OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY- PAGE 2

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY MCQs

1.   Polyhydramnios at term is diagnosed when AFI is more than:
(a)   10 cm (b)   15 cm (c)   20 cm (d)   25 cm
Ans: D

2.   Which of the following is not a potentially teratogenic infection if contracted in pregnancy?
(a)   Rubella (b)   Cytomegalovirus (c)   Influenza virus    (d)   Chicken pox
Ans: C

3.   Active management of 3rd stage of labour includes the following except:
(a)   Injection oxytocin 10 IU intramuscularly (b)   Controlled cord traction
(c)   Uterine massage (d)   Injection oxytocin 10 IU intravenously
Ans: D

4. Regarding hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, the following are true except:
(a)   Significant proteinuria is more than/equal to 0.3 g/24hr
(b)   Eclampsia may present in the absence of hypertension
(c)   A protein:creatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol is considered significant
(d)   Urinary dipstick result of +1 is equivalent to urinary protein concentration of 300 mg/dl
Ans: B

5.   Which of the following is not a characteristic of Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome?
(a)   Cardiac anomalies    (b)   Mullerian duct aplasia (c)   Renal abnormalities (d)   Skeletal abnormalities
Ans: A

6. An adolescent girl with stage 1a dysgerminoma is managed by:
(a) Unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy alone   (b) Total abdominal hysterectomy with unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
(c) Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy alone (d) Chemotherapy
Ans: A

7. Which of the following conditions is best treated by a posterior colpotomy?
(a) Pelvic abscess   (b) Pyometra (c) Pyosalpinx (d) Pelvic haematocele
Ans: A

8. Which of the following suture materials has the least tissue reaction?
(a) Cotton / Linen (b) Stainless steel   (c) Chromic catgut (d) Silk
Ans: B

9. Menopause is associated with the following except:
(a) Osteoporosis (b) Ischemic heart disease (c) Loss of libido (d) Delusion
Ans: D

10.   Which one of the following conditions simulates the menstrual pattern of pain?
(a) Intramural fibroid (b) Adenomyosis (c) Haematometra   (d) Granulosa cell tumour of ovary
Ans: C

11.   Which of the undermentioned conditions does not cause postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?
(a) Benign cystic teratoma of ovary   (b) Senile vaginitis (c) Carcinoma of cervix (d) Prolapse of uterus with decubitus ulcer
Ans: A

12. Early deceleration of foetal heart rate in labour is due to:
(a) Congenital heart block (b) Umbilical cord compression (c) Foetal head compression   (d) Hyperpyrexia
Ans: C

13. McRoberts manoeuvre is used during labour for management of:
(a) Normal labour to assist extension of head (b) Extended arms of breech during assisted breech delivery
(c) Shoulder dystocia   (d) Delivery of after coming head of breech
Ans: C

14. Which one of the following is not a suitable condition for outlet forceps application?
(a) Cervix fully dilated (b) Membranes absent (c) Vertex presentation (d) Head is above ischial spine level
Ans: D

15. Polyhydramnios is not caused by which one of the following?
(a) Anencephaly (b) Spina bifida (c) Single kidney   (d) Oesophageal atresia
Ans: C

16. Which of the following is the type of antepartum haemorrhage where blood loss is foetal?
(a) Abruptio placenta (b) Placenta previa (c) Vasa previa   (d) Cirumvallate placenta
Ans: C

17. Which one of the following conditions is not associated with oligohydramnios during pregnancy?
(a) Post term pregnancy (b) Ruptured membrane (c) Intra uterine growth restriction (d) Oesophageal atresia
Ans: D

18. Which one of the following is not a contraindication for prescribing combined oral contraceptive pills?
(a) Thromboembolic disease (b) Viral hepatitis (c) Rheumatic heart disease (d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Ans: D

19. The following are used in the staging of carcinoma of the cervix except:
(a) Pelvic lymph node involvement   (b) Vaginal involvement (c) Hydroureter (d) Parametrial involvement
Ans: A

20. Presence of signet-ring cells in a cellular or myxomatous stroma is diagnostic of:
(a) Gynandroblastoma (b) Hilus cell tumour (c) Struma ovarii (d) Krukenberg tumour
Ans: D

21. A 58 year old woman, post menopausal for last 8 years comes with history of spotting per vaginum. What is the most likely cause?
(a) Endometrial hyperplasia (b) Endometrial carcinoma (c) Atrophic endometritis   (d) Estrogen replacement therapy
Ans: C

22. A diabetic obese patient comes with history of post-menopausal bleeding. On examination, there is a supra pubic mass and per vagina there is purulent discharge. The probable diagnosis is:
(a) Carcinoma cervix (b) Carcinoma endometrium   (c) Uterine myoma (d) Ovarian carcinoma
Ans: B

23. Defective fusion of the Mullerian ducts may give rise to which of the following?
(a) Uterus bicornis unicollis   (b) Imperforate anus (c) Imperforate hymen (d) Absence of the ovaries
Ans: A

24. For a woman who has had unprotected intercourse two days ago, which one of the following emergency contraceptive methods cannot be suggested?
(a) LNG IUD (LNg IUD) (b) Ulipristal acetate (c) Levonorgestrel 150 mg (d) Yuzpe regimen
Ans: A

25. Deep transverse arrest of head in labour occurs in:
(a) Android pelvis   (b) Anthropoid pelvis (c) Platypelloid pelvis (d) Gynaecoid pelvis
Ans: A

26. During immediate puerperium,
(a) the number of white cells decreases (b) the number of white cells increases
(c) the number of eosinophils increases (d) the number of lymphocytes increases
Ans: B

27. Which one of the following is the best contraceptive for a newly married couple who wants to postpone pregnancy for one year?
(a) Intrauterine contraceptive device (b) Condom with spermicidal cream    (c) Safe period method (d) Combined oral contraceptives
Ans: D

28.   Which one of the following is not a branch of internal iliac artery?
(a) Superior gluteal (b) Inferior gluteal (c) Uterine artery (d) Ovarian artery
Ans: D

29.   A 30 year old multiparous woman comes with an ultrasound report of fibroid uterus measuring 3 x 3 cm. Her only complaint is mild pain during menstruation. The best management in this would be:
(a) Hysterectomy (b) Myomectomy (c) Gn-RH analogues (d) Reassurance
Ans: D

30.   The most accurate method to diagnose adenomyosis is:
(a) MRI    (b) PET-CT (c) Transvaginal sonography (d) Hysterosalpingography
Ans: A

31.   On ultrasonography low-lying placenta is labelled when implantation in the lower uterine segment is such that:
(a) Placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains 2 cm wide perimeter around the os
(b) Placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains 3 cm wide perimeter around the os
(c) Placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains 4 cm wide perimeter around the os
(d) Internal os is covered partially or fully by the placenta
Ans: A

32. Which one of the following cardiovascular parameters decreases during pregnancy?
(a) Arterial blood pressure    (b) Cardiac output (c) Blood volume (d) Red cell mass
Ans: A

33. A multipara with 8 gm% haemoglobin at 30 weeks’ gestation should be treated by:
(a) Oral iron therapy    (b) Parenteral iron (c) Whole blood transfusion (d) Packed cell transfusion
Ans: A

34. The progress of labour can be monitored by observing the following except:
(a) The intensity of uterine contractions by abdominal examination (b) The descent of foetal head by abdominal examination
(c) The formation of caput by vaginal examination    (d) Gradual increase in cervical dilatation by vaginal examination
Ans: C

35. Prophylactic intravenous methergin should not be given in cases of:
(a) Multipara (b) Hydramnios (c) Heart disease complicating pregnancy    (d) Anaemia
Ans: C

36. During labour, which one of the foetal heart patterns is ominous?
(a) Variable deceleration (b) Tachycardia (c) Early deceleration (d) Late deceleration
Ans: D

37. A case of ante-partum haemorrhage is seen at a Primary Health Centre. The treatment will consist of:
(a) Assessment of general condition of the patient, intravenous drip and reference to a hospital
(b) Vaginal examination and reference to a hospital only if diagnosed as placenta praevia
(c) Packing the vagina to stop the bleeding and then reference to a hospital
(d) Internal podalic version and delivery
Ans: A

38. A 20 year old full term primigravida is admitted with full dilatation of the cervix and breech presentation. Breech is not engaged. Foetal heart is normal. The proper procedure for the management would be:
(a) Caesarean section    (b) Breech extraction (c) Oxytocin drip augmentation (d) To bring down the leg
Ans: A

39. Which one of the following factors is the most significant as a risk factor for post-partum psychosis?
(a) Primiparity (b) Undesired pregnancy (c) Unmarried status (d) History of post-partum psychosis
Ans: D

40. The main cause of perinatal mortality in ‘Frank breech presentation’ is:
(a) Trauma to foetal viscera (b) Foetal abnormalities   (c) Intracranial haemorrhage    (d) Prolapse of umbilical cord
Ans: C

41.   A 30 year old G2P1L0 with history of anencephaly in previous pregnancy has a nuchal fold thickness of 2.5 mm with other normal fetal parameters. She may be having:
(a) Trisomy 21 (b) Spina bifida (c)   Normal pregnancy (d) Trisomy 18
Ans: C

42.    A 26 year old primigravida presents with blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, proteinurea and congestive heart failure. Which drug is not useful in this situation?
(a) Methyl-dopa (b) Labetalol (c) Nifedipine (d) Diuretics
Ans: A

43.   A pregnant woman with 30 weeks gestation presents with BP 166/110 mmHg with pulmonary edema with convulsions. The woman is given magnesium sulphate. The following drug should be avoided:
(a) Intravenous Labetalol (b) Sublingual Nifedipine (c) Intravenous Frusemide (d) Intravenous Hydralazine
Ans: B

44. A woman undergoing treatment of infertility presents with triplet pregnancy. The most probable drug given to her for treatment of infertility would have been:
(a) Clomiphene Citrate (b) Inj HMG (c) Inj hCG (d) Inj GnRH analogue `
Ans: B

45. A woman presents with abdominal pain and nausea with amenorrhea of 5-6 weeks. Ectopic pregnancy can be diagnosed if:
a) Serum progesterone > 25 ng/ml
b) Beta hCG ˂1000 IU/L with endometrial thickness of 14mm
c) Beta hCG > 2000 IU/L with no gestational sac in the uterus on transvaginal sonography
d) Beta hCG >3000 IU/L with empty uterus on transvaginal sonography
Ans: C

46. A woman suffering from active tuberculosis not on ATT has a full term vaginal delivery. All the following should be done except:
(a) Breastfeed the neonate
(b) BCG should be given to the neonate
(c) Neonate should be given INH
(d) Neonate should be isolated from mother
Ans: A

47. A woman with post-term pregnancy with unripe cervix should not be induced with misoprostol if she has:
(a) Asthma (b) Diabetes (c) Hepatitis B antigen positive (d) Decompensated heart disease
Ans: D

48. An overweight, hirsuit woman of 30 years, with one live issue presented to the family planning clinic for advice for contraception. The best suited oral contraceptive will contain the following:
(a) Norgestrel (b) Noretisterone (c) Cyproterone acetate (d) Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Ans: C

49. Contraceptive options for a 28 year old woman who is breastfeeding a six week old baby, wanting to avoid pregnancy for a longer interval are the following except:
(a) LNG-IUD (b) IUD- 380A (c) Implanon (d) Combined oral contraceptives
Ans: D

50. A woman using combined oral contraceptive has the following non contraceptive benefits except:
(a) Protection against PID (b) Prevention of colorectal malignancy
(c) Protection against ovarian cancer (d) Protection against cervical cancer
Ans: D

51. A 40 year old lady is examined and found to have uterovaginal prolapse. What is the appropriate surgery to prevent recurrence?
(a) Abdominal hysterectomy with Moscowitz operation
(b) Vaginal hysterectomy with anterior and posterior colporrhaphy and McCall culdoplasty
(c) Vaginal hysterectomy with McCall culdoplasty
(d) Vaginal hysterectomy with sacrospinocolpopexy
Ans: C

52. Cervical mucus examination of a 22 year old infertile woman is done to look for all the following except:
(a) Cellularity of mucus (b) Presence of HPV (c) Ferning (d) Spinnbarkitt
Ans: B

53. In a 28 year old infertile woman with anovulation ,the following parameters will indicate ovulation except:
(a) Insler score (b) Vaginal smear (c) Serum estradiol levels (d) Urinary LH levels
Ans: C

54. Therapeutic options for a 30 year old woman suffering from severe pain due to endometriosis are the following except:
(a) Mirena (b) Oral contraceptives (c) Letrozole (d) Sildenafil
Ans: D

55. Waste disposal of placenta after delivery is done by
(a) Disposing it in blue bags (b) Autoclaving (c) Incineration (d) Microwaving
Ans: C

56. Features of Janani Suraksha Yojana are the following except:
(a) 100% Centrally sponsored scheme (b) ASHA is a link between woman and Government
(c) Cash assistance is given to mothers for high and low performing states (d) It promotes institutional deliveries
Ans: C

57. Ideal time to perform post partum sterilization as per Government of India guidelines is:
(a) From 12 hours to 7 days of delivery (b) From 24 hours to 7 days of delivery
(c) From 48 hours to 7 days of delivery (d) Within 7 days of delivery
Ans: B

58.    Regimen for medical abortion upto 7 weeks of gestation as per Government of India guidelines includes:
(a) 200 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 800 µg of misoprostol on D3
(b) 200 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 400 µg of misoprostol on D3
(c) 400 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 800 µg of misoprostol on D3
(d) 400 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 400 µg of misoprostol on D3
Ans: B

59.   The most common sign of rupture of previous LSCS scar during labour is:
(a) Cessation of uterine contractions
(b) Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern
(c) Tenderness in lower abdomen
(d) Haemorrhagic shock
Ans: B

60.    Serum CA-125 levels can be raised in all the following except:
(a) Epithelial ovarian cancer (b) Endometriosis (c) Tubercular ascitis (d) Mature cystic teratoma of ovary
Ans: D

61.   A 30 year old healthy woman presents with decreased bleeding during menstruation. The cause could be all of the following except:
(a) Endometriosis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Intrauterine adhesions (d) Breastfeeding
Ans: A

62. For the treatment of a woman with frothy vaginal discharge with fishy smell the following are essential except:
(a) Partner treatment
(b) Use of condom by partner
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Washing of private parts with antiseptics /disinfectants
Ans: D

63.    A 45 year old woman presents with continuous vaginal bleeding for 15 days. Her bleeding should be controlled by:
(a) Conjugated equine oestrogens (b) Synthetic progestogens
(c) Testosterone propionate   (d) Curettage followed by progestogens
Ans: D

64.   The treatment of primary spasmodic dysmenorrhoea in a young girl as a first measure would be:
(a) Presacral neurectomy (b) Analgesics and antispasmodics
(c) Oral contraceptives (d) Dilatation and curettage
Ans: B

65. A 44 year old woman presents with polymenorrhoea for one year. Clinical examination reveals bulky uterus with no other abnormality. D & C report is simple hyperplasia. What is the treatment of choice?
(a) Progestogen therapy (b) GnRH analogues
(c) Combined oral pills (d) Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Ans: A

66:-All are TRUE statements regarding female sterilisation in India EXCEPT
A) Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator
B) The consent of the spouse is not required for sterilization
C) Clients should be married with female client below the age of 49 years and above the age of 22 years
D) The couple need have minimum one child whose age is above one year unless the sterilization is medically indicated
Ans: A

67:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
A) BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
B) In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48 hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics
C) Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%
D) Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision
Ans: D

68:-All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT
A) Preoperative carbohydrate loading
B) The use of liberal antiemetics including preoperative steroids
C) Avoiding routine nasogastric tube and drains
D) Adequate pain relief with opiods
Ans: D

69:-Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.
A) To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament
B) Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women
C) The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated
D) Hasson's open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing organ injury
Ans: C

70:-Find the FALSE statement.
A) Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of pulmonary aspiration during labor
B) Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring women
C) Obvious solid foods are best avoided
D) A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections
Ans: D

71:-Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT
A) Apgar score < 5 at 5 and 10 minutes
B) Umbilical arterial pH < 7.0 and/or base deficit > 12 mmo I/L
C) Sentinel hypoxic or ischemic event occurring immediately before or during delivery
D) Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy
Ans: D

72:-Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Antepartum hemorrhage
C) Any contraindication to labour
D) Multiple gestation
Ans: A

73:-Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?
A) Scanzoni maneuver
B) Pajot's maneuver
C) Prague maneuver
D) Kristellar maneuver
Ans: C

74:-Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?
A) Brow presentation
B) Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder
C) Previous fetal scalp sampling
D) Less than 34 weeks of gestation
Ans: C

75:-All the following are TRUE EXCEPT
A) Third-and fourth-degree lacerations at delivery are associated with an increased risk of fecal incontinence (OR 2-3)
B) Patients with occult anal sphincter tears are 8 times more likely to have fecal incontinence
C) There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence
D) Both forceps and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery significantly increase this risk, with vacuum being less traumatic than forceps
Ans: C

76:-Using WHO classification for Semen Analysis interpretation, choose the FALSE statement is
A) The normal lower limit for normal morphology is 4%
B) The normal lower limit for sperm motility is 32%
C) Viability should be at least 58%
D) The normal lower limit for sperm concentration is 39 million/mL
Ans: D

77:-Contraindications to using Gonadotropins for ovulation induction in infertile women include all EXCEPT
A) Uncontrolled thyroid and adrenal dysfunction
B) Hypogonadotropichypogonadism due to space occupying lesions
C) Sex hormone-dependent tumors of the reproductive tract and accecssory organs
D) Kallmann syndrome
Ans: D

78:-All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT
A) HCG trigger
B) GnRH antagonists
C) Invitro oocyte maturation
D) Cabergoline
Ans: A

79:-All statements about heterotopic pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A) 1 in 30000 in spontaneous conceptions, as high as 1% with IVF treatment
B) Only 26% of heterotopic cases can be diagnosed with transvaginal US
C) Most often diagnosed in the first 5 to 8 weeks of gestation
D) After treatment of a heterotopic gestation, the overall delivery rate for the intrauterine pregnancy is only 10-20%
Ans: D

80:-All the following are independent prognostic variables in endometrial cancer EXCEPT
A) Myometrial invasion
B) Peritoneal cytology
C) Tumor size
D) Lymph node metastasis
Ans: B

81:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding endometrial cancer.
A) Inactivation of the PTEN tumor-suppressor gene is the most common genetic defect in type I cancers
B) Type I cancers arise from its precursor Endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma (EIC)
C) Type II cancers frequently demonstrate alterations in HER2/neu,p53,p16,E-cadherin and loss of LOH
D) Type II endometrial cancer appears to be unrelated to high estrogen levels and often develops in nonobese women
Ans: B

82:-All are TRUE regarding Leiomyosarcoma EXCEPT
A) This malignancy has no relationship with parity
B) A history of prior pelvic radiation can be elicited in about 50% of women with uterine LMS
C) Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for uterine LMS
D) Retroperitoneal lymphatic spread is rare in women with early-stage disease and lymphadenectomy is not associated with a survival advantage
Ans: B

83:-All the following are TRUE about TTTS EXCEPT
A) Although growth discordance or growth restriction may be found with TTTS, these per se are not considered diagnostic criteria
B) TTTS is diagnosed in a monochorionicdiamnionic pregnancy when there is oligamnios SVP<2 cm in one sac and polyhydramnios SVP>8 in the other sac
C) Sonography surveillance of pregnancies at risk for TTTS should begin at 16 weeks and continue every 2 weeks
D) The discrepancies in amnionic fluid volumes of TTTS are also typically seen in Twin Anaemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS)
Ans: D

84:-Find the FALSE statement regarding 2018 FIGO staging of cancer cervix.
A) Tumour of size ≥ 2 cm and < 4 cm confined to the cervix is stage IB2
B) Imaging and pathology can be used, where available, to supplement clinical findings with respect to tumor size and extent, in all stages
C) The involvement of lymph nodes are not part of staging
D) The lateral extent of the lesion is no longer considered
Ans: C

85:-The boundaries of paravesical space include all EXCEPT
A) The obliterated umbilical artery running along the bladder medially
B) The obturator internus muscle along the pelvic sidewall laterally
C) The uterosacral ligament posteriorly
D) The pubic symphysis anteriorly
Ans: C

86:-All are TRUE regarding serous borderline ovarian tumours EXCEPT
A) 10% of all ovarian serous tumors are of borderline type and 50% occur before the age of 40 years
B) Up to 40% of serous borderline tumors are associated with spread beyond the ovary
C) Up to 10% of women with ovarian serous borderline tumors and extraovarian implants may have invasive implants
D) Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas
Ans: D

87:-In Kyoto (Querlou and Morrow) classification, Nerve sparing Radical Hysterectomy is
A) Type B
B) Type C1
C) Type C2
D) Type D2
Ans: B

88:-All are TRUE about Germ cell tumours EXCEPT
A) In patients with stage IA dysgerminoma, unilateral oophorectomy alone results in a 5-year disease-free survival rate of greater than 95%
B) Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP adjuvant therapy after surgery
C) All patients with Endodermal Stromal Tumours (EST) should be treated with chemotherapy shortly after recovering from surgery ovarian dysfunction of failure
D) Transient ovarian failure is common with platinum-based chemotherapy for germ cell tumours and majority will have successful childbearing in the future
Ans: B

89:-All the following statements regarding Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary are TRUE EXCEPT
A) Endometrial cancer occurs in association with granulosa cell tumors in at least 5% of cases
B) 25-50% of Granulosa cell tumours are associated with endometrial hyperplasia
C) Granulosa cell tumors may also produce androgens and cause virilization
D) Juvenile granulosa cell tumors of the ovary are rare and behaves more aggressively than the adult type
Ans: D

90:-All the following statements about intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPTA) bile acids are cleared incompletely and accumulate in plasma but the cause is unclear
B) pruritus shows predilection for the soles and may precede laboratory findings by several weeks
C) total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients
D) ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus and improves fetal outcome better than steroids and cholestyramine
Ans: C

91:-All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A) Sickle-cell trait does not appear to be associated with increased perinatal mortality, low birthweight or pregnancy-induced hypertension
B) In Sickle cell disease there is no categorical contraindication to vaginal delivery, and caesarean delivery is reserved for obstetrical indications
C) Routine prophylactic blood transfusions during labour is recommended to reduce painful crises in Sickle cell anaemia
D) Antenatal folic acid supplementation with 4 mg daily throughout pregnancy is needed to support rapid red blood cell turnover
Ans: C

92:-All the statements about thrombocytopenia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A) A platelet count of < 80,000/L should trigger an evaluation for etiologies other than gestational thrombocytopenia
B) Hypertensive disorders account for 21% of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy
C) In ITP complicating pregnancy, therapy with steroids is considered if the platelet count is below 30,000 to 50,000/L
D) Maternal platelet counts have strong correlation with fetal platelet counts and caesarean delivery is recommended if platelet count is < 50,000 on fetal blood sampling
Ans: D

93:-All the following statements regarding diabetes in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A) Periconceptional HbA1C should be kept under 6.5% in pregestational diabetic women
B) MSAFP levels may be lower in diabetic pregnancies and the incidence of congenital cardiac anomalies is five fold in mothers with diabetes
C) Ultra short acting insulin analogues starts acting in 30 minutes, peaks in 2 hrs minutes and is good for preprandial glycemic control in pregnancy
D) Insulin therapy is typically added if fasting levels persistently exceed 95 mg/dL after medical nutrition therapy
Ans: C

94:-All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A) Women with TPO antibodies are at increased risk for progression of thyroid disease and postpartum thyroiditis
B) It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after radioablative therapy with iodine 131
C) Pregnancy is associated with an increased thyroxine requirement in approximately a third of supplemented women
D) Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in pregnancy because it partially inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 and crosses the placenta less readily than methimazole
Ans: B

95:-All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A) Fetal cell micro chimerism leads to the predilection for autoimmune disorders like SLE among women
B) In the presence of anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies, the incidence of fetal myocarditis and heart block is as high as 20%
C) During pregnancy, lupus improves in a third of women, remains unchanged in a third and worsens in the remaining third
D) Hydroxychloroquine is not associated with congenital malformations and can be continued in pregnancy
Ans: B

96:-All are TRUE about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome EXCEPT
A) Asherson syndrome is a rapidly progressive thromboembolic disorder due to a cytokine storm seen in antiphospolipid antibody syndrome
B) Approximately 60 percent of patients with APS have a positive lupus anticoagulant LAC assay alone
C) Heparin binds to beta 2 glycoprotein I and prevents binding of anticardiolipin andanti-beta 2 glycoprotein I antibodies to the syncytiotrophoblasts
D) Treatment using aspirin, anticoagulation and close monitoring has increased live birth rates to more than 70 percent in women with APS
Ans: B

97:-All are TRUE about management of obstetric haemorrhage EXCEPT
A) The most important mechanism of action with internal iliac artery ligation is an 85-percent reduction in pulse pressure in those arteries distal to the ligation
B) ROTEM or TEG cannot diagnose coagulopathies stemming from platelet dysfunction or anti platelet drugs
C) Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by approximately 5000/L
D) Dilutional coagulopathy that is clinically indistinguishable from DIC is the most frequent coagulation defect found with blood loss and multiple transfusions
Ans: C

98:-All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) EXCEPT
A) loss of the normal hypoechoicretroplacentalzone between the placenta and uterus
B) placental vascular lacunae or lakesC) distance between the uterine serosa-bladder wall interface and the retroplacental vessels measures < 10 mm
D) placental bulging into the posterior bladder wall
Ans: C

99:-USS has a sensitivity of ____________ in suspected abruptio placenta.
A) 24%
B) 54%
C) 81%
D) 93%
Ans: A

100:-All are TRUE about COVID-19 in pregnancy EXCEPT
A) It is associated with an almost three times greater risk of preterm birth (17%)
B) Majority of pregnant women (74%) may be asymptomatic
C) ICU admissions are not more common in pregnant women compared to nonpregnant women of the same age
D) Risk factors associated with hospital admissions include older age, obesity, diabetes and hypertension
Ans: C

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY​- PAGE 2

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY MCQs

UPSC Study Materials​MCQs for Competitive Examinations

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY- PAGE 2

UPSC Study Materials
MCQs for Competitive Examinations