​GENERAL SURGERY- PAGE 5

GENERAL SURGERY- PAGE 5

GENERAL SURGERY MCQs-PAGE 5

1. Which is the commonest cancer in undescended testis?
(A) Seminoma (B) Embryonal cell carcinoma (C) Yolk sac tumour (D) Choriocarcinoma
Ans: A

2. A cystine calculus is radio-opaque because of
(A) High Calcium content (B) High Phosphate content (C) High Sulfur content (D) High Ammonium content
Ans: C

3. Transduodenal sphincterectomy is done at which location for transduodenal CBD exploration via laparoscope
(A) 11 O'clock position (B) 1 O'clock position (C) 3 O'clock position (D) 6 O'clock position
Ans: A

4. Pharmacological relaxation of sphincter of Oddi is achieved by using _______ to flush the stone in duodenum in laparoscopic transystic CBD exploration via cholangioscope
(A) Insulin (B) Buscopan (C) Glucagon (D) Somatostatin
Ans: C

5. Anoplasty is contraindicated in case of
(A) Post haemorrhoidectomy stricture (B) Stricture after repair of imperforate anus
(C) Stricture after surgery of fistula in ano (D) Chron's disease associated anal stricture
Ans: D

6. Monomax® suture is made up of
(A) Polyglyconate (B) Poly 4 -Hydroxybutyrate (C) Glycomer 631 (D) Lactomer
Ans: B

7. Angiodysplasia is most commonly found in
(A) Transverse colon (B) Ileum (C) Caecum (D) Rectum
Ans: C

8. Pulsatile skull bone metastasis is found in
(A) Ca Lung (B) Follicular Thyroid Ca (C) Medullar Thyroid Ca (D) Ca Breast
Ans: B

9. Psammoma bodies is diagnostic of which thyroid malignancy?
(A) Papillary Thyroid Ca (B) Follicular Thyroid Ca (C) Medullary Thyroid Ca (D) Lymphoma of Thyroid
Ans: A

10. Surgical procedure to mobilise left sided abdominal organs to bring them in midline is known as
(A) Cattell - Braasch manoeuvre (B) Kocher's manoeuver (C) Pringle manoeuver (D) Mattox manoeuvre
Ans: D

11. Cattell - Braasch manoeuvre is done to mobilise
(A) Rectum (B) Right sided colon (C) Left sided colon (D) Duodenum
Ans: B

12. When one of the arteries either SMA or IMA is blocked, which artery becomes enlarged?
(A) Marginal artery (B) Accessary middle colic artery (C) Arc of Riolan (D) Aberrent right hepatic artery
Ans: C

13. Most common nosocomial infection is
(A) Skin & soft tissue Infection (B) SSI (C) RTI (D) UTI
Ans: D

14. Following are indicative of acute arterial ischemia EXCEPT
(A) Dry gangrene (B) Pain (C) Pallor (D) Pulselessness
Ans: A

15. Patients with threatened limb with more significant neurological change (Category IIb) may be best served by
(A) Anticoagulants (B) Thrombolytic therapy (C) Operative thrombectomy (D) Amputation
Ans: C

16. Buruli's ulcer is caused by
(A) Mycobacterium ulcerans (B) Mycobacterium avium (C) Fusibactarium fusiformis (D) Borrelia vincentii
Ans: A

17. On 4th postoperative day after total throidectomy, surgeon in round tapes in front of the tragus to elicit which sign ?
(A) Circumoral parasthesia (B) Trosseau sign (C) Chvostek's sign (D) Rosenbach's sign
Ans: C

18. Cirrhosis of Liver causes
(A) Metabolic acidosis (B) Metabolic alkalosis (C) Respiratory alkalosis (D) Respiratory acidosis
Ans: C

19. H.Pylori bacteria will cause
(A) NHL (B) Malt Lymphoma (C) Burkitt's Lymphoma (D) Cutaneous cell Lymphoma
Ans: B

20. Brown pigment stones of biliary tree are due to following causes EXCEPT
(A) Due to cirrhosis (B) Due to stents (C) Due to Ascaris Lumbricoids (D) Due to Clonorchis Sinensis
Ans: A

21. According to Benjamin's classification of biliary obstruction , causes of intermittent obstruction are as following EXCEPT
(A) Choledocholithiasis (B) Periampullary tumor (C) Duodenal diverticula (D) Cholangiocarcinoma
Ans: D

22. Portal HT is defined as elevation of the hepatic venous pressure gradient ( HPVG ) of _______.
(A) >20 mm of Hg (B) > 12 mm of Hg (C) > 5 mm of Hg (D) > 10 mm of Hg
Ans: C

23. Most common type of ileocaecal tuberculosis is
(A) Hyperplastic (B) Ulcerative (C) Ulcero-hyperplastic (D) Nodular
Ans: B

24. Which is the important landmark while doing Lap. Cholecystectomy to prevent injury to CBD& hepatic duct. Dissection in calot's triangle should be done in front of this landmark?
(A) Caudate lobe of liver (B) Hartmann's pouch (C) Rouvier's sulcus (D) Falciform ligament
Ans: C

25. Which parotid tumor shows “hot spot” in 99 Technetium Pertehnetate scan?
(A) Adenolymphoma (B) Oncocytoma (C) Adenoid cystic carcinoma (D) Malignant mixed tumours
Ans: A

26. Meralgia Parasthetica is due to
(A) Entrapment of obturator nerve (B) Entrapment of subcostal nerve
(C) Entrapment of iliohypogastric nerve (D) Entrapment of lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Ans: D

27 ‘Stipple sign’ in transitional cell carcinoma of renal collecting system is best demonstrated by:
1) Radionuclide scan
2) USG
3) IVP
4) Retrograde pyelography
Ans: 4

28 Which is incorrect about cystic hygroma
1) Brilliantly translucent
2) Filled with clear lymph
3) Commonly multicystic
4) surgery in contraindicated
Ans: 4

29 Presence of Columnar epithelium & goblet cells in llower esophagus in chronic gestroesophageal reflux indicates
1) Hyperplasia
2) Metaplasia
3) Dyrplasia
4) inflammation
Ans: 2

30 All of the following are components of MEN-2B syndrome except:
1) MTC
2) Pheochromocytoma
3) Hyperparathyrodism
4) Multiple neuromas on the lips , tongue and oral mucosa
Ans: 3

31 Most common testicular tumour in infants is:
1) Yolk sac tumour
2) Embroynal cell carcinoma
3) Seminoma
4) Choricarcinoma
Ans: 1

32 High inguinal orchidectomy shows teratoma testis with involvement of epididymis stage is:
1) T1
2) T2
3) T3
4) T4
Ans: 1

33 Which of the following statements about the causes of inguinal hernia is correct?
1) The majority of inguinal hernias are acquired
2) Excessive hydroxyproline has been demonstrated in the aponeuroses of hernia patients
3) Elevated levels of circulating serum elastalytic activity have been demonstrated in patients with direct herniation who smoke
4) Obliteration of the processus vaginalis is a contributing factor for the development of an indirect inguinal hernia
Ans: 3

34 Nealon's classification is used for:
1) Acute pancreatitis
2) Chronic pancreatitis
3) Pseudocyst pancreas
4) Alcoholic pancreatitis
Ans: 3

35 False Regarding Intussusception:
1) is most common in children from 6 to 12 years
2) Presents with colicky abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and an abdominal mass
3) 10% present with diarrhoea and vomiting suggestive of gastroenteritis
4) A Meckel's diverticulum can induce an intussusception
Ans: 1

36 A 55 year old gentleman with features of congestive heart failure & unstable angina is posted for ventral hernia repair. Anaesthetist would characterise him as:
1) ASA- III
2) ASA- II
3) ASA- IV
4) ASA- V
Ans: 3

37 Which one of the following is not true regarding Transfusion associated lung injury (TRALI)
1) Clinical picture is dominated by hypoxia and non- cardiogenic pulmonary oedema after blood transfusion
2) It should occur within 24 hours of completed blood transfusion
3) Any blood component can cause it but plasma is the most common
4) Patients with sepsis and after cardiac surgery are more susceptible for developing TRALI
Ans: 2

38 Which of the following affects prognosis in carcinoma oesophagus the most?
1) T staging
2) Cellular differentiation
3) Length of involved segment
4) Age of the patient
Ans: 1

39 During sleep salivary secretion is maintained by:
1) Parotid gland only
2) Submandibular & Sublingual salivary glands
3) Sublingual gland
4) Submandibular gland
Ans: 2

40 Taylor Procedure include:
1) Posterior truncal vagotomy with anterior highly selective vagotomy
2) Posterior truncal vagotomy with lesser curve seromyotomy
3) Anastomosis of stomach to the resected part of duodenum
4) Type of posterior gastroenterostomy
Ans: 2

41 A 50 years old presents with vague persistent abdominal pain, CT scan reveals a duodenal diverticulum. Which of the following statement is true regarding duodenal diverticulum?
1) The overall incidence of duodenal diverticulum is 7-20%
2) Most of the duodenal diverticulum are symptomatic & perforation is the most common complication
3) Surgery should be avoided & carried out only in cases of complications
4) Juxtavaterian diverticulum is the easiest to manage
Ans: 3

42 Sign of base of skull fracture are all except:
1) Raccoon eyes
2) Battle’s sign
3) Constricted pupil
4) Haemotympanum
Ans: 3

43 Following pelvic surgery, a patient reports numbness along the medial thigh & weakness of hip adduction. Which nerve has most likely been injured during the operation?
1) Obturator
2) Inferior gluteal
3) Superior gluteal
4) Femoral
Ans: 1

44 Contraindication for resection of locally recurrent rectal cancer are all except:
1) S1 or S2 nerve inolvement
2) Bilateral ureteric obstruction
3) Circumferential or extensive pelvic side wall involvement
4) None
Ans: 4

45 Which of the following is the most beneficial technique of using chemotherapy with a course of radiotherapy in head and neck malignancies?
1) Neo adjuvant chemotherapy
2) Adjuvant chemotherapy
3) Concurrent chemotherapy
4) Alternating chemotherapy and radiotherapy
Ans: 3

46 Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding GI bleeding?
1) The sensitivity of angiography for detecting GI bleeding is about 10-20% as compared to nuclear imaging
2) Angiography can image bleeding at a rate of 0.05/0.1 min or less
3) 99mTc-RBC scan image bleeding at rates as low 0.05-0.1 ml/min
4) Angiography will detect bleeding only if extravasation is occurring during the injection of Contrast
Ans: 2

47 Effective therapy for morbid obesity, in terms of weight control is:
1) Intensive dieting with behaviour modification
2) A multidrug protocol with fenfluramine, phenylpropanolamine, and mazindol.
3) A gastric bypass with a 40-ml. pouch, a 10- to 20-cm. Roux-en-Y gastroenterostomy
4) A gastric bypass with a 15-ml. pouch, a 40- to 60-cm. Roux-en-Y gastroenterostomy
Ans: 4

48 False regarding Intestinal failure:
1) Type I intestinal failure is temporary & usually resolves with supportive treatment
2) Type II intestinal failure can potentially be reversed with multi-disciplinary input
3) Most common indication for intestinal transplant is Type III intestinal failure without hepatic insufficiency
4) Five year survival after intestinal transplant is 40-60%
Ans: 3

49 Common lymphomas in paediatric age group include all except:
1) Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
2) Burkitt’s lymphoma
3) Follicular lymphoma
4) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Ans: 3

50 Intestinal infarction all are signs on CT except?
1) Bowel wall thickening
2) Thumb printing
3) Free Peritoneal air
4) Intramural gas
Ans: 2

51 Which of the following decreases in response to injury
1) ACTH
2) Cortisol
3) Insulin
4) Glucagon
Ans: 3

52 Sacrococcygeal teratoms is embryological remnant of
1) Neural tube
2) Allantonis
3) Notocord
4) Primitive streak
Ans: 4

53 Extradural haemorrhage results from injury to
1) Middle cerebeal artery
2) Middle meningeal artery
3) Subdural venous sinus
4) meningeal venus
Ans: 2

54 Reactionary haemorrhage occurs:
1) After 24 hrs
2) After 48 hrs
3) After 5 days
4) with in 24 hrs
Ans: 4

55 Blood from Right adrenal is drained into
1) Rt renel vein
2) vena cava
3) phrenic vein
4) Hepatic vein
Ans: 2

56 Penis is surrounded by
1) Colles fascia
2) Bucks fascia
3) Scarpas fascia
4) Tunica aebugenia
Ans: 2

57 Most common organ injured in seat belt injury is
1) Mesentry
2) Spleen
3) Liver
4) Abd. Aorta
Ans: 1

58 Glomus tumour is seen in
1) Appendix
2) Adrenal
3) Finger
4) Pituitary
Ans: 3

59 Commonest variety of intussusception in children is
1) Ileocolic
2) colocolic
3) Ileoileal
4) none
Ans: 1

60 In large gut obstruction , rupture occurs at
1) Caecum
2) Ascending colon
3) transverse colon
4) rectum
Ans: 1

61 Most common site of distant metastasis in RCC is
1) Liver
2) Lungs
3) Bone
4) Adreanal glands
Ans: 2

62 Prerequisite of whole body scan to demonstrate metastasis in thyroid cancer is
1) Radiotherapy
2) All normally functioning thyroid tissue must be ablated by surgery
3) All normally functioning thyroid tissue must be ablated by radioactive
4) Either All normally functioning thyroid tissue must be ablated by surgery or All normally functioning thyroid tissue must be ablated by radioactive
Ans: 4

63 In hyperthyroidism lid spasm occurs because the ------- muscles Is partly innervated by sympathetic fibres
1) Levator palpabral superiosis
2) superior rectus
3) Superior oblique
4) Inferior Oblique
Ans: 1

64 Most common site of GIST is
1) Stomach
2) Duodenum
3) Jejunum
4) Ileum
Ans: 1

65 Which of the following condition is not associated with pneumobia
1) Sphincterotomy
2) Mirrizzis syndrome
3) Rupture of hydatid cyst
4) Gall stone ileus
Ans: 3

66 Most common organ involved in MEN type 1 is
1) Thyroid
2) Parathyroid
3) Adrenal
4) Testis
Ans: 2

67 Definitive host in hydatid disease is
1) Human
2) Dog
3) Sheep
4) Cow
Ans: 2

68 Fundoplication is done for
1) Achalasia cardia
2) Hiatus hernia
3) Ca. oesophagus
4) Bariatic surgery
Ans: 2

69 Burst abdomen commonly occurs on
1) 3rd day
2) 5th day
3) 7th day
4) 9th day
Ans: 3

70 In long standing Goiter Which malignancy develops most commonly
1) Follicular Ca.
2) Papillary Ca.
3) Anaplastic Ca.
4) Medullary Ca.
Ans: 1

71 In Signoid volvulus rotation is away
1) anti clock wise
2) clock-wise
3) Cephalic
4) Caudal
Ans: 1

72 Which liver segmant (couinand classifiction) has an independent vascularisation
1) Segment I
2) Segment II
3) Segment IV
4) Segment V
Ans: 1

73 dance's sign' is found in
1) Volvulus
2) Crohn's disease
3) Intussuscaption
4) ucelarative colitis
Ans: 3

74 Altered Seusorium after TURP is due to
1) Hypernatraemia
2) Hyponatraemia
3) Hypokalemia
4) Hypoglycemia
Ans: 2

75 Which of the following nerve lie closest to the wharton's duct
1) hypoglossal nerve
2) Lingual nerve
3) Branch of facial nerve
4) great ausicular nerve
Ans: 2

76 Commonest cause of hyperparathyroidism is
1) Adenoma
2) Single gland hyperplasia
3) Malignency
4) Secondaries
Ans: 1

77 Most common tumour in posterior mediastinum is
1) Teratoma
2) Neurofibrom
3) Lymphoma
4) Bronchogenic cyst
Ans: 2

78 Selection criteria for obesity surgery include BMI more than --/ 1kg/m sq.
1) 20
2) 30
3) 40
4) 45
Ans: 3

79 Secondary thyrotoxicosis is seen in ----- % patient of multinodular goitre
1) 10
2) 20
3) 30
4) 40
Ans: 3

80 Sengstake- Blakemore tube baloon should be deflated after ------hours to prevent necrosis of esophagus
1) 12
2) 24
3) 36
4) 48
Ans: 1

81 Seagull sign is seen in
1) Cholelithiasis
2) Penal stone
3) Choledocholethiasis
4) Pancreatitis
Ans: 1

82 In which type of shock the cardic output is high
1) Hypovolaemic
2) Cardiogenic
3) Obstructive
4) Distributive
Ans: 4

83 Open spliniteroplasty is done at
1) 11 o' clock
2) 12 o' clock
3) 1 o' clock
4) 2 o' clock
Ans: 1

84 Most common organ herniatus in morgagni's hernia is
1) Stomach
2) Transverse colon
3) ileum
4) omentum
Ans: 2

85 Most common cause of Acute Epididymitis is
1) Chlamydia trichomatis
2) E.coli
3) Keebsiella
4) Protecus
Ans: 1

86 G-cells are present in ---------- stomach
1) Body
2) Pyloric antrum
3) FUNDUS
4) Cardia
Ans: 2

87 Vitellointestinal duct closure takes places at age of
1) at birth
2) 6 weeks
3) 9 months
4) 12 months
Ans: 2

88 spleniculi are located near the hilum of spleen in ----- of cases
1) 20%
2) 50%
3) 10%
4) 70%
Ans: 2

89 Adder head appearance is found in
1) Cystocele
2) Choledochal cyst
3) ureterocele
4) diverticula
Ans: 3

90 Spleen contains about -----% of total blood volume
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Ans: 2

91 Liver Metastase are best characterized by
1) MRI
2) CT
3) PET
4) USG
Ans: 1

92 Preferred treatment of varicose veins is
1) open surgery
2) Sclerotherapy
3) Compressive bandage
4) Endovenous closure technique
Ans: 4

93 REVAS' (Recurrent Varices After Surgery) defines
1) True recurrence
2) Residual vein
3) New varices due to disease progression
4) All of them
Ans: 4

94 Advance treatments of fistula in ano include all EXCEPT
1) VAAFT
2) FiLac
3) GIFT
4) LIFT
Ans: 3
95. The most common side effect of neuraxial opioid is :
(A) Sedation (B) Respiratory depression
(C) Urinary retention (D) Pruritis
Ans: D

96. Factors which cause exaggerated bradycardia (heart rate less than 40-50 beats/min) following spinal anesthesia include all except :
(A) Baseline heart rate less than 60 beats/min (B) Male gender (C) Older age (D) Non emergency surgery
Ans: C

97. What is the osmolality of low osmolality WHO Oral rehydration solution ?
(A) 245 mOsm/L (B) 275 mOsm/L (C) 375 mOsm/L (D) 350 mOsm/L
Ans: A

98. Peak incidence of acute Appendicitis is in the age of :
(A) < 1 Year (B) 1 - 3 Years (C) 5 - 10 Years (D) 12 - 18 Years
Ans: D

99. Which of the following is the most reliable test for diagnosis of acute Pancreatitis ?
(A) Serum Amylase (B) Serum Lipase (C) Leucocytosis (D) Hypercalcemia
Ans: B

100. Splenectomy is indicated in the following conditions except :
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) Hereditary stomatocytosis (C) Thalassemia (D) Hypersplenism
Ans: D