GENERAL SURGERY- PAGE 2
GENERAL SURGERY MCQs-PAGE 2
1. Ezetimibe is used to treat :
(A) Epilepsy (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Diabetes insipidus (D) Hyperlipidemia
Ans: D
2. All are true about Quinupristin-Dalfopristin except :
(A) it is administered intravenously
(B) they are combined in 70/30 ratio
(C) dose adjustment not needed in renal failure
(D) can cause myalgia-arthralgia syndrome
Ans: B
3. The Ottawa Charter is concerned with :
(A) Health Promotion (B) Specific Protection
(C) Early Diagnosis and Treatment (D) Rehabilitation
Ans: A
4. Which of the criteria for judging causality is shown by Relative Risk ?
(A) Temporal association (B) Coherence of Association
(C) Strength of Association (D) Specificity of Association
Ans: C
5. Which is the drug recommended for treatment of Plasmodium Falciparum Malaria in the first trimester of Pregnancy ?
(A) ACT (B) Primaquine (C) Lumefantrine (D) Quinine
Ans: D
6. All of the following are more in breast milk during the first month of lactation than cow’s milk except :
(A) Casein (B) Linoleic acid (C) Lactose (D) Vitamin C
Ans: A
7. Colour vision is tested using all the following methods except :
(A) Pelli Robson charts (B) Hardy Rand Rittler charts
(C) Anomaloscope (D) FM 100 test
Ans: A
8. Magician’s forceps phenomenon is seen in :
(A) Accommodative esotropia (B) Intermittent exotropia
(C) Duane’s retraction syndrome (D) Double elevator palsy
Ans: B
9. Tear drop sign in CT Scan Orbit is suggestive of :
(A) Blow in fracture (B) Le Fort fracture
(C) Fracture roof of orbit (D) Blow out fracture
Ans: D
10. ‘Scrambled egg’ appearance in the fundus is typical of :
(A) Age related macular degeneration
(B) Cone dystrophy
(C) Best’s disease
(D) Diabetic maculopathy
Ans: C
11. Thornwaldt’s cyst arises from persistence of :
(A) Rathke’s pouch (B) Pharyngeal pouch (C) Anterior pouch of von Troeltsch (D) Luschka’s pouch
Ans: D
12. The non-syndromic hearing loss of DFNB1 is a type of :
(A) Autosomal dominant hearing loss (B) Autosomal recessive hearing loss
(C) Mitochondrial disorder with hearing loss (D) X linked hereditary hearing loss
Ans: B
13. The Schaefer classification is used in :
(A) Laryngeal trauma (B) Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (D) Subglottic stenosis
Ans: A
14. Large Vestibular aqueduct is most commonly associated with :
(A) Alport’s syndrome (B) Jervell and Lange Nielson Syndrome (C) Pendred syndrome (D) Usher syndrome
Ans: C
15. OVLT is an organ concerned with the regulation of :
(A) Respiration (B) Blood Pressure (C) Temperature (D) Hunger
Ans: C
16. Definition of AIDS is CD4 cell count less than :
(A) 800 (B) 600 (C) 400 (D) 200
Ans: D
17. Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly associated with :
(A) Ischemic heart Disease (B) Respiratory Disease (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyperkalemia
Ans: B
18. The disease which produce macrocytic anaemia is :
(A) Multiple Myeloma (B) Acromegaly (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ans: C
19. Nihilistic delusion is associated with :
(A) Cotard’s syndrome (B) Ekbom syndrome (C) Capgras syndrome (D) De Clerambault syndrome
Ans: A
20. A 16 year old boy, on seeing sharp objects gets repeated urge to pick it up and stab others. He does not wish to carry it out and does not act on it. He has significant distress and tries to resist the urge. Most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Conduct disorder (B) Hypomania
(C) Obsessive compulsive disorder (D) Impulse control disorder
Ans: C
(A) Epilepsy (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Diabetes insipidus (D) Hyperlipidemia
Ans: D
2. All are true about Quinupristin-Dalfopristin except :
(A) it is administered intravenously
(B) they are combined in 70/30 ratio
(C) dose adjustment not needed in renal failure
(D) can cause myalgia-arthralgia syndrome
Ans: B
3. The Ottawa Charter is concerned with :
(A) Health Promotion (B) Specific Protection
(C) Early Diagnosis and Treatment (D) Rehabilitation
Ans: A
4. Which of the criteria for judging causality is shown by Relative Risk ?
(A) Temporal association (B) Coherence of Association
(C) Strength of Association (D) Specificity of Association
Ans: C
5. Which is the drug recommended for treatment of Plasmodium Falciparum Malaria in the first trimester of Pregnancy ?
(A) ACT (B) Primaquine (C) Lumefantrine (D) Quinine
Ans: D
6. All of the following are more in breast milk during the first month of lactation than cow’s milk except :
(A) Casein (B) Linoleic acid (C) Lactose (D) Vitamin C
Ans: A
7. Colour vision is tested using all the following methods except :
(A) Pelli Robson charts (B) Hardy Rand Rittler charts
(C) Anomaloscope (D) FM 100 test
Ans: A
8. Magician’s forceps phenomenon is seen in :
(A) Accommodative esotropia (B) Intermittent exotropia
(C) Duane’s retraction syndrome (D) Double elevator palsy
Ans: B
9. Tear drop sign in CT Scan Orbit is suggestive of :
(A) Blow in fracture (B) Le Fort fracture
(C) Fracture roof of orbit (D) Blow out fracture
Ans: D
10. ‘Scrambled egg’ appearance in the fundus is typical of :
(A) Age related macular degeneration
(B) Cone dystrophy
(C) Best’s disease
(D) Diabetic maculopathy
Ans: C
11. Thornwaldt’s cyst arises from persistence of :
(A) Rathke’s pouch (B) Pharyngeal pouch (C) Anterior pouch of von Troeltsch (D) Luschka’s pouch
Ans: D
12. The non-syndromic hearing loss of DFNB1 is a type of :
(A) Autosomal dominant hearing loss (B) Autosomal recessive hearing loss
(C) Mitochondrial disorder with hearing loss (D) X linked hereditary hearing loss
Ans: B
13. The Schaefer classification is used in :
(A) Laryngeal trauma (B) Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (D) Subglottic stenosis
Ans: A
14. Large Vestibular aqueduct is most commonly associated with :
(A) Alport’s syndrome (B) Jervell and Lange Nielson Syndrome (C) Pendred syndrome (D) Usher syndrome
Ans: C
15. OVLT is an organ concerned with the regulation of :
(A) Respiration (B) Blood Pressure (C) Temperature (D) Hunger
Ans: C
16. Definition of AIDS is CD4 cell count less than :
(A) 800 (B) 600 (C) 400 (D) 200
Ans: D
17. Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly associated with :
(A) Ischemic heart Disease (B) Respiratory Disease (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyperkalemia
Ans: B
18. The disease which produce macrocytic anaemia is :
(A) Multiple Myeloma (B) Acromegaly (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ans: C
19. Nihilistic delusion is associated with :
(A) Cotard’s syndrome (B) Ekbom syndrome (C) Capgras syndrome (D) De Clerambault syndrome
Ans: A
20. A 16 year old boy, on seeing sharp objects gets repeated urge to pick it up and stab others. He does not wish to carry it out and does not act on it. He has significant distress and tries to resist the urge. Most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Conduct disorder (B) Hypomania
(C) Obsessive compulsive disorder (D) Impulse control disorder
Ans: C
21. Hassall’s corpuscles are present in :
(A) Spleen (B) Thymus (C) Tonsil (D) Lymph node
Ans: B
22. Which of the following is not supplied by oculomotor nerve ?
(A) Levator palpebrae superioris (B) Superior rectus (C) Inferior oblique (D) Lateral rectus
Ans: D
23. Internal spermatic fascia is derived from :
(A) External oblique aponeurosis (B) Internal oblique muscle (C) Transversus abdominis muscle (D) Transversalis fascia
Ans: D
24. Which of the following arteries does not supply internal capsule ?
(A) Anterior cerebral (B) Middle cerebral (C) Anterior choroidal (D) Posterior choroidal
Ans: D
25. Net energy yield from complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose when malate-aspartate shuttle is operating :
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 34
Ans: C
26. All the following enzyme catalyzed reactions are examples of biotin independent carboxylations except :
(A) Malic enzyme (B) Propionyl CoA carboxylase (C) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I (D) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
Ans: A
27. Rate limiting enzyme in fatty acid synthesis :
(A) Pyruvate carboxylase (B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase (C) Carnitine acyl transferase I (D) Fatty acid synthase complex
Ans: B
28. All the following are components of Garrod’s tetrad except :
(A) Albinism (B) Alkaptonuria (C) Phenyl ketonuria (D) Essential pentosuria
Ans: C
29. In Hemophilia which of the factor is deficient ?
(A) Factor V111 (B) Factor V11 (C) Factor V1 (D) Factor X
Ans: A
30. P wave in ECG is produced by :
(A) Ventricular depolarization (B) Atrial depolarization (C) Ventricular repolarization (D) Atrial repolarization
Ans: B
31. ADH facilitates water reabsorption in which part of renal tubule ?
(A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (C) Descending limb of loop of Henle (D) Collecting duct
Ans: D
32. Pancreatic secretion contains :
(A) Enteropeptidase (B) Pepsin (C) Trypsin (D) Motilin
Ans: C
33. ‘La Bandera’ is the method of torture by suspending a person :
(A) by head down (B) by wrists (C) by arms (D) by ankles
Ans: B
34. The special samples to be taken for chemical analysis during an exhumation process is :
(A) clothes (B) earth (C) viscera (D) soft tissues
Ans: B
35. As per the ‘Wallace Rule’ the head and neck covers about :
(A) 7% of body surface (B) 8% of body surface (C) 9% of body surface (D) 10% of body surface
Ans: C
36. Optic nerve toxicity is classically seen in poisoning with :
(A) barbiturates (B) cocaine (C) methyl alcohol (D) zinc phosphide
Ans: C
37. Which of the following viruses have a dsRNA as their nucleic acid ?
(A) Rhabdoviruses (B) Paramyxoviruses (C) Retroviruses (D) Reoviruses
Ans: D
38. All of the following are acute phase reactants except :
(A) Serum amyloid A (B) TNF-α (C) CRP (D) Haptoglobin
Ans: B
39. Which of the following is the gold standard for HIV diagnosis ?
(A) Western blot (B) ELISA (C) p24 antigen detection (D) Viral RNA detection
Ans: D
40. Which of the following are used for the disinfection of contact lens ?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Ethanol (C) Isopropyl alcohol (D) Chlorhexidine
Ans: A
41. Which is NOT a feature of Atypical Meningioma ?
(A) 4/ more mitosis per HPF (B) Hyper cellularity (C) Sheet like growth of cells and necrosis (D) Macronucleoli
Ans: A
42. The IHC marker useful in diagnosis of Endometrial Stromal Sarcoma.
(A) CD 10 (B) CD 20 (C) EMA (D) SMA
Ans: A
43. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by all of the following except :
(A) Synovial hyperplasia with prominent lympho plasmacytic infiltration
(B) Pannus formation
(C) Fibrin deposition
(D) Intra articular loose body (rice body) formation
Ans: D
44. Which of the following is a feature of Pilocytic Astrocytoma ?
(A) Monotonous population of small uniform tumor cells
(B) Endothelial proliferation
(C) Rosette formation
(D) Rosenthal fibres and eosinophilic granular bodies
Ans: D
45. Antidepressant among the following is :
(A) Levomilnacipran (B) Lacosamide
(C) Lorcaserin (D) Lomitapide
Ans: A
46. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia is treated with :
(A) Abciximab (B) Atosiban (C) Argatroban (D) Aprepitant
Ans: C
47. In a sutured surgical wound, the process of epithelialization is completed within:
(a) 24 hours (b) 48 hours (c) 72 hours (d) 96 hours
Ans: C
48. Extensive surgical debridement, decompression or amputation may be indicated in all the following clinical settings except:
(a) Progressive synergistic gangrene (b) Acute thrombophlebitis
(c) Acute haemolytic streptococcal cellulitis (d) Acute rhabdomyolysis
Ans: B
49. Which one of the following bacteria is classified as facultative anaerobe?
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Bacteroides (c) Escherichia (d) Clostridium
Ans: C
50. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding sebaceous cyst?
(a) It has a punctum (b) Treatment is incision and drainage
(c) Found on hairy areas of the body (d) Not found on palms and soles
Ans: B
(A) Spleen (B) Thymus (C) Tonsil (D) Lymph node
Ans: B
22. Which of the following is not supplied by oculomotor nerve ?
(A) Levator palpebrae superioris (B) Superior rectus (C) Inferior oblique (D) Lateral rectus
Ans: D
23. Internal spermatic fascia is derived from :
(A) External oblique aponeurosis (B) Internal oblique muscle (C) Transversus abdominis muscle (D) Transversalis fascia
Ans: D
24. Which of the following arteries does not supply internal capsule ?
(A) Anterior cerebral (B) Middle cerebral (C) Anterior choroidal (D) Posterior choroidal
Ans: D
25. Net energy yield from complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose when malate-aspartate shuttle is operating :
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 34
Ans: C
26. All the following enzyme catalyzed reactions are examples of biotin independent carboxylations except :
(A) Malic enzyme (B) Propionyl CoA carboxylase (C) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I (D) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
Ans: A
27. Rate limiting enzyme in fatty acid synthesis :
(A) Pyruvate carboxylase (B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase (C) Carnitine acyl transferase I (D) Fatty acid synthase complex
Ans: B
28. All the following are components of Garrod’s tetrad except :
(A) Albinism (B) Alkaptonuria (C) Phenyl ketonuria (D) Essential pentosuria
Ans: C
29. In Hemophilia which of the factor is deficient ?
(A) Factor V111 (B) Factor V11 (C) Factor V1 (D) Factor X
Ans: A
30. P wave in ECG is produced by :
(A) Ventricular depolarization (B) Atrial depolarization (C) Ventricular repolarization (D) Atrial repolarization
Ans: B
31. ADH facilitates water reabsorption in which part of renal tubule ?
(A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (C) Descending limb of loop of Henle (D) Collecting duct
Ans: D
32. Pancreatic secretion contains :
(A) Enteropeptidase (B) Pepsin (C) Trypsin (D) Motilin
Ans: C
33. ‘La Bandera’ is the method of torture by suspending a person :
(A) by head down (B) by wrists (C) by arms (D) by ankles
Ans: B
34. The special samples to be taken for chemical analysis during an exhumation process is :
(A) clothes (B) earth (C) viscera (D) soft tissues
Ans: B
35. As per the ‘Wallace Rule’ the head and neck covers about :
(A) 7% of body surface (B) 8% of body surface (C) 9% of body surface (D) 10% of body surface
Ans: C
36. Optic nerve toxicity is classically seen in poisoning with :
(A) barbiturates (B) cocaine (C) methyl alcohol (D) zinc phosphide
Ans: C
37. Which of the following viruses have a dsRNA as their nucleic acid ?
(A) Rhabdoviruses (B) Paramyxoviruses (C) Retroviruses (D) Reoviruses
Ans: D
38. All of the following are acute phase reactants except :
(A) Serum amyloid A (B) TNF-α (C) CRP (D) Haptoglobin
Ans: B
39. Which of the following is the gold standard for HIV diagnosis ?
(A) Western blot (B) ELISA (C) p24 antigen detection (D) Viral RNA detection
Ans: D
40. Which of the following are used for the disinfection of contact lens ?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Ethanol (C) Isopropyl alcohol (D) Chlorhexidine
Ans: A
41. Which is NOT a feature of Atypical Meningioma ?
(A) 4/ more mitosis per HPF (B) Hyper cellularity (C) Sheet like growth of cells and necrosis (D) Macronucleoli
Ans: A
42. The IHC marker useful in diagnosis of Endometrial Stromal Sarcoma.
(A) CD 10 (B) CD 20 (C) EMA (D) SMA
Ans: A
43. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by all of the following except :
(A) Synovial hyperplasia with prominent lympho plasmacytic infiltration
(B) Pannus formation
(C) Fibrin deposition
(D) Intra articular loose body (rice body) formation
Ans: D
44. Which of the following is a feature of Pilocytic Astrocytoma ?
(A) Monotonous population of small uniform tumor cells
(B) Endothelial proliferation
(C) Rosette formation
(D) Rosenthal fibres and eosinophilic granular bodies
Ans: D
45. Antidepressant among the following is :
(A) Levomilnacipran (B) Lacosamide
(C) Lorcaserin (D) Lomitapide
Ans: A
46. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia is treated with :
(A) Abciximab (B) Atosiban (C) Argatroban (D) Aprepitant
Ans: C
47. In a sutured surgical wound, the process of epithelialization is completed within:
(a) 24 hours (b) 48 hours (c) 72 hours (d) 96 hours
Ans: C
48. Extensive surgical debridement, decompression or amputation may be indicated in all the following clinical settings except:
(a) Progressive synergistic gangrene (b) Acute thrombophlebitis
(c) Acute haemolytic streptococcal cellulitis (d) Acute rhabdomyolysis
Ans: B
49. Which one of the following bacteria is classified as facultative anaerobe?
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Bacteroides (c) Escherichia (d) Clostridium
Ans: C
50. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding sebaceous cyst?
(a) It has a punctum (b) Treatment is incision and drainage
(c) Found on hairy areas of the body (d) Not found on palms and soles
Ans: B
51. What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in neonates?
(a) Meconium ileus (b) Duodenal atresia (c) Volvulus neonatorium (d) Hirschsprung’s disease
Ans: B
52. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (drug) List-II (complications)
A. Cisplatinum 1. Haemorrhagic cystitis
B. Adriamycin 2. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Bleomycin 3. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cyclophosphamide 4. Tubular necrosis
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: D
53. Consider the following statements:
Haemophilia A (haemophilia) and Haemophilia B (christmas disease)
1. are variants of the same disease process
2. are due to congenital deficiency of factor VIII and factor IX respectively
3. both are sex linked characteristics and transmitted by asymptomatic females
4. can occur both in males and females
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Ans: A
54. A 30 year old lady sustained chest injury in an accident and presented with massive haemothorax on right side. Tube thoracostomy drained 1800 ml of blood. What is the most appropriate treatment?
(a) Correction of hypovolemic shock (b) Put one more chest tube
(c) Clamp the chest tube to cause the tamponade (d) Resuscitation and prepare for urgent thoracotomy
Ans: D
55. In a case of obstructed hernia, strangulation is suggested by which of the following?
1. Presence of shock
2. Pain is never completely absent
3. Localised tenderness is associated with rebound tenderness
4. Pain persists despite conservative management
5. An external hernia becomes tense, tender, irreducible, with recent increase in size
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: D
56. Regarding haemorrhagic shock, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Clinically manifested when > 10% of loss of total blood volume occurs
(b) Tachycardia presents in 100% of hypovolemic patients
(c) Loss of 40% of circulating volume is life threatening
(d) In acute stage of shock, systemic vasodilation becomes evident
Ans: C
57. Consider the following statements:
Poor prognostic indicators in advanced germ cell tumours show
1. primary sites in mediastinum
2. non-pulmonary metastasis
3. lactate dehydrogenase more than 10 times of normal value
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: A
58. Which one of the following structures is not removed during a classical radical neck dissection?
(a) Trapezius (b) Sternocleidomastoid (c) Internal jugular vein (d) Accessory nerve
Ans: A
59. Mousseau-Barbin Tube (M.B.Tube) is used for:
(a) Advance cancer stomach (b) Advance cancer oesophagus
(c) Advance cancer oropharynx (d) All of these
Ans: B
60. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with haematemesis?
(a) Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (b) Barium meal for stomach and duodenum
(c) Contrast enhanced CT scan (d) Selective left gastric angiography
Ans: A
61. Tumours of anterior mediasternum include the following except:
(a) Thymoma (b) Lymphoma (c) Germ cell tumour (d) Schwannoma
Ans: D
62. In India, the commonest cause of unilateral lymphoedema of lower limb is:
(a) Lymphoedema tarda (b) Carcinoma of penis
(c) Filariasis (d) Tubercular lymphadenopathy
Ans: C
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (carcinoma) List-II (characteristic)
A. Seminoma testis 1. Hormone dependent
B. Carcinoma prostrate 2. Does not spread by lymphatics
C. Basal cell carcinoma 3. Prognosis depends on thickness
D. Malignant melanoma 4. Highly radiosensitive
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: A
64. Nottingham prognostic Index is used for:
(a) Cancer stomach (b) Cancer colon (c) Cancer lung (d) Cancer breast
Ans: D
65. A patient has recurrent abdominal pain and jaundice. The blood investigations reveal reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the clinical diagnosis?
(a) Hereditary spherocytosis (b) Mirizzi’s syndrome
(c) Choledochal cyst (d) Sclerosing cholangitis
Ans: A
66. In gallstone ileus, obstruction most frequently occurs at:
(a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum (c) Proximal ileum (d) Terminal ileum
Ans: D
67. The following conditions are associated with high incidence of pigment gallstones except:
(a) Cirrhosis (b) Ileal disease (c) Thalassemia (d) Prosthetic heart valve
Ans: B
68. The most common route of spread in a case of pyogenic liver abscess is:
(a) Haematogenous through portal vein (b) Ascending infection through biliary duct (c) Hepatic artery (d) Local spread
Ans: B
69. The most common complication of pancreas divisum is:
(a) Obstructive jaundice (b) Duodenal obstruction (c) Recurrent acute pancreatitis (d) Peptic ulcer
Ans: C
70. The commonest major surgical complication following whipple procedure is:
(a) Disruption of pancreatic anastomosis (b) Biliary peritonitis (c) Disruption of gastric anastomosis (d) GI bleeding
Ans: A
71. A 60 year old male presents with bleeding p/r. Proctoscopy reveals 2nd degree haemorrhoids. The treatment of choice is:
(a) Cryotherapy (b) Sclerotherapy (c) Banding (d) Surgery
Ans: C
72. At present, treatment is recommended for H. pylori in association with the following except:
(a) Duodenal ulcer (b) Early gastric cancer (c) MALT-lymphoma (d) Benign gastric ulcer
Ans: B
73. Pott’s puffy tumour is a:
(a) Tuberculosis of the skull bone (b) Squamous cell cancer of scalp
(c) Subperiosteal abscess associated with osteomyelitis of frontal bone (d) Fungating scrotal malignancy
Ans: C
74. With reference to frozen shoulder, consider the following statements:
1. It is associated with diabetes and heart disease. 2. It may follow minor trauma.
3. Its differential diagnosis are infection and fractures. 4. Treatment of choice is surgery.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
75. The prognosis in reduced or unreduced fractures involving epiphyseal plate is very poor if the fracture line:
(a) Runs along the epiphyseal plate (b) Extends into epiphysis (c) Crushes the epiphyseal plate (d) Crosses the epiphyseal plate
Ans: C
76. A 30 year old man met with an accident and presented with multiple fractures of ribs and paradoxical movement with severe respiratory distress. X-ray shows pulmonary contusion on right side without pneumothorax or haemothorax. Which one of the following is the initial choice of treatment?
(a) Immediate internal fixation
(b) Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
(c) Thoracic epidural analgesia and O2 therapy
(d) Stabilization with towel clips
Ans: B
77. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of tetanus?
(a) Risus sardonicus (b) Opisthotonus (c) Loss of consciousness (d) Respiratory failure
Ans: C
78. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score ranges between:
(a) 0 and 15 (b) 1 and 15 (c) 2 and 15 (d) 3 and 15
Ans: D
79. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction is:
(a) Obstructed hernia (b) Inflammatory abdominal conditions (c) Gastrointestinal malignancy (d) Bands and adhesions
Ans: D
80. The most common site for nosocomial (hospital acquired) infection is:
(a) Respiratory tract (b) Urinary tract (c) Surgical site (d) Blood stream
Ans: B
81. A patient has carcinoid tumour of appendix of size more than 2.5 cm. The management of choice is:
(a) Appendecectomy
(b) Appendecectomy and 24 hour urinary HIAA
(c) Appendecectomy and abdominal CT scan
(d) Right hemicolectomy
Ans: D
82. Hyperchloremic acidosis is a common complication of:
(a) Ureterosigmoidostomy (b) Diarrhoea (c) Vomiting (d) Ileostomy
Ans: A
83. Endoluminal probe for transrectal ultrasonography operates at the frequency of:
(a) 2.5 MHz (b) 5.0 MHz (c) 7.5 MHz (d) 15.0 MHz
Ans: C
84. A Seldinger needle is used for:
(a) Liver biopsy (b) Breast biopsy (c) Lymphangiography (d) Arteriography
Ans: D
85. The ideal temperature to store the whole blood in blood-bank is
(a) -40C (b) 00C (c) 40C (d) 80C
Ans: C
86. Bisgaard treatment refers to that of:
(a) Ruptured tendo achillis (b) Venous ulcer (c) An ischaemic ulcer (d) An in-growing toe nail
Ans: B
(a) Meconium ileus (b) Duodenal atresia (c) Volvulus neonatorium (d) Hirschsprung’s disease
Ans: B
52. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (drug) List-II (complications)
A. Cisplatinum 1. Haemorrhagic cystitis
B. Adriamycin 2. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Bleomycin 3. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cyclophosphamide 4. Tubular necrosis
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: D
53. Consider the following statements:
Haemophilia A (haemophilia) and Haemophilia B (christmas disease)
1. are variants of the same disease process
2. are due to congenital deficiency of factor VIII and factor IX respectively
3. both are sex linked characteristics and transmitted by asymptomatic females
4. can occur both in males and females
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Ans: A
54. A 30 year old lady sustained chest injury in an accident and presented with massive haemothorax on right side. Tube thoracostomy drained 1800 ml of blood. What is the most appropriate treatment?
(a) Correction of hypovolemic shock (b) Put one more chest tube
(c) Clamp the chest tube to cause the tamponade (d) Resuscitation and prepare for urgent thoracotomy
Ans: D
55. In a case of obstructed hernia, strangulation is suggested by which of the following?
1. Presence of shock
2. Pain is never completely absent
3. Localised tenderness is associated with rebound tenderness
4. Pain persists despite conservative management
5. An external hernia becomes tense, tender, irreducible, with recent increase in size
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: D
56. Regarding haemorrhagic shock, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Clinically manifested when > 10% of loss of total blood volume occurs
(b) Tachycardia presents in 100% of hypovolemic patients
(c) Loss of 40% of circulating volume is life threatening
(d) In acute stage of shock, systemic vasodilation becomes evident
Ans: C
57. Consider the following statements:
Poor prognostic indicators in advanced germ cell tumours show
1. primary sites in mediastinum
2. non-pulmonary metastasis
3. lactate dehydrogenase more than 10 times of normal value
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: A
58. Which one of the following structures is not removed during a classical radical neck dissection?
(a) Trapezius (b) Sternocleidomastoid (c) Internal jugular vein (d) Accessory nerve
Ans: A
59. Mousseau-Barbin Tube (M.B.Tube) is used for:
(a) Advance cancer stomach (b) Advance cancer oesophagus
(c) Advance cancer oropharynx (d) All of these
Ans: B
60. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with haematemesis?
(a) Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (b) Barium meal for stomach and duodenum
(c) Contrast enhanced CT scan (d) Selective left gastric angiography
Ans: A
61. Tumours of anterior mediasternum include the following except:
(a) Thymoma (b) Lymphoma (c) Germ cell tumour (d) Schwannoma
Ans: D
62. In India, the commonest cause of unilateral lymphoedema of lower limb is:
(a) Lymphoedema tarda (b) Carcinoma of penis
(c) Filariasis (d) Tubercular lymphadenopathy
Ans: C
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (carcinoma) List-II (characteristic)
A. Seminoma testis 1. Hormone dependent
B. Carcinoma prostrate 2. Does not spread by lymphatics
C. Basal cell carcinoma 3. Prognosis depends on thickness
D. Malignant melanoma 4. Highly radiosensitive
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: A
64. Nottingham prognostic Index is used for:
(a) Cancer stomach (b) Cancer colon (c) Cancer lung (d) Cancer breast
Ans: D
65. A patient has recurrent abdominal pain and jaundice. The blood investigations reveal reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the clinical diagnosis?
(a) Hereditary spherocytosis (b) Mirizzi’s syndrome
(c) Choledochal cyst (d) Sclerosing cholangitis
Ans: A
66. In gallstone ileus, obstruction most frequently occurs at:
(a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum (c) Proximal ileum (d) Terminal ileum
Ans: D
67. The following conditions are associated with high incidence of pigment gallstones except:
(a) Cirrhosis (b) Ileal disease (c) Thalassemia (d) Prosthetic heart valve
Ans: B
68. The most common route of spread in a case of pyogenic liver abscess is:
(a) Haematogenous through portal vein (b) Ascending infection through biliary duct (c) Hepatic artery (d) Local spread
Ans: B
69. The most common complication of pancreas divisum is:
(a) Obstructive jaundice (b) Duodenal obstruction (c) Recurrent acute pancreatitis (d) Peptic ulcer
Ans: C
70. The commonest major surgical complication following whipple procedure is:
(a) Disruption of pancreatic anastomosis (b) Biliary peritonitis (c) Disruption of gastric anastomosis (d) GI bleeding
Ans: A
71. A 60 year old male presents with bleeding p/r. Proctoscopy reveals 2nd degree haemorrhoids. The treatment of choice is:
(a) Cryotherapy (b) Sclerotherapy (c) Banding (d) Surgery
Ans: C
72. At present, treatment is recommended for H. pylori in association with the following except:
(a) Duodenal ulcer (b) Early gastric cancer (c) MALT-lymphoma (d) Benign gastric ulcer
Ans: B
73. Pott’s puffy tumour is a:
(a) Tuberculosis of the skull bone (b) Squamous cell cancer of scalp
(c) Subperiosteal abscess associated with osteomyelitis of frontal bone (d) Fungating scrotal malignancy
Ans: C
74. With reference to frozen shoulder, consider the following statements:
1. It is associated with diabetes and heart disease. 2. It may follow minor trauma.
3. Its differential diagnosis are infection and fractures. 4. Treatment of choice is surgery.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
75. The prognosis in reduced or unreduced fractures involving epiphyseal plate is very poor if the fracture line:
(a) Runs along the epiphyseal plate (b) Extends into epiphysis (c) Crushes the epiphyseal plate (d) Crosses the epiphyseal plate
Ans: C
76. A 30 year old man met with an accident and presented with multiple fractures of ribs and paradoxical movement with severe respiratory distress. X-ray shows pulmonary contusion on right side without pneumothorax or haemothorax. Which one of the following is the initial choice of treatment?
(a) Immediate internal fixation
(b) Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
(c) Thoracic epidural analgesia and O2 therapy
(d) Stabilization with towel clips
Ans: B
77. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of tetanus?
(a) Risus sardonicus (b) Opisthotonus (c) Loss of consciousness (d) Respiratory failure
Ans: C
78. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score ranges between:
(a) 0 and 15 (b) 1 and 15 (c) 2 and 15 (d) 3 and 15
Ans: D
79. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction is:
(a) Obstructed hernia (b) Inflammatory abdominal conditions (c) Gastrointestinal malignancy (d) Bands and adhesions
Ans: D
80. The most common site for nosocomial (hospital acquired) infection is:
(a) Respiratory tract (b) Urinary tract (c) Surgical site (d) Blood stream
Ans: B
81. A patient has carcinoid tumour of appendix of size more than 2.5 cm. The management of choice is:
(a) Appendecectomy
(b) Appendecectomy and 24 hour urinary HIAA
(c) Appendecectomy and abdominal CT scan
(d) Right hemicolectomy
Ans: D
82. Hyperchloremic acidosis is a common complication of:
(a) Ureterosigmoidostomy (b) Diarrhoea (c) Vomiting (d) Ileostomy
Ans: A
83. Endoluminal probe for transrectal ultrasonography operates at the frequency of:
(a) 2.5 MHz (b) 5.0 MHz (c) 7.5 MHz (d) 15.0 MHz
Ans: C
84. A Seldinger needle is used for:
(a) Liver biopsy (b) Breast biopsy (c) Lymphangiography (d) Arteriography
Ans: D
85. The ideal temperature to store the whole blood in blood-bank is
(a) -40C (b) 00C (c) 40C (d) 80C
Ans: C
86. Bisgaard treatment refers to that of:
(a) Ruptured tendo achillis (b) Venous ulcer (c) An ischaemic ulcer (d) An in-growing toe nail
Ans: B
87. A 20 year old female was operated for perforation peritonitis and after closing the rectus sheet her abdominal wound was left open to heal with proliferative granulation tissue which contracted and epithelized to form a scar. This patient had undergone healing by:
(a) Primary intention (b) Secondary intention (c) Tertiary Intention (d) Delayed primary intention
Ans: C
88. A 50 year old patient had a haematoma in his left gluteal region which was large, painful and causing some neural deficit. The next plan of management will be to:
(a) Apply some superficial ointment for it to subside (b) Get an CECT or MRI done
(c) Incise or aspirate the haematoma (d) Leave it alone
Ans: C
89. An 18 year old boy had a closed lower limb injury while riding his motorbike. He was brought to hospital where on examination he had severe pain which increased on passive movement of effected limb with distal sensory disturbances. What is the probable diagnosis?
(a) Degloving Injury (b) High Pressure Injection injury (c) Compartment syndrome (d) Deep Vein thrombosis
Ans: C
90. A surgeon told the patient’s attendant that his patient has “flesh eating bug” which is the cause of such severe infection in his dirty wound on his lower limb. Which organism was the surgeon referring to?
(a) Staphylococcus aureus (b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) Clostridium difficile (d) Steptococcus pyogenes
Ans: D
91. In Hernia repair, polypropylene suture is used because
(a) It is a synthetic braided dyed absorbable suture with low tissue reaction and high tensile strength
(b) It is synthetic monofilament dyed non absorbable suture with low tissue reaction and high tensile strength
(c) It is a synthetic monofilament undyed absorbable suture with high tissue reaction and low tensile strength
(d) It is a synthetic monofilament undyed non absorbable suture with high tissue reaction and which degrades at 15-20% per year
Ans: B
92. A 60 year old lady had a pyothorax which was treated with an intercostal chest drain. After two days, the meniscus of the fluid in the tube was not swinging during her respiratory process. What could be the likely problem?
(a) Chest drain blockage (b) No fluid in the chest drain bag (c) Water seal not proper (d) High atmospheric pressure
Ans: A
93. The main principle regarding removal of drain after surgery is
(a) Keep drains as long as possible to prevent complications
(b) Drains kept for colo-rectal anastomosis should be removed within 2 days as they can cause complications
(c) Suction drains can be removed early
(d) Drain should be removed as soon as it is no longer required
Ans: D
94. The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of “capacitance coupling” during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief?
(a) Metal laparoscopic port (b) Metal port with plastic cuff (c) Partial plastic port (d) Complete plastic port
Ans: D
95. Southampton wound grading system and ASEPSIS wound score is used for
(a) Severity of wound infections (b) Surgical site cosmesis (c) Surgical scar (d) Severity of granulation tissue
Ans: A
96. A 75 year old diabetic man had surgery for perforated colonic diverculitis. In his post operative period he complained of severe wound pain and had signs of spreading inflammation with crepitus with subdermal spread of gangrene. He is likely to be suffering from
(a) Clostridial infection (b) Meleney synergistic gangrene (c) Abdominal wall cellulitis (d) Intra-peritoneal collection
Ans: B
97. All of the following are congenital sinuses except:
(a) Pre auricular (b) Urachal sinus (c) Coccygeal (d) Pilonidal
Ans: D
98. An obese 45 year lady who is a chronic smoker came with tender subcutaneous nodules with chronic inflammation with scarring under her left axilla. She is likely to be suffering from:
(a) Lipodystrophy (b) Hidradenitis suppurativa
(c) Xeroderma pigmentosum (d) Pyoderma gangrenosum
Ans: B
99. The priority in management of supracondylar fracture of humerus in a child is:
(a) Preservation of Brachial artery entanglement (b) Debridement of wound (c) Antibiotics (d) Immobilization
Ans: A
100. All of the following are premalignant lesions except:
(a) Actinic Solar Keratosis (b) Bowen’s Disease (c) Giant Hairy Naevus (d) Rhinophymoma
Ans: D
(a) Primary intention (b) Secondary intention (c) Tertiary Intention (d) Delayed primary intention
Ans: C
88. A 50 year old patient had a haematoma in his left gluteal region which was large, painful and causing some neural deficit. The next plan of management will be to:
(a) Apply some superficial ointment for it to subside (b) Get an CECT or MRI done
(c) Incise or aspirate the haematoma (d) Leave it alone
Ans: C
89. An 18 year old boy had a closed lower limb injury while riding his motorbike. He was brought to hospital where on examination he had severe pain which increased on passive movement of effected limb with distal sensory disturbances. What is the probable diagnosis?
(a) Degloving Injury (b) High Pressure Injection injury (c) Compartment syndrome (d) Deep Vein thrombosis
Ans: C
90. A surgeon told the patient’s attendant that his patient has “flesh eating bug” which is the cause of such severe infection in his dirty wound on his lower limb. Which organism was the surgeon referring to?
(a) Staphylococcus aureus (b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) Clostridium difficile (d) Steptococcus pyogenes
Ans: D
91. In Hernia repair, polypropylene suture is used because
(a) It is a synthetic braided dyed absorbable suture with low tissue reaction and high tensile strength
(b) It is synthetic monofilament dyed non absorbable suture with low tissue reaction and high tensile strength
(c) It is a synthetic monofilament undyed absorbable suture with high tissue reaction and low tensile strength
(d) It is a synthetic monofilament undyed non absorbable suture with high tissue reaction and which degrades at 15-20% per year
Ans: B
92. A 60 year old lady had a pyothorax which was treated with an intercostal chest drain. After two days, the meniscus of the fluid in the tube was not swinging during her respiratory process. What could be the likely problem?
(a) Chest drain blockage (b) No fluid in the chest drain bag (c) Water seal not proper (d) High atmospheric pressure
Ans: A
93. The main principle regarding removal of drain after surgery is
(a) Keep drains as long as possible to prevent complications
(b) Drains kept for colo-rectal anastomosis should be removed within 2 days as they can cause complications
(c) Suction drains can be removed early
(d) Drain should be removed as soon as it is no longer required
Ans: D
94. The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of “capacitance coupling” during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief?
(a) Metal laparoscopic port (b) Metal port with plastic cuff (c) Partial plastic port (d) Complete plastic port
Ans: D
95. Southampton wound grading system and ASEPSIS wound score is used for
(a) Severity of wound infections (b) Surgical site cosmesis (c) Surgical scar (d) Severity of granulation tissue
Ans: A
96. A 75 year old diabetic man had surgery for perforated colonic diverculitis. In his post operative period he complained of severe wound pain and had signs of spreading inflammation with crepitus with subdermal spread of gangrene. He is likely to be suffering from
(a) Clostridial infection (b) Meleney synergistic gangrene (c) Abdominal wall cellulitis (d) Intra-peritoneal collection
Ans: B
97. All of the following are congenital sinuses except:
(a) Pre auricular (b) Urachal sinus (c) Coccygeal (d) Pilonidal
Ans: D
98. An obese 45 year lady who is a chronic smoker came with tender subcutaneous nodules with chronic inflammation with scarring under her left axilla. She is likely to be suffering from:
(a) Lipodystrophy (b) Hidradenitis suppurativa
(c) Xeroderma pigmentosum (d) Pyoderma gangrenosum
Ans: B
99. The priority in management of supracondylar fracture of humerus in a child is:
(a) Preservation of Brachial artery entanglement (b) Debridement of wound (c) Antibiotics (d) Immobilization
Ans: A
100. All of the following are premalignant lesions except:
(a) Actinic Solar Keratosis (b) Bowen’s Disease (c) Giant Hairy Naevus (d) Rhinophymoma
Ans: D
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