GENERAL SURGERY- PAGE 1
GENERAL SURGERY MCQs-PAGE 1
1. Extra intestine manifestation of crohns disease is all except :
(A) iritis (B) peripheral arthritis (C) phlebothrombosis (D) none
Ans: D
2. Scrofula is :
(A) cervical tuberculous lymphadenitis (B) cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis (C) fungal infection (D) candidiasis of oral cavity
Ans: A
3. Reason for decreased incidence of cancer in small bowel is that except :
(A) rapid transit of luminal content
(B) high turn over of small bowel epithelial cells
(C) high bacterial count of small intestinal contents
(D) high level of IgA in the intestinal wall
Ans: C
4. Metastasis common in __________ carcinoid tumor.
(A) ileum (B) appendix (C) rectum (D) all of the above
Ans: A
5. Most common extra abdominal source for metastatic neoplasm to small bowel is :
(A) breast (B) lung (C) malignant melanoma (D) thyroid
Ans: C
6. Riglers sign seen in :
(A) pneumoperitoneum (B) haemoperitoneum (C) gall stone ileus (D) sigmoid volvulus
Ans: A
7. Most common extraluminal cause of small bowel obstruction :
(A) hernia (B) adhesion (C) tumor of adjacent organ (D) volvulus
Ans: B
8. False statement about ulcerative colitis :
(A) common in developed countries
(B) there is no increased incidence among individuals who migrate from low risk to high risk areas
(C) there is a seasonal variation
(D) aetiology is unknown
Ans: B
9. False statement about carcinoma arising in ulcerative colitis :
(A) poorly differentiated
(B) highly aggressive
(C) high risk of developing malignancy when disease confined to left side of colon
(D) duration is one risk factor
Ans: C
10. Marker for F A P is CHRPF which is detected by :
(A) indirect laryngoscopy (B) indirect ophthalmoscopy (C) direct laryngoscopy (D) colonoscopy
Ans: B
11. Umbilical fissure of liver does not contain :
(A) hepatic vein (B) left portal vein (C) hepatic artery (D) bile duct
Ans: A
12. Wrong statement about portal vein :
(A) portal vein form at the level of second lumbar vertebrae
(B) 1 cm diameter
(C) runs along the left border of lesser omentum
(D) runs posterior to the bile duct and hepatic artery
Ans: C
13. Neuroendocrine tumor less commonly metastasis to liver :
(A) gastrinoma (B) glucognoma (C) somatostatinoma (D) insulinoma
Ans: D
14. Tumbling intestinal obstruction seen in :
(A) internal herniation (B) malignancy of colon (C) gall stone ileus (D) pseudo obstruction of colon
Ans: C
15. Wrong statement about biliary leak after laparoscopic cholecystectomy :
(A) managed by early repair
(B) common cause is dislodgement of clips
(C) commonly occurs within 1 week
(D) bile staining of right side port is a feature
Ans: A
16. Statement about acute acalculus cholecystitis is correct except :
(A) more fulminant course (B) commonly progress to gangrene
(C) frequently occurs in young patients (D) common in trauma and burns
Ans: C
17. Thyroid malignancy that cannot be diagnosed by FNAC :
(A) papillary (B) medullary (C) follicular (D) anaplastic
Ans: C
18. Absolute indication for total gastrectomy :
(A) carcinoma fundus of the stomach (B) gastric volvulus (C) gastric bezoars (D) bleeding gastric varices
Ans: A
19. Wrong statement about caecal volvulus :
(A) usually anticlockwise (B) common in females (C) ischemia is common (D) palpable tympanic swelling in midline
Ans: A
20. Strawberry lesion of the rectosigmoid :
(A) amoebic granuloma (B) gonococcal proctitis (C) infection with sprochaeta vincenti (D) rectal bilharziasis
Ans: C
(A) iritis (B) peripheral arthritis (C) phlebothrombosis (D) none
Ans: D
2. Scrofula is :
(A) cervical tuberculous lymphadenitis (B) cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis (C) fungal infection (D) candidiasis of oral cavity
Ans: A
3. Reason for decreased incidence of cancer in small bowel is that except :
(A) rapid transit of luminal content
(B) high turn over of small bowel epithelial cells
(C) high bacterial count of small intestinal contents
(D) high level of IgA in the intestinal wall
Ans: C
4. Metastasis common in __________ carcinoid tumor.
(A) ileum (B) appendix (C) rectum (D) all of the above
Ans: A
5. Most common extra abdominal source for metastatic neoplasm to small bowel is :
(A) breast (B) lung (C) malignant melanoma (D) thyroid
Ans: C
6. Riglers sign seen in :
(A) pneumoperitoneum (B) haemoperitoneum (C) gall stone ileus (D) sigmoid volvulus
Ans: A
7. Most common extraluminal cause of small bowel obstruction :
(A) hernia (B) adhesion (C) tumor of adjacent organ (D) volvulus
Ans: B
8. False statement about ulcerative colitis :
(A) common in developed countries
(B) there is no increased incidence among individuals who migrate from low risk to high risk areas
(C) there is a seasonal variation
(D) aetiology is unknown
Ans: B
9. False statement about carcinoma arising in ulcerative colitis :
(A) poorly differentiated
(B) highly aggressive
(C) high risk of developing malignancy when disease confined to left side of colon
(D) duration is one risk factor
Ans: C
10. Marker for F A P is CHRPF which is detected by :
(A) indirect laryngoscopy (B) indirect ophthalmoscopy (C) direct laryngoscopy (D) colonoscopy
Ans: B
11. Umbilical fissure of liver does not contain :
(A) hepatic vein (B) left portal vein (C) hepatic artery (D) bile duct
Ans: A
12. Wrong statement about portal vein :
(A) portal vein form at the level of second lumbar vertebrae
(B) 1 cm diameter
(C) runs along the left border of lesser omentum
(D) runs posterior to the bile duct and hepatic artery
Ans: C
13. Neuroendocrine tumor less commonly metastasis to liver :
(A) gastrinoma (B) glucognoma (C) somatostatinoma (D) insulinoma
Ans: D
14. Tumbling intestinal obstruction seen in :
(A) internal herniation (B) malignancy of colon (C) gall stone ileus (D) pseudo obstruction of colon
Ans: C
15. Wrong statement about biliary leak after laparoscopic cholecystectomy :
(A) managed by early repair
(B) common cause is dislodgement of clips
(C) commonly occurs within 1 week
(D) bile staining of right side port is a feature
Ans: A
16. Statement about acute acalculus cholecystitis is correct except :
(A) more fulminant course (B) commonly progress to gangrene
(C) frequently occurs in young patients (D) common in trauma and burns
Ans: C
17. Thyroid malignancy that cannot be diagnosed by FNAC :
(A) papillary (B) medullary (C) follicular (D) anaplastic
Ans: C
18. Absolute indication for total gastrectomy :
(A) carcinoma fundus of the stomach (B) gastric volvulus (C) gastric bezoars (D) bleeding gastric varices
Ans: A
19. Wrong statement about caecal volvulus :
(A) usually anticlockwise (B) common in females (C) ischemia is common (D) palpable tympanic swelling in midline
Ans: A
20. Strawberry lesion of the rectosigmoid :
(A) amoebic granuloma (B) gonococcal proctitis (C) infection with sprochaeta vincenti (D) rectal bilharziasis
Ans: C
21. Risk of male breast carcinoma in klinefelters syndrome is _________times.
(A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 60 (D) 50
Ans: B
22. Morbid obesity defined as BMI more than__________.
(A) 30 (B) 35 (C) 40 (D) 32
Ans: C
23. Bier’s block is :
(A) Axillary block (B) Transverse abdominis plane block (C) Intravenous regional anaesthesia (D) Field block
Ans: C
24. Total energy requirement of stable patient with normal need is approximately :
(A) 30 - 40 Kcal/kg (B) 35 - 50 Kcal/kg (C) 50 - 60 Kcal/kg (D) 20 - 30 Kcal/kg
Ans: D
25. What is the % of incidence of bacteremia after rectal examination ?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 11 (D) 15
Ans: B
26. Order of return of function of the intestine after abdominal surgery :
(A) Stomach/large bowel/small bowel (B) Small bowel/large bowel/stomach
(C) Large bowel/small bowel/stomach (D) Stomach/small bowel/large bowel
Ans: B
27. Hangmans fracture is :
(A) Odantoid fracture (B) Occipital condyle fracture (C) Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 on C3 (D) Atlantoaxial instability
Ans: C
28. Most common site of fracture of mandible :
(A) Angle of mandible (B) Neck of the condyle (C) Region of the canine tooth (D) Symphysis menti
Ans: B
29. Retroperitoneal injury always to be explored in ___________.
(A) Zone 1 (B) Zone 2 (C) Zone 3 (D) All zones
Ans: A
30. Correct statement about FAST is all except :
(A) it detects free fluid in the abdomen
(B) it will not reliably detect less than 100 ml of free fluid
(C) it detects free fluid in the pericardium
(D) it will identify injury to hollow viscus
Ans: D
31. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is considered to be positive when cannula is aspirated for blood more than __________.
(A) 15 ml (B) 10 ml (C) 20 ml (D) 30 ml
Ans: B
32. The correct statement about cooling of the burn wound is correct except :
(A) will not provide analgesia (B) it slows the delayed microvascular damage
(C) hypothermia must be avoided (D) effective upto 1 hour after burn injury
Ans: A
33. Correct statement about role of hyperbaric oxygen in necrotizing fascitis is :
(A) bactericidal (B) improve neutrophil function (C) promote wound healing (D) all of the above
Ans: D
34. Correct statement about frost bite except :
(A) it is a cold burn (B) the tissue feels hard (C) cannot be indented (D) no freezing of tissue
Ans: D
35. Spurling test is done for :
(A) cervical nerve root compression (B) lumbar disc prolapse (C) kyphosis (D) thoracic disc herniation
Ans: A
(A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 60 (D) 50
Ans: B
22. Morbid obesity defined as BMI more than__________.
(A) 30 (B) 35 (C) 40 (D) 32
Ans: C
23. Bier’s block is :
(A) Axillary block (B) Transverse abdominis plane block (C) Intravenous regional anaesthesia (D) Field block
Ans: C
24. Total energy requirement of stable patient with normal need is approximately :
(A) 30 - 40 Kcal/kg (B) 35 - 50 Kcal/kg (C) 50 - 60 Kcal/kg (D) 20 - 30 Kcal/kg
Ans: D
25. What is the % of incidence of bacteremia after rectal examination ?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 11 (D) 15
Ans: B
26. Order of return of function of the intestine after abdominal surgery :
(A) Stomach/large bowel/small bowel (B) Small bowel/large bowel/stomach
(C) Large bowel/small bowel/stomach (D) Stomach/small bowel/large bowel
Ans: B
27. Hangmans fracture is :
(A) Odantoid fracture (B) Occipital condyle fracture (C) Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 on C3 (D) Atlantoaxial instability
Ans: C
28. Most common site of fracture of mandible :
(A) Angle of mandible (B) Neck of the condyle (C) Region of the canine tooth (D) Symphysis menti
Ans: B
29. Retroperitoneal injury always to be explored in ___________.
(A) Zone 1 (B) Zone 2 (C) Zone 3 (D) All zones
Ans: A
30. Correct statement about FAST is all except :
(A) it detects free fluid in the abdomen
(B) it will not reliably detect less than 100 ml of free fluid
(C) it detects free fluid in the pericardium
(D) it will identify injury to hollow viscus
Ans: D
31. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is considered to be positive when cannula is aspirated for blood more than __________.
(A) 15 ml (B) 10 ml (C) 20 ml (D) 30 ml
Ans: B
32. The correct statement about cooling of the burn wound is correct except :
(A) will not provide analgesia (B) it slows the delayed microvascular damage
(C) hypothermia must be avoided (D) effective upto 1 hour after burn injury
Ans: A
33. Correct statement about role of hyperbaric oxygen in necrotizing fascitis is :
(A) bactericidal (B) improve neutrophil function (C) promote wound healing (D) all of the above
Ans: D
34. Correct statement about frost bite except :
(A) it is a cold burn (B) the tissue feels hard (C) cannot be indented (D) no freezing of tissue
Ans: D
35. Spurling test is done for :
(A) cervical nerve root compression (B) lumbar disc prolapse (C) kyphosis (D) thoracic disc herniation
Ans: A
36. The muscles in rotator cuff are all except :
(A) supraspinatus (B) infraspinatus (C) subscapularis (D) teres major
Ans: D
37. Turf toe occurs in :
(A) Golf (B) Tennis (C) Rowing (D) Football
Ans: D
38. Commonst malignancy that metastasise to the spine :
(A) Lung (B) Breast (C) Prostate (D) Thyroid
Ans: B
39. % of metastasis in cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma :
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 2
Ans: D
40. Total C S F volume is :
(A) 150 ml (B) 125 ml (C) 200 ml (D) 500 ml
Ans: A
41. The common primary tumor of brain is :
(A) Pituitary adenoma (B) Schwannoma (C) Glioma (D) none
Ans: C
42. Common tumor producing metastasis to brain :
(A) Melanoma (B) Lung (C) Breast (D) Unknown primary
Ans: B
43. Most common cancer producing left vocal cord palsy :
(A) Thyroid (B) Lung (C) Nasopharynx (D) Oesophagus
Ans: B
44. Fontaine sign seen in :
(A) cystic hygroma (B) chemodectoma (C) secondary lymph node (D) branchial cyst
Ans: B
45. Mucosa of the oral cavity contain approximately__________minor salivary gland.
(A) 350 (B) 450 (C) 250 (D) 550
Ans: B
46. Wrong statement about ranula :
(A) retention cyst (B) translucent (C) can resolve spontaneously (D) none
Ans: D
47. Nerve not injured during submandibular gland excision :
(A) lingual (B) hypoglossal (C) marginal mandibular (D) vagus
Ans: D
48. Kuttner tumor is :
(A) parotid tumor (B) lymph node in papillary carcinoma
(C) non inflammatory enlargement of salivary gland (D) chronic sclerosing sialadenitis of submandibular gland
Ans: D
49. Hormone not synthesized in small bowel :
(A) gastric inhibitory polypeptide (B) gastrin releasing peptide (C) somatostatin (D) neurotensin
Ans: C
50. Crohns disease involve all parts of the large bowel except :
(A) rectum (B) sigmoid (C) ascending colon (D) descending colon
Ans: A
51. Rockall scoring system is to assess rebleeding :
(A) Upper gastrointestinal (B) Lower gastrointestinal (C) Portal hypertension (D) Haemorrhoid bleeding
Ans: A
52. Severe hyponatremia is defined as (Na+) less than __________ meq/L.
(A) 122 (B) 120 (C) 130 (D) 100
Ans: B
53. Not a feature of tumor lysis syndrome :
(A) hyperkalemia (B) hyperuricemia (C) hypercalcemia (D) hyperphosphatemia
Ans: C
54. Adequate suture wound length ratio to prevent incisional hernia is :
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 5 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
Ans: D
55. Not a feature of malignant lymphnode in carcinoma thyroid :
(A) microcalcification (B) irregular shape (C) hyper vascularity of node (D) cystic change
Ans: B
56. Commonst malignant tumor of salivary gland is :
(A) pleomorphic adenoma (B) adenoid cystic carcinoma (C) mucoepidermoid cancer (D) secondaries
Ans: C
57. Wrong statement about deep vein thrombosis in surgical patients :
(A) risk more over age of 40 (B) risk more with malignant disease
(C) subcutaneous low molecular heparin is more effective (D) early mobilization encourages D V T
Ans: D
58. The weight of normal adrenal gland is approximately__________gm.
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
Ans: B
59. Wrong statement about scalene node :
(A) situated in scalene triangle (B) same as virchow node
(C) involved in pulmonary disease (D) part of chain of deep mediastinal node
Ans: B
60. Inguinal ligament is the lower free edge of __________muscle.
(A) internal oblique (B) transverse abdominisa (C) external oblique (D) all of the above
Ans: C
61. The structures coursing through the preperitoneal space are the following except :
(A) medial umbilical ligament (B) median umbilical ligament (C) falciform ligament (D) none
Ans: D
62. The risk of developing desmoid tumor in F A P is __________fold.
(A) 1000 (B) 650 (C) 2000 (D) 100
Ans: A
63. Most common primary malignancy of the mesentery is :
(A) GIST (B) liposarcoma (C) desmoid tumor (D) neurofibroma
Ans: C
64. Howship-Romberg sign seen in :
(A) obturator hernia (B) lumbar hernia (C) sciatic hernia (D) incisinal hernia
Ans: A
65. Clay brook sign seen in :
(A) acute appendicitis (B) acute cholecystitis (C) acute pancreatitis (D) ruptured abdominal viscera
Ans: D
66. Forrest classification is used to assess :
(A) risk of perforation in peptic ulcer disease (B) need of blood transfusion in bleeding peptic ulcer
(C) risk of rebleeding in peptic ulcer disease (D) all of the above
Ans: C
67. Water meion stomach is : (A) complication of carcinoma stomach (B) complication of chronic D U
(C) gastric dialatation (D) vascular ectasia
Ans: D
68. Angiodysplasia of large bowel common in :
(A) transverse colon (B) sigmoid (C) cecum (D) rectum
Ans: C
69. Sudden collapse occurs in patients with bleeding from :
(A) neoplasia of the colon (B) diverticular disease of the colon (C) angidysplasia (D) colitis
Ans: C
70. Correct statement about meckels diverticulum is all except :
(A) true diverticulam
(B) remnant of omphalomesenteric duct
(C) bleeding common from ulcerative lesion on the ileal wall opposite diverticulam
(D) segmental resection is not the treatment
Ans: D
71. Largest artery to stomach is :
(A) left gastric (B) right gastric (C) left gastroepiploic (D) right gastroepiploic
Ans: A
72. Incorrect statement about stomach morphology :
(A) covered all around peritoneum
(B) middle layer of the smooth muscle is only complete muscle layer of the stomach wall
(C) peritoneum forms the outer serosa of the stomach
(D) middle circular layer at pylorus forms sphincter
Ans: A
73. Gastric acid secretion by the parietal cell is regulated by all except :
(A) acetyle choline (B) gastrin (C) somatostatin (D) histamin
Ans: C
74. Adenolymphoma is :
(A) hodgkins lymphoma (B) warthins tumor (C) lymphoma of the stomach (D) none
Ans: B
75. Most common metabolic defect after gastrectomy :
(A) anaemia (B) impaired absorbtion of fat (C) osteoporosis (D) osteomalacia
Ans: A
76. Most common site of lymphoma in G I T is :
(A) stomach (B) small bowel (C) colon (D) duodenum
Ans: A
77. Total bile salt pool in human is :
(A) 2-3 gm (B) 4-8 gm (C) 5-6 gm (D) 8-9 gm
Ans: A
78. In enterohepatic circulation bile salts are recirculate about __________times in every 24 hours.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Ans: D
(A) supraspinatus (B) infraspinatus (C) subscapularis (D) teres major
Ans: D
37. Turf toe occurs in :
(A) Golf (B) Tennis (C) Rowing (D) Football
Ans: D
38. Commonst malignancy that metastasise to the spine :
(A) Lung (B) Breast (C) Prostate (D) Thyroid
Ans: B
39. % of metastasis in cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma :
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 2
Ans: D
40. Total C S F volume is :
(A) 150 ml (B) 125 ml (C) 200 ml (D) 500 ml
Ans: A
41. The common primary tumor of brain is :
(A) Pituitary adenoma (B) Schwannoma (C) Glioma (D) none
Ans: C
42. Common tumor producing metastasis to brain :
(A) Melanoma (B) Lung (C) Breast (D) Unknown primary
Ans: B
43. Most common cancer producing left vocal cord palsy :
(A) Thyroid (B) Lung (C) Nasopharynx (D) Oesophagus
Ans: B
44. Fontaine sign seen in :
(A) cystic hygroma (B) chemodectoma (C) secondary lymph node (D) branchial cyst
Ans: B
45. Mucosa of the oral cavity contain approximately__________minor salivary gland.
(A) 350 (B) 450 (C) 250 (D) 550
Ans: B
46. Wrong statement about ranula :
(A) retention cyst (B) translucent (C) can resolve spontaneously (D) none
Ans: D
47. Nerve not injured during submandibular gland excision :
(A) lingual (B) hypoglossal (C) marginal mandibular (D) vagus
Ans: D
48. Kuttner tumor is :
(A) parotid tumor (B) lymph node in papillary carcinoma
(C) non inflammatory enlargement of salivary gland (D) chronic sclerosing sialadenitis of submandibular gland
Ans: D
49. Hormone not synthesized in small bowel :
(A) gastric inhibitory polypeptide (B) gastrin releasing peptide (C) somatostatin (D) neurotensin
Ans: C
50. Crohns disease involve all parts of the large bowel except :
(A) rectum (B) sigmoid (C) ascending colon (D) descending colon
Ans: A
51. Rockall scoring system is to assess rebleeding :
(A) Upper gastrointestinal (B) Lower gastrointestinal (C) Portal hypertension (D) Haemorrhoid bleeding
Ans: A
52. Severe hyponatremia is defined as (Na+) less than __________ meq/L.
(A) 122 (B) 120 (C) 130 (D) 100
Ans: B
53. Not a feature of tumor lysis syndrome :
(A) hyperkalemia (B) hyperuricemia (C) hypercalcemia (D) hyperphosphatemia
Ans: C
54. Adequate suture wound length ratio to prevent incisional hernia is :
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 5 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
Ans: D
55. Not a feature of malignant lymphnode in carcinoma thyroid :
(A) microcalcification (B) irregular shape (C) hyper vascularity of node (D) cystic change
Ans: B
56. Commonst malignant tumor of salivary gland is :
(A) pleomorphic adenoma (B) adenoid cystic carcinoma (C) mucoepidermoid cancer (D) secondaries
Ans: C
57. Wrong statement about deep vein thrombosis in surgical patients :
(A) risk more over age of 40 (B) risk more with malignant disease
(C) subcutaneous low molecular heparin is more effective (D) early mobilization encourages D V T
Ans: D
58. The weight of normal adrenal gland is approximately__________gm.
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
Ans: B
59. Wrong statement about scalene node :
(A) situated in scalene triangle (B) same as virchow node
(C) involved in pulmonary disease (D) part of chain of deep mediastinal node
Ans: B
60. Inguinal ligament is the lower free edge of __________muscle.
(A) internal oblique (B) transverse abdominisa (C) external oblique (D) all of the above
Ans: C
61. The structures coursing through the preperitoneal space are the following except :
(A) medial umbilical ligament (B) median umbilical ligament (C) falciform ligament (D) none
Ans: D
62. The risk of developing desmoid tumor in F A P is __________fold.
(A) 1000 (B) 650 (C) 2000 (D) 100
Ans: A
63. Most common primary malignancy of the mesentery is :
(A) GIST (B) liposarcoma (C) desmoid tumor (D) neurofibroma
Ans: C
64. Howship-Romberg sign seen in :
(A) obturator hernia (B) lumbar hernia (C) sciatic hernia (D) incisinal hernia
Ans: A
65. Clay brook sign seen in :
(A) acute appendicitis (B) acute cholecystitis (C) acute pancreatitis (D) ruptured abdominal viscera
Ans: D
66. Forrest classification is used to assess :
(A) risk of perforation in peptic ulcer disease (B) need of blood transfusion in bleeding peptic ulcer
(C) risk of rebleeding in peptic ulcer disease (D) all of the above
Ans: C
67. Water meion stomach is : (A) complication of carcinoma stomach (B) complication of chronic D U
(C) gastric dialatation (D) vascular ectasia
Ans: D
68. Angiodysplasia of large bowel common in :
(A) transverse colon (B) sigmoid (C) cecum (D) rectum
Ans: C
69. Sudden collapse occurs in patients with bleeding from :
(A) neoplasia of the colon (B) diverticular disease of the colon (C) angidysplasia (D) colitis
Ans: C
70. Correct statement about meckels diverticulum is all except :
(A) true diverticulam
(B) remnant of omphalomesenteric duct
(C) bleeding common from ulcerative lesion on the ileal wall opposite diverticulam
(D) segmental resection is not the treatment
Ans: D
71. Largest artery to stomach is :
(A) left gastric (B) right gastric (C) left gastroepiploic (D) right gastroepiploic
Ans: A
72. Incorrect statement about stomach morphology :
(A) covered all around peritoneum
(B) middle layer of the smooth muscle is only complete muscle layer of the stomach wall
(C) peritoneum forms the outer serosa of the stomach
(D) middle circular layer at pylorus forms sphincter
Ans: A
73. Gastric acid secretion by the parietal cell is regulated by all except :
(A) acetyle choline (B) gastrin (C) somatostatin (D) histamin
Ans: C
74. Adenolymphoma is :
(A) hodgkins lymphoma (B) warthins tumor (C) lymphoma of the stomach (D) none
Ans: B
75. Most common metabolic defect after gastrectomy :
(A) anaemia (B) impaired absorbtion of fat (C) osteoporosis (D) osteomalacia
Ans: A
76. Most common site of lymphoma in G I T is :
(A) stomach (B) small bowel (C) colon (D) duodenum
Ans: A
77. Total bile salt pool in human is :
(A) 2-3 gm (B) 4-8 gm (C) 5-6 gm (D) 8-9 gm
Ans: A
78. In enterohepatic circulation bile salts are recirculate about __________times in every 24 hours.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Ans: D
79. The drug of abuse ‘ECSTASY’ is :
(A) Phencyclidine (B) Cocaine (C) MDMA (D) LSD
Ans: C
80. The neuropeptide transmitter implicated in narcolepsy is :
(A) Histamine (B) Melatonin (C) Acetyl Choline (D) Hypocretin
Ans: D
81. Lambda sign in obstetric ultrasound is indicative of :
(A) Hydrops foetalis (B) Dichorionic diamniotic twins
(C) Monochorionic diamniotic twins (D) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Ans: B
82. Mc Roberts maneuver is considered as the first line treatment for :
(A) Breech delivery (B) Transverse lie
(C) Shoulder dystocia (D) Abruptio placenta
Ans: C
83. The most common gynaecological cancer in India is :
(A) Endometrial cancer (B) Ovarian cancer
(C) Cervical cancer (D) Vulval cancer
Ans: C
84. The hormone content in long acting reversible contraceptive device is :
(A) Levonorgestrel (B) Oestrogen (C) Testosterone (D) Misoprostol
Ans: A
85. The following statements in vitiligo are true except :
(A) An acquired pigment anomaly of skin
(B) Due to defect in Tyrosinase activity
(C) Progressive loss of melanocytes in skin
(D) Segmental distribution of skin lesions can occur.
Ans: B
86. Characteristic primary lesion in Acne vulgaris is :
(A) Pustules (B) Papules (C) Nodules (D) Comedones
Ans: D
87. Nail changes which can occur in Lichen planus are the following except :
(A) Longitudinal grooves (B) Longitudinal melanonychia
(C) Pterygium inversum unguis (D) Trachyonychia
Ans: C
88. Necrolytic acral erythema is a specific feature of infection with :
(A) Epstein - Barr virus (B) Hepatitis C virus
(C) Herpes simplex virus (D) Human immunodeficiency virus
Ans: B
89. The Amsterdam criteria II is used for assessing :
(A) Gastro intestinal stromal tumour (B) Pendred’s Syndrome
(C) Choledochal Cyst (D) Lynch Syndrome
Ans: D
100. The Boaris operation is indicated in :
(A) Carcinoma of Kidney (B) Cholangio carcinoma
(C) Injury to ureter (D) Injury to common bile duct
Ans: C
(A) Phencyclidine (B) Cocaine (C) MDMA (D) LSD
Ans: C
80. The neuropeptide transmitter implicated in narcolepsy is :
(A) Histamine (B) Melatonin (C) Acetyl Choline (D) Hypocretin
Ans: D
81. Lambda sign in obstetric ultrasound is indicative of :
(A) Hydrops foetalis (B) Dichorionic diamniotic twins
(C) Monochorionic diamniotic twins (D) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Ans: B
82. Mc Roberts maneuver is considered as the first line treatment for :
(A) Breech delivery (B) Transverse lie
(C) Shoulder dystocia (D) Abruptio placenta
Ans: C
83. The most common gynaecological cancer in India is :
(A) Endometrial cancer (B) Ovarian cancer
(C) Cervical cancer (D) Vulval cancer
Ans: C
84. The hormone content in long acting reversible contraceptive device is :
(A) Levonorgestrel (B) Oestrogen (C) Testosterone (D) Misoprostol
Ans: A
85. The following statements in vitiligo are true except :
(A) An acquired pigment anomaly of skin
(B) Due to defect in Tyrosinase activity
(C) Progressive loss of melanocytes in skin
(D) Segmental distribution of skin lesions can occur.
Ans: B
86. Characteristic primary lesion in Acne vulgaris is :
(A) Pustules (B) Papules (C) Nodules (D) Comedones
Ans: D
87. Nail changes which can occur in Lichen planus are the following except :
(A) Longitudinal grooves (B) Longitudinal melanonychia
(C) Pterygium inversum unguis (D) Trachyonychia
Ans: C
88. Necrolytic acral erythema is a specific feature of infection with :
(A) Epstein - Barr virus (B) Hepatitis C virus
(C) Herpes simplex virus (D) Human immunodeficiency virus
Ans: B
89. The Amsterdam criteria II is used for assessing :
(A) Gastro intestinal stromal tumour (B) Pendred’s Syndrome
(C) Choledochal Cyst (D) Lynch Syndrome
Ans: D
100. The Boaris operation is indicated in :
(A) Carcinoma of Kidney (B) Cholangio carcinoma
(C) Injury to ureter (D) Injury to common bile duct
Ans: C
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