessive glucocorticoid secretion (Cushing’s syndrome) increases
(A) Skin thickness (B) Bone strength (C) Blood glucose levels (D) Rate of wound healing
Ans: C

2. The site of protein synthesis is
(A) Plasma membrane (B) Ribosome (C) Mitochondria (D) Nucleus
Ans: B

3. Platelet aggregation is inhibited by
(A) Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP) (B) 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) (C) Prostaglandin I2 (PG I2) (D) Thromboxane A2 (TxA2)
Ans: C

4. Which of the following is not a vitamin K dependent clotting factor
(A) Factor II (B) Factor VII (C) Factor VIII (D) Factor IX
Ans: C

5. In vitamin A deficiency, patient complains of all of the         following                except
(A) Night blindness (B) Xerophthalmia (C) Keratosis (D) Phosphoric calciuria
Ans: D

6. Carlson-Crittenden collectors are used to collect
(A)          Synovial               fluid       (B)          Saliva     from                parotid gland
(C)          Lacrimal                fluid       (D)          Gingival crevicular             fluid
Ans: B

7. Free radicals are
(A) Not a byproduct of metabolism (B) Can only form in presence of oxygen
(C) May arise after absorbing radiant energy (D) Are not removed with vitamin E supplementation
Ans: C

8. The most important factor governing the drug absorption from skin is
(A) Molecular weight of the drug (B) Lipid solubility of the drug
(C) Nature of base used in drug formulation (D) Site of drug application
Ans: B

9. Which one of the following is true for selective COX-2 inhibitors
(A) Are anti-inflammatory but not    analgesics
(B) Do not bring down fever
(C) Do not have renal effects
(D) Do not inhibit platelet aggregation
Ans: D

10. Corticosteroids exerts   anti-inflammatory action through inhibition of
(A) Cycloxygenase (B) Lipoxygenase (C) Phospholipase-A (D) Phosphodiesterase
Ans: C

11. Tool for evaluation of multidimensional aspect of pain is
(A) Multiaxial Assessment of Pain (B) McGill Pain Questionnaire
(C) Research Diagnostic Criteria (D) Graded Chronic Severity scale
Ans: B

12. Which of the type of Orofacial pain shows increased ESR
(A) Cluster headache (B) Migrane (C) Carotodynia (D) Temporal arteritis
Ans: D

13. Which of the following statement regarding Neuralgic pain is wrong
(A) Neuralgic pain often results from disorders that involves cranial nerves (B) Pain free periods between attack and refractory phase
(C) Neuropathic pain is intermittent type with presence of trigger zones (D) Neuralgic pan occurs along the course of nerve
Ans: C

14. Which of the following statement for post herpetic neuralgia (PHN) is wrong
(A) It most commonly affects ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve (B) Pain persisting longer than 3 months is termed as PHN
(C) It is caused by reactivation of herpes simplex virus (D) Its incidence is higher in women
Ans: C

15. The confirmatory test for diagnosis of lupus     vulgaris is
(A) Bacterial smear (B) Blood chemistry (C) Chest X-ray (D) Biopsy
Ans: D

16. Steven-Johnson Syndrome involves which type of hypersensitivity reaction
(A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) Type IV
Ans: C

17. In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody to intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is observed
(A) Lichen planus (B) Verrucous vulgaris (C) Bullous pemphigoid (D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Ans: D

18. A 3 cm squamous cell carcinoma of retromolar trigone invading the mandible and the medial pterygoid muscle is at what TNM stage
(A) Stage I (B) Stage II (C) Stage III (D) Stage IV
Ans: D

19. Acquired, symmetric hyperpigmentation of the face strongly associated with pregnancy is called as
(A) Melanoma (B) Café-au laits spots (C) Freckle (D) Melasma
Ans: D

20. Neurological symptoms and premature graying of hair is associated with
(A)          Folic       acid        deficiency                (B)          Pernicious           anemia
(C) Plummer Vinson syndrome (D) Paterson-kelly syndrome
Ans: B

21. Interferon interferes with replication of virus at
(A) Protein synthesis (B) RNA/DNA Replication
(C) When virus enters the cells (D) Uncoating of virus protein capsule
Ans: A

22. Which of the following is wrong about HSV infection
(A) Cell culture is gold standard diagnostic test
(B) HSV can be identified on Tzanck preparation
(C) Seroconversion is elevated IgG titers followed by IgM titers after several weeks
(D) Has characteristic history and clinical appearance of lesions
Ans: C

23. Histological appearance of which of the following lesion is similar to brown’s tumor of hyperparathyroidism
(A) Central giant cell granuloma (B) Periapical granuloma (C) Cherubism (D) Aneurysmal bone cyst
Ans: A

24. Fortification        spectra is             associated           with       which    of            the         following             condition
(A) Migraine (B) Vitamin A Deficiency (C) Optic Nerve Palsy (D) Glaucoma
Ans: A

25. A child is below the third percentile for height. Growth rate is normal but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Constitutional delay in growth (B) Genetic short stature
(C) Primordial                dwarfism             (D)          Hypopituitarism
Ans: A

26. Histopathologically, Popcorn cells are seen in
(A) Non hodgkins lymphoma (B) Hodgkin lymphoma (C) Burkit lymphoma (D) Osteosarcoma
Ans: B

27. True about mucormycosis is all except
(A) Seen in immunocompromised patients (B) Not cause palatal perforation
(C) May spread to orbit and brain (D) Treated by third generation cephalosporins
Ans: D

28. Which of the following statement holds true & is indicated for patients on carbamazepine therapy
(A) Clinical observation only (B) Clinical observation & complete blood counts prior to & at frequent intervals during therapy
(C) No monitoring (D) Complete blood investigation only if adverse symptoms arise
Ans: B

29. Antigen associated with cicatricial pemphigoid
(A) BPAg-2-Epiligrin (B) HLA DR3 & HLADR5
(C) HLADR2 & HLADR8 (D) BP antigen 1& 2
Ans: A

30. Not a tumor suppressor gene
(A) P 16 (B) NK7A (C) RB (D) FHIT
Ans: B

31. Which of the following is a triad of signs & symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta
(A) Blue Sclera, Sparse Hairs, Anhydrosis (B) Enlarged Hands, Feet & Mandible
(C) Blue Sclera, Brittle Bones, Opalescent Dentin (D) Blue Sclera, Arachnodactyly, Brittle Bones
Ans: C

32. All are true for Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura except
(A) Is associated with platelet specific autoantibodies (B) Causes a prolonged bleeding time
(C) Is often controlled by immunosuppressive agents (D) Causes more prolonged bleeding than hemophilia
Ans: D

33. Which of the following suggests single chronic ulcer in the oral cavity
(A) Mucormycosis (B) Pemphigus vulgaris (C) Minor Aphthous ulcer (D) Erythema Multiforme
Ans: A

34. The mainstay of treatment of actinic keratosis
(A) Chemotherapy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Vitamin A therapy (D) Surgery
Ans: D

35. Cevimeline HCl is used for management of which of the following conditions
(A) Sialorrhea (B) Sjogren’s syndrome (C) Mumps (D) Sialolithiasis
Ans: B

36. The mechanism of action of Rituximab which is under clinical trials and related to direct B-cell targeted therapy for Sjogren’s syndrome (A) Anti CD 20 monoclonal antibodies (B) Anti CD 22 monoclonal antibodies
(C) Anti TNF – alpha antagonist (D) None of the above
Ans: A

37. The Breslow method is used to determine the level of cellular invasion in:
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Carcinoma ex-pleomorhic adenoma (C) Basal cell carcinoma (D) Malignant melanoma
Ans: D

38. Most common site of oral hairy leukoplakia
(A) Gingiva (B) Buccal mucosa (C) Faucial pillars (D) Tongue
Ans: D

39. A differential effect which is achieved during radiotherapy is due to
(A) Damage to normal cells as well as cancerous cells equally
(B) High growth fraction of cancer cells and greater potential for repair by normal cells
(C) Relatively hypoxic central tumor cells are more susceptible to radiotherapy
(D) Fractionation of dose
Ans: B

40. Level IV denotes which group of lymph nodes as per the Levelling system developed by Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Centre
(A) Mid-jugular group (B) Lower Jugular Group (C) Posterior Triangle Group (D) Central Compartment Group
Ans: B

41. Mixed connective diseases includes following disorders except
(A) Systemic lupus erythematosus (B) Progressive systemic sclerosis (C) Rheumatoid arthritis (D) Dermatomyositis
Ans: C

42. What is the most important side effect of systemic retinoids
(A) Increased bleeding tendencies (B) Retinopathy (C) Liver dysfunction (D) Hypertension
Ans: C

43. Therapeutic effects of topical Capsaicin is due to
(A) Prevention of reuptake of neurotransmitters
(B) Depletion of substance P in C fibres
(C) Destruction of serotonin
(D) Enzymatic action in nerve endings
Ans: B

44. Schilling test is usually done to evaluate
(A) Vitamin B12       deficiency
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Folic acid        deficiency
(D) Aplastic Anemia
Ans: A

45. One unit of factor VIII concentrate raises Factor VIII levels by
(A) 2% (B) 4% (C) 6% (D) 8%
Ans: A

46. Which of the following syndromes is characterized by facial trichilemmomas, gastrointestinal polyps, thyroid neoplasms, pebbly papilloma      like         lesions in            oral        mucosa and        multiple               fibromas
(A) Gardner’s syndrome (B) Peutz Jegher’s syndrome (C) Gorlin-Goltz syndrome (D) Cowden’s syndrome
Ans: D

47. Most common salivary gland to be affected with sialolithiasis is
(A) Parotid (B) Submandibular (C) Palatal (D) Sublingual
Ans: B

48. A substance that is not known to accumulate intracellularly
(A) Lipofuscin (B) Pus (C) Tattoo ink (D) Melanin
Ans: B

49. Mumps is caused by
(A) Herpes virus (B) Parmyxovirus (C) Adeno virus (D) Pox virus
Ans: B

50. What     type       of            leukocyte            actively participates        in            acute     inflammatory     process
(A) Lymphocytes (B) Neutrophils (C) Eosinophils (D) Monocytes
Ans: B

51. A 3-year   old          child       touches a              lit            candle   with       finger    thereafter           a              small                blister   appears on           the         finger    pad.       The        process involved is
(A)          Fibrinous                Inflammation     (B)          Ulceration
(C)          Abscess Formation           (D)          Serous Inflammation
Ans: D

52. Which of the following type of cells result in formation of giant cells in tuberculosis
(A) Activated Macrophages (B) Atypical Lymphocytes (C) Reactive Fibroblasts (D) Epithelial Cells
Ans: A

53. Which amongst the following function is the last one to be blocked by a local anesthetic
(A) Pain, Temperature (B) Muscle Spindles (C) Motor Functions (D) Touch, Pressure
Ans: C

54. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect
(A) Carbepenems (B) Macrolides (C) Aminoglycosides (D) Cephalosporins
Ans: B

55. Aminoglycosides have the following side effect
(A) Pancytopenia (B) Hepatotoxicity (C) Ototoxicity, Nephrotoxicity (D) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa
Ans: C

56. All of the following antifungal drugs are antibiotics except
(A) Amphotericin B (B) Nystatin (C) Miconazole (D) Griseofulvin
Ans: C

57. Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the absorption of other drugs by
(A) Complexing with other drugs in intestinal lumen (B) Altering gut motility
(C) Altering gut flora (D) Damaging gut mucosa
Ans: B

58. Neutropenic ulcers differ from all other ulcers of the mouth due to the presence of which of the following characteristic feature
(A) Lack       of            surrounding       inflammation
(B) Absence of necrosis
(C) Ulcers are totally painless
(D) Ulcers   tend      to            be           superficial
Ans: A

59. Localized tumors known as “Chloromas” are seen most commonly in which of the following condition
(A) Lymphoma (B) Neutropenia (C) Multiple myeloma (D) Leukemia
Ans: D

60. Recently, Curcumin is being used as chemopreventive agent in oral cancer & oral potentially malignant disorders. The mechanism of action of curcumin is
(A) COX-2   inhibition
(B) Inhibition of NF-kappa β
(C) Inhibition of STAT3 (D) All of the above
Ans: D

61. Most commonest type of oral candidiasis seen in HIV infected patients is
(A) Pseudomembranous candidiasis (B) Atrophic candidiasis (C) Hyperplastic candidiasis (D) Angular cheilitis
Ans: A

62. Histopathologic finding in            leukoedema      involves               significant            oedema               with                respect to which of the following layer of the epithelium
(A) Stratum basale
(B) Stratum intermedium
(C) Stratum spinosum
(D) Stratum superficiale
Ans: C

63. Suprabasilar acantholysis is seen in which of the following condition
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris (B) Lichen planus (C) Erythema multiforme (D) Lupus vulgaris
Ans: A

64. Finn chambers are used for detection of which of the following condition
(A) HSV infection (B) ANUG (C) Lichen planus (D) Allergic stomatitis
Ans: D

65. Mucosal scarring is seen in which of the following condition
(A) HSV infection (B) Cicatricial pemphigoid (C) Mucormycosis (D) Eruthema multiforme
Ans: B

66. Which of the following is a benign self-limiting reactive disorder
(A) Ranula (B) Keratoacanthoma (C) Mumps (D) Necrotizing sialometaplasia
Ans: D

67. Periadenitis mucosa necrotica recurrents is the other name for
(A) ANUG (B) HSV 1 infection (C) Erythema multiforme (D) Reccurent Apthous Stomatitis Major
Ans: D

68. Uhthoff’s sign is seen in
(A) Multiple sclerosis (B) Parkinsonism (C) Bell’s palsy (D) Cerebral palsy
Ans: A

69. Which of the following type of cells can lyse tumor cells or virus infected cells without prior sensitization
(A) B cells (B) T cells (C) NK cells (D) Macrophages
Ans: C

70. OLEP      classification       &             staging uses       “L” -size        of lesion    &             “P” – pathology            for          oral        leukoplakia.        Stage     III            of            OLEP      classification       & staging system denotes
(A) L3P0 (B) L1L2P1
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
Ans: C

71. Radioallergosorbent test (RAST) is used for determining the serum level of
(A) IgA (B) IgG (C) IgM (D) IgE
Ans: D

72. The candida usually penetrates the epithelial cells and remains within the epithelium. This penetration is facilitated by which of the following enzymes?
(A) Lysozyme (B) Amylase (C) Catalase (D) Lipase
Ans: D

73. A positive correlation between oral candidiasis & epithelial dysplasia is due to capacity of yeast cells
(A) To induce metastasis (B) To induce changes in cell adhesion
(C) To catalyze nitrosamine production (D) To promote allelic changes
Ans: C

74. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia & loss of appetite. The most likely poisoning is
(A) Mercury (B) Lead (C) Arsenic (D) Phosphorus
Ans: B

75. OraQuick is a test for diagnosis of
(A) HIV (B) HBV (C) HSV (D) HPV
Ans: A

76. Which of the following is the characteristic marker for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
(A) CD1a (B) CD10 (C) CD117 (D) S100
Ans: A

77. Diascopy may be used in the diagnosis of
(A) Pigmented lesions (B) Vascular lesions (C) Malignant lesions (D) Hematologic diseases
Ans: B

78. Most commonly affected site involving Paraneoplastic pemphigus is
(A) Buccal gingival (B) Buccal mucosa (C) Hard palate (D) Tongue
Ans: D

79. Which of the following drug needs titration of dosage in patients with chronic renal disease
(A) Erythromycin (B) Codeine (C) Prednisone (D) Acetaminophen
Ans: D

80. Which of the following is the new accepted model for coagulation consisting of three overlapping phases namely initiation,             amplification      and propagation
(A) Waterfall model (B) Platelet function model
(C) Cell based model (D) Coagulation function model
Ans: C

81. What are the clinical applications of positron emission tomography imaging technique in Head & Neck cancer
(A) Staging of primary & recurrent tumor (B) Assessment of lymph nodes & distant metastasis
(C) Radiation treatment planning & monitoring (D) All of the above
Ans: D

82. Dosage used to compare the biological effects of different types of radiation on a tissue or organ is known as
(A) Exposure (B) Absorbed dose (C) Equivalent dose (D) Effective dose
Ans: C

83. Cells that are damaged by radiation, release molecules into their immediate environment leading to further damage to the tissues. This phenomenon is known as
(A) Bystander effect (B) Apoptosis (C) Aberration (D) Trans genetic effect
Ans: A

84. Frequency of photoelectric absorption varies directly with which of following power of the atomic number of the absorber
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
Ans: C

85. Which of the following is the most likely cause of appearance of black branching      lines       on the processed           x-ray      film
(A) Air bubbles (B) Developer cut-off (C) Fingernail damage (D) Static electricity
Ans: D

86. All of the following are true about randomized controlled trial except
(A) Baseline characteristics of intervention and control group should be similar
(B) Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding
(C) The sample size required is based on hypothesis
(D) The drop outs from the trial should be excluded from analysis
Ans: D

87. In CT technique the three dimensional reformatting requires that each original voxel, shaped as a rectangular solid, be dimensionally altered into multiple cuboidal vowels. This is known as
(A) Extrapolation (B) Interpolation (C) Reformatting (D) Preformatting
Ans: B

88. The type of sampling where every 5th house in a village is selected
(A) Stratified Random sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Stratified             sampling
(D) Systematic random sampling
Ans: D

89. A typical full mouth set of radiographic examination for an adult contains how many images
(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 21 (D) 24
Ans: C

90. A 35 year old female came for routine dental checkup. During radiological examination mandibular anterior teeth showed periapical radiolucencies with respect to centrals and laterals with no apparent clinical abnormalities. What could be the provisional diagnosis
(A) Central giant cell granuloma
(B) Fibrous dysplasia
(C) Cements-ossifying fibroma
(D) Cemento-osseous Dysplasia
Ans: D

91. Generalized osteopenia in initial stages, later bone erosions involving articular eminence and anterior aspect of condylar head is seen. Further later stages show sharpened pencil appearance of condyles. These radiological features are appreciated in which of the following disorders
(A) Degenerative joint disease (B) Remodeling
(C) Ankylosis (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: D

92. Which of the following is the most common radiological description of aneurysmal bone cyst
(A) Wispy ill-defined septa (B) Random orientation of septa
(C) Cotton wool appearance (D) Salt and pepper appearance
Ans: A

93. Which of the following tests are indicated before any type of radiological contrast agents are injected to the patients
(A) Liver function test (B) ANA levels (C) Complete blood count (D) Renal function test
Ans: D

94. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding odontogenic myxoma
(A) Usually present in tooth bearing area of mandible (B) Commonly cause resorption of teeth
(C) High tissue signal characteristics on T2 weighted image (D) Radiographically, it appears multilocular
Ans: B

95. Sievert is the SI unit for which of the following
(A) Exposure (B) Radioactivity (C) Absorbed dose (D) Equivalent dose
Ans: D

96. What is a scout film
(A) Film usually made before the infusion of contrast agent
(B) Film made immediately after the infusion of contrast agent
(C) Film made at the time contrast agent has been emptied from the respective glands & ducts
(D) Film which is taken 2 hours after the infusion of contrast agent
Ans: A

97. Which of the following will have a bull’s eye or “target” appearance in a radiograph
(A) Monckeberg’s medial calcinosis (B) Phlebolith (C) Rhinolith (D) Ossified stylohyoid ligament
Ans: B

98. The rate of loss of energy from a particle as it moves along its track through matter is also known as
(A) Radioactivity (B) Scattering (C) Linear energy transfer (D) Exposure
Ans: C

99. The speed with which individual images are acquired during CBCT imaging is also known as
(A) Image rate (B) Frame rate (C) Scan rate (D) Computation rate
Ans: B

100. “Ghost like appearance” of teeth on radiographic imaging is seen in
(A) Regional odontodysplasia (B) Dentin dysplasia (C) Amelogenesis imperfecta. (D) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Ans: A

ORAL MEDICINE AND RADIOLOGY- PAGE 1

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