SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH- PAGE 6
SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH MCQs
1. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water per litre in India is
(A) < 0.5 mg
(B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg
(C) > 0.8 to < 1.2 mg
(D) > 1.2 mg
Ans: B
2. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential?
(A) Leucin
(B) Isoleucine
(C) Lysine
(D) Glycine
Ans: D
3. The most invasive and virulent species of Brucella Micro-organism is
(A) B. Melitnsis
(B) B. Abortus
(C) B. Suis
(D) B. Canis
Ans: A
4. All of the following diseases require surveillance according to WHO except:
(A) Chicken-pox
(B) Yellow fever
(C) Malaria
(D) Rabies
Ans: A
5. Salk vaccine is a
(A) Live vaccine
(B) Live attenuated vaccine
(C) Killed vaccine
(D) Toxoid
Ans: C
6. The most widely used strain of rubella virus for vaccine production is
(A) HPV/77
(B) Japanese To 336
(C) RA 27/3
(D) Cendehill virus
Ans: C
7. All of the following are reasons for rapid spread of influenza except:
(A) Short incubation period
(B) Large number of subclinical cases
(C) Presence of cross immunity
(D) Short duration of immunity
Ans: C
8. Which of the following characteristics are true for a ‘Case Control Study’?
(A) Both exposure and outcome have occurred before start of a study.
(B) It cannot test causal hypothesis.
(C) Relative risk can be calculated.
(D) A long period of follow up is required.
Ans: A
9. The area is aid to be hyper endemic if spleen rate exceeds
(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Ans: C
10. The denominator for ‘General Fertility Rate’ is
(A) Mid-year population
(B) Mid-year population of 15-45 years
(C) Mid-year population of all women
(D) Mid-year population of 15-45 year age group married women
Ans: B
11. All are true of cohort study except
(A) Both groups are free of disease.
(B) The study proceeds from cause to effect.
(C) It is an observational study.
(D) Relative risk cannot be computed.
Ans: D
12. The radiation exposure in mammography is
(A) 0.3 rads
(B) 1 rad
(C) 5 rads
(D) 10 rads
Ans: A
13. The components of validity of screening tests are
I. Sensitivity
II. Specificity
III. Positive Predictive Value
IV. Negative Predictive Value
(A) I, II and III correct
(B) I and II correct
(C) I, III and IV correct
(D) I and IV correct
Ans: B
14. Which of the following viral hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination?
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C
IV. Hepatitis E
(A) I & II correct
(B) I, II & III correct
(C) I & III correct
(D) II, III & IV correct
Ans: A
15. Reduced osmalarity ORS recommended by WHO and UNICEF have following ingredients:
I. Sodium Chloride
II. Soda bicarob
III. Potassium Chloride
IV. Trisodium citrate dihydrate
(A) I, II, & III correct
(B) II & III correct
(C) I, II & IV correct
(D) I, III & IV correct
Ans: D
16. What is the recommended management of a child who is found allergic to DPT?
(A) Give DTaP/DT instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(B) Give DT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(C) Give TT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(D) Give DPT after two weeks and continue with remaining doses.
Ans: A
17. Which one of the following conditions is under Regular Surveillance under Integrated Disease Surveillance programme?
(A) Leprosy
(B) Road Traffic Accidents
(C) Anthrax
(D) Rabies
Ans: B
18. Which of the following is the value fixed for minimum level of iodine in salt at consumer level under Prevention of Food Adulteration Act.?
(A) 30 PPM
(B) 100 PPM
(C) 20 PPM
(D) 15 PPM
Ans: D
19. At what level of Net Reproduction Rate is the reproductive performance of the population below replacement level?
(A) 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) More than 1
(D) 1.5
Ans: B
20. The term family size in demography refers to
(A) Total number of persons in a family.
(B) Total number of daughters a woman has borne at a point in time.
(C) Total number of children a woman has borne at a point in time.
(D) Total number of children a woman has borne between the ages of 15-45 years.
Ans: C
21. Which infectious disease has longest incubation period?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Plague
(C) Malaria
(D) Leprosy
Ans: D
22. Which infectious disease has no carrier state?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Gonorrhoea
Ans: C
23. How many K cal/day are required by sedentary adult women?
(A) 1500
(B) 1775
(C) 1875
(D) 2100
Ans: C
24. What is the amount of saturated fatty acids in Ghee (gm/100 gm)?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 75
Ans: B
25. One tablespoon contents is equal to
(A) 1 ml
(B) 5 ml
(C) 10 ml
(D) 15 ml
Ans: D
26. The Dose of BCG vaccine for new born child is
(A) 0.01 ml
(B) 0.02 ml
(C) 0.05 ml
(D) 0.1 ml
Ans: C
27. Antirabic treatment is not indicated for
(A) Wild Animal bite
(B) Cow bite
(C) Dog bite
(D) Rat bite
Ans: D
28. IQ range for normal person is (By Binet & Simon test)
(A) 50 to 69
(B) 70 to 79
(C) 80 to 89
(D) Above 89
Ans: D
29. The oldest public health law is
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
(B) ESIS Act
(C) The Epidemic Diseases Act
(D) The Factories Act
Ans: C
30. In a large scale purification of water the optimum storage of river water should be
(A) upto 2 days
(B) 2 to 10 days
(C) 10 to 14 days
(D) 15 to 20 days
Ans: C
31. Under the ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ which of the following is the amount of cash assistance given to mother’s delivering in a health institution/ health centre, in a low performing state?
(A) Rs. 700
(B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 1,400
(D) Rs. 900
Ans: C
32. The commonest opportunistic infection associated with HIV in India is
(A) Cryptosporidiosis
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Pneumocystis pneumonia
Ans: C
33. The daily requirement of Iodine in adult male
(A) 10 μ gm/day
(B) 50 μ gm/day
(C) 100 μ gm/day
(D) 150 μ gm/day
Ans: D
34. Primary health care concept was formed by Alma ata Conference in
(A) 1950
(B) 1970
(C) 1978
(D) 1998
Ans: C
35. The incidence of Hydatid disease is highest in
(A) Northern India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Southern India
(D) Western India
Ans: C
36. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
(A) True positive
(B) False positive
(C) True negative
(D) False negative
Ans: C
37. The Body Mass Index (BMI) for a normal adult is
(A) 13.5 – 17.99
(B) 18.5 – 24.99
(C) 25.5 – 30.99
(D) 31.5 – 35.99
Ans: B
38. The most common site of cancer in males in India is
(A) Lung
(B) Prostate
(C) Oro-pharynx
(D) Esophagus
Ans: A
39. The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is
(A) Obesity
(B) Stress
(C) Salt intake
(D) Age
Ans: D
40. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days for residual paralysis after onset of paralysis?
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 60 days
Ans: D
Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
41. List – I List – II
(Type of Vaccine) (Diseases)
(a) Live vaccine (i) Pertussis
(b) Killed vaccine (ii) B.C.G.
(c) Inactivated vaccine (iii) Diphtheria
(d) Toxoid (iv) Rabies
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: D
42. List – I List – II
(Vaccinses) (Routes)
(a) Measles (i) Oral
(b) BCG (ii) Subcutaneous
(c) DPT (iii) Intradermal
(d) OPV (iv) Intramuscular
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: D
43. List – I List – II
(Places) (Population)
(a) Anganwadi (i) 1,00,000
(b) Rural subcentre (ii) 1,000
(c) Primary Health Centre (iii) 5,000
(d) Community Health centre (iv) 30,000
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans: A
44. List – I List – II
(Diseases) (Methods of control)
(a) AIDS (i) Immunization
(b) Yaws (ii) Chemotheraphy
(c) Typhoid Fever (iii) Use of Condom
(d) Tetanus (iv) Sanitation
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Ans: B
45. List – I List – II
(Breeding Places) (Vector)
(a) Stagnant water (i) Anopheles
(b) Clear running water (ii) Calex
(c) Water in cans (iii) Mansonia
(d) Water weeds (iv) Ades
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: B
46. List – I List – II
(Level of Prevention) (Strategy)
(a) Health promotion (i) Immunization
(b) Specific protection (ii) Blind School
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment (iii) Nutrition Education
(d) Rehabilitation (iv) Case finding
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: A
47. List – I List – II
(Recommended maximum limit of) (Concentration)
(a) Lead (i) 1.5 mg / litre
(b) Fluoride (ii) 0.01 mg / litre
(c) Mercury (iii) 50 mg / litre
(d) Nitrate (iv) 0.001 mg / litre
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
48. List – I List – II
(Diseases) (Antibiotic used in chemoprophylaxis)
(a) Cholera (i) Amantadine
(b) Bacterial conjunctivitis (ii) Tetracycline
(c) Meningococcal (iii) Erythromycin
(d) Meningities Influenza (iv) Sulphadiazine
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: A
49. List – I List – II
(Nutrient) (Rich sources)
(a) Iron (i) Amla
(b) Calcium (ii) Groundnuts
(c) Vitamin C (iii) Ragi
(d) Niacin (iv) Green leafy vegetables
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: D
50. List – I List – II
(Types of Dust) (Pneumoconiosis)
(a) Coal (i) Bagassosis
(b) Cotton fibre (ii) Farmer’s Lung
(c) Grain (iii) Anthracosis
(d) Sugar cane (iv) Byssinosis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans: A
(A) < 0.5 mg
(B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg
(C) > 0.8 to < 1.2 mg
(D) > 1.2 mg
Ans: B
2. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential?
(A) Leucin
(B) Isoleucine
(C) Lysine
(D) Glycine
Ans: D
3. The most invasive and virulent species of Brucella Micro-organism is
(A) B. Melitnsis
(B) B. Abortus
(C) B. Suis
(D) B. Canis
Ans: A
4. All of the following diseases require surveillance according to WHO except:
(A) Chicken-pox
(B) Yellow fever
(C) Malaria
(D) Rabies
Ans: A
5. Salk vaccine is a
(A) Live vaccine
(B) Live attenuated vaccine
(C) Killed vaccine
(D) Toxoid
Ans: C
6. The most widely used strain of rubella virus for vaccine production is
(A) HPV/77
(B) Japanese To 336
(C) RA 27/3
(D) Cendehill virus
Ans: C
7. All of the following are reasons for rapid spread of influenza except:
(A) Short incubation period
(B) Large number of subclinical cases
(C) Presence of cross immunity
(D) Short duration of immunity
Ans: C
8. Which of the following characteristics are true for a ‘Case Control Study’?
(A) Both exposure and outcome have occurred before start of a study.
(B) It cannot test causal hypothesis.
(C) Relative risk can be calculated.
(D) A long period of follow up is required.
Ans: A
9. The area is aid to be hyper endemic if spleen rate exceeds
(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Ans: C
10. The denominator for ‘General Fertility Rate’ is
(A) Mid-year population
(B) Mid-year population of 15-45 years
(C) Mid-year population of all women
(D) Mid-year population of 15-45 year age group married women
Ans: B
11. All are true of cohort study except
(A) Both groups are free of disease.
(B) The study proceeds from cause to effect.
(C) It is an observational study.
(D) Relative risk cannot be computed.
Ans: D
12. The radiation exposure in mammography is
(A) 0.3 rads
(B) 1 rad
(C) 5 rads
(D) 10 rads
Ans: A
13. The components of validity of screening tests are
I. Sensitivity
II. Specificity
III. Positive Predictive Value
IV. Negative Predictive Value
(A) I, II and III correct
(B) I and II correct
(C) I, III and IV correct
(D) I and IV correct
Ans: B
14. Which of the following viral hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination?
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C
IV. Hepatitis E
(A) I & II correct
(B) I, II & III correct
(C) I & III correct
(D) II, III & IV correct
Ans: A
15. Reduced osmalarity ORS recommended by WHO and UNICEF have following ingredients:
I. Sodium Chloride
II. Soda bicarob
III. Potassium Chloride
IV. Trisodium citrate dihydrate
(A) I, II, & III correct
(B) II & III correct
(C) I, II & IV correct
(D) I, III & IV correct
Ans: D
16. What is the recommended management of a child who is found allergic to DPT?
(A) Give DTaP/DT instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(B) Give DT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(C) Give TT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(D) Give DPT after two weeks and continue with remaining doses.
Ans: A
17. Which one of the following conditions is under Regular Surveillance under Integrated Disease Surveillance programme?
(A) Leprosy
(B) Road Traffic Accidents
(C) Anthrax
(D) Rabies
Ans: B
18. Which of the following is the value fixed for minimum level of iodine in salt at consumer level under Prevention of Food Adulteration Act.?
(A) 30 PPM
(B) 100 PPM
(C) 20 PPM
(D) 15 PPM
Ans: D
19. At what level of Net Reproduction Rate is the reproductive performance of the population below replacement level?
(A) 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) More than 1
(D) 1.5
Ans: B
20. The term family size in demography refers to
(A) Total number of persons in a family.
(B) Total number of daughters a woman has borne at a point in time.
(C) Total number of children a woman has borne at a point in time.
(D) Total number of children a woman has borne between the ages of 15-45 years.
Ans: C
21. Which infectious disease has longest incubation period?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Plague
(C) Malaria
(D) Leprosy
Ans: D
22. Which infectious disease has no carrier state?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Gonorrhoea
Ans: C
23. How many K cal/day are required by sedentary adult women?
(A) 1500
(B) 1775
(C) 1875
(D) 2100
Ans: C
24. What is the amount of saturated fatty acids in Ghee (gm/100 gm)?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 75
Ans: B
25. One tablespoon contents is equal to
(A) 1 ml
(B) 5 ml
(C) 10 ml
(D) 15 ml
Ans: D
26. The Dose of BCG vaccine for new born child is
(A) 0.01 ml
(B) 0.02 ml
(C) 0.05 ml
(D) 0.1 ml
Ans: C
27. Antirabic treatment is not indicated for
(A) Wild Animal bite
(B) Cow bite
(C) Dog bite
(D) Rat bite
Ans: D
28. IQ range for normal person is (By Binet & Simon test)
(A) 50 to 69
(B) 70 to 79
(C) 80 to 89
(D) Above 89
Ans: D
29. The oldest public health law is
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
(B) ESIS Act
(C) The Epidemic Diseases Act
(D) The Factories Act
Ans: C
30. In a large scale purification of water the optimum storage of river water should be
(A) upto 2 days
(B) 2 to 10 days
(C) 10 to 14 days
(D) 15 to 20 days
Ans: C
31. Under the ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ which of the following is the amount of cash assistance given to mother’s delivering in a health institution/ health centre, in a low performing state?
(A) Rs. 700
(B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 1,400
(D) Rs. 900
Ans: C
32. The commonest opportunistic infection associated with HIV in India is
(A) Cryptosporidiosis
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Pneumocystis pneumonia
Ans: C
33. The daily requirement of Iodine in adult male
(A) 10 μ gm/day
(B) 50 μ gm/day
(C) 100 μ gm/day
(D) 150 μ gm/day
Ans: D
34. Primary health care concept was formed by Alma ata Conference in
(A) 1950
(B) 1970
(C) 1978
(D) 1998
Ans: C
35. The incidence of Hydatid disease is highest in
(A) Northern India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Southern India
(D) Western India
Ans: C
36. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
(A) True positive
(B) False positive
(C) True negative
(D) False negative
Ans: C
37. The Body Mass Index (BMI) for a normal adult is
(A) 13.5 – 17.99
(B) 18.5 – 24.99
(C) 25.5 – 30.99
(D) 31.5 – 35.99
Ans: B
38. The most common site of cancer in males in India is
(A) Lung
(B) Prostate
(C) Oro-pharynx
(D) Esophagus
Ans: A
39. The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is
(A) Obesity
(B) Stress
(C) Salt intake
(D) Age
Ans: D
40. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days for residual paralysis after onset of paralysis?
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 60 days
Ans: D
Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
41. List – I List – II
(Type of Vaccine) (Diseases)
(a) Live vaccine (i) Pertussis
(b) Killed vaccine (ii) B.C.G.
(c) Inactivated vaccine (iii) Diphtheria
(d) Toxoid (iv) Rabies
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: D
42. List – I List – II
(Vaccinses) (Routes)
(a) Measles (i) Oral
(b) BCG (ii) Subcutaneous
(c) DPT (iii) Intradermal
(d) OPV (iv) Intramuscular
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: D
43. List – I List – II
(Places) (Population)
(a) Anganwadi (i) 1,00,000
(b) Rural subcentre (ii) 1,000
(c) Primary Health Centre (iii) 5,000
(d) Community Health centre (iv) 30,000
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans: A
44. List – I List – II
(Diseases) (Methods of control)
(a) AIDS (i) Immunization
(b) Yaws (ii) Chemotheraphy
(c) Typhoid Fever (iii) Use of Condom
(d) Tetanus (iv) Sanitation
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Ans: B
45. List – I List – II
(Breeding Places) (Vector)
(a) Stagnant water (i) Anopheles
(b) Clear running water (ii) Calex
(c) Water in cans (iii) Mansonia
(d) Water weeds (iv) Ades
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: B
46. List – I List – II
(Level of Prevention) (Strategy)
(a) Health promotion (i) Immunization
(b) Specific protection (ii) Blind School
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment (iii) Nutrition Education
(d) Rehabilitation (iv) Case finding
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: A
47. List – I List – II
(Recommended maximum limit of) (Concentration)
(a) Lead (i) 1.5 mg / litre
(b) Fluoride (ii) 0.01 mg / litre
(c) Mercury (iii) 50 mg / litre
(d) Nitrate (iv) 0.001 mg / litre
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
48. List – I List – II
(Diseases) (Antibiotic used in chemoprophylaxis)
(a) Cholera (i) Amantadine
(b) Bacterial conjunctivitis (ii) Tetracycline
(c) Meningococcal (iii) Erythromycin
(d) Meningities Influenza (iv) Sulphadiazine
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: A
49. List – I List – II
(Nutrient) (Rich sources)
(a) Iron (i) Amla
(b) Calcium (ii) Groundnuts
(c) Vitamin C (iii) Ragi
(d) Niacin (iv) Green leafy vegetables
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: D
50. List – I List – II
(Types of Dust) (Pneumoconiosis)
(a) Coal (i) Bagassosis
(b) Cotton fibre (ii) Farmer’s Lung
(c) Grain (iii) Anthracosis
(d) Sugar cane (iv) Byssinosis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans: A
51. Ergonomics refers to
(A) Social Engineering
(B) Genetic Engineering
(C) Human Engineering
(D) Occupational Alterations
Ans: C
52. Cereals are deficient in which amino acid?
(A) Lysine
(B) Methionine
(C) Leucine
(D) Tryptophans
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is the most important cause of Infant Mortality in India?
(A) Respiratory infections
(B) Low Birth Weight (LBW)
(C) Diarrhoeal Diseases
(D) Cord infections
Ans: B
54. Which of the following is the maximum intensity of sound that can be tolerated by humans on a daily basis in decibels (dB) without substantial damage to their hearing?
(A) 60 dB
(B) 85 dB
(C) 100 dB
(D) 120 dB
Ans: B
55. Which of the following is the goal to be achieved by 2015 as per the National Health Policy 2002?
(A) Eradicate Polio and Yaws
(B) Eliminate Leprosy
(C) Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis
(D) Achieve Zero growth of HIV/AIDS
Ans: C
56. The term ‘Comprehensive health care’ was used for the first time by which of the following committees?
(A) Bhore Committee
(B) Mukerji Committee
(C) Jungalwalla Committee
(D) Kartar Singh Committee
Ans: A
57. The Births, Deaths and Marriages Registration Act was passed by the Government of India in the year:
(A) 1872
(B) 1975
(C) 1873
(D) 1985
Ans: C
58. Which of the following areas in India is ‘Rabies Free’?
(A) Goa
(B) Nagland
(C) Sikkim
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Ans: D
59. In which one of the following cities was the First International Sanitary Conference held in the year 1851?
(A) Geneva
(B) Paris
(C) Copenhagen
(D) London
Ans: B
60. Which one of the following indices is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality?
(A) Parasite Rate
(B) Spleen Rate
(C) Infant Parasite Rate
(D) Average Enlarged spleen
Ans: C
61. The impact indicator for monitoring ASHA’s work set up by the Government of India is
(A) Percentage of children with diarrhoea receiving ORS.
(B) Percentage of institutional deliveries.
(C) Percentage of ASHA’s attending review meetings.
(D) Child Malnutrition rates.
Ans: D
62. Which of the following of the millennium Development Goals is to ‘Develop a global partnership for development’?
(A) Goal 5
(B) Goal 4
(C) Goal 8
(D) Goal 1
Ans: C
63. The target age group for measles catch up campaign is
(A) 9 months to 5 years
(B) 9 months to 6 years
(C) 9 months to 10 years
(D) 9 months to 14 years
Ans: C
64. In the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program a Designated Microscopy centre is established for:
(A) 1 Lakh in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(B) 1 Lakh in plains and 50,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(C) 50,000 in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(D) 50,000 in plains and 20,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
Ans: B
65. Which of the following is not a recommendation of a WHO study group 2011, for recording blood pressure?
(A) Record B.P. in a sitting position
(B) Measure B.P. thrice over a period of at least 3 minutes
(C) Take the average of three readings as correct B.P
(D) Use one arm consistently
Ans: C
66. Tobacco use is associated with all the following cancers except:
(A) Bladder
(B) Liver
(C) Pancrease
(D) Pharynx
Ans: B
67. Glycosylated haemoglobin is indicative of mean blood glucose levels during the past
(A) 2-3 days
(B) 2-3 weeks
(C) 2-3 months
(D) 2-3 years
Ans: C
68. Provision of concentrated solution of Vitamin A to every child from 9 months to 5 years of age as a prophylactic dose, every 6 monthly was supported by
(A) UNICEF
(B) WHO
(C) UNDP
(D) World Bank
Ans: A
69. What is meant by an exclusive breast feeding during first six months of Infancy?
(A) Feeding only breast milk including colostrum
(B) Feeding only breast milk excluding colostrum
(C) Feeding breast milk and boiled water
(D) Feeding breast milk and sugar water
Ans: A
70. Pap smear test for women is currently recommended at
(A) every year in women aged more than 35 years.
(B) beginning of sexual activity and every year after that.
(C) beginning of sexual activity and every 3 years after that.
(D) every year in married women.
Ans: C
71. Exposure to radiation in mammography is
(A) more than 10 times higher radiation risk than M chest X-rays.
(B) same radiation risk as chest X-Ray.
(C) Lower radiation risk than a chest X-ray.
(D) No risk of radiation.
Ans: A
72. The follow up prescribed for a woman after IUCD insertation is
(A) every month for one year.
(B) after her first and third menstrual periods and 6 months after that.
(C) after her first menstrual period and 6 months after that.
(D) after three months and every month thereafter.
Ans: B
73. Special Newborn Care Unit (SNCU) should be there in
(A) any facility with more than 1000 deliveries per year.
(B) any facility with more than 1,000 deliveries per month.
(C) any facility with more than 3000 deliveries per month.
(D) any facility with more than 3000 deliveries per year.
Ans: D
74. The level at which increase in knowledge is brought about by communication is known as
(A) Cognitive domen
(B) Affective domen
(C) Psychomotor domen
(D) Social domen
Ans: A
75. Which of the following vaccines are given at birth in India as per National Immunization schedule?
I. BCG
II. OPV
III. Hepatitis-B
IV. Hepatitis-A
(A) I, II, III are correct.
(B) II, III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II, IV are correct.
(D) III, IV, I are correct.
Ans: A
76. Which of the following countries comes under W.H.O. South East Asia Region?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Egypt
Ans: C
77. Which of the following are true regarding point source epidemic?
I. All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously.
II. Children are most commonly affected.
III. Occurs with a specified incubation period.
IV. The epidemic curve rises and falls rapidly.
(A) I, III, IV are correct.
(B) II, III, IV are correct.
(C) II, III are correct.
(D) I, II are correct.
Ans: A
78. Which of the following prevalence criteria are used to determine the problem of xerophthalmia in children aged 6 months to 6 years:
I. Night blindness more than 1%
II. Bitots spots more than 0.05%
III. Corneal xerosis more than 0.01%
IV. Serum retinol (less than 10 mcgldl) more than 5%
(A) II, III, IV are correct.
(B) I, III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II are correct.
(D) II, III are correct.
Ans: B
79. Which of the following are true about Anopheles mosquitoes?
I. Eggs boat shaped and pointed with parallel floats.
II. Larvae rest parallel to water surface
III. Larvae have siphon tubes.
IV. Wings of adult are spotted
(A) I, III are correct.
(B) II, III are correct.
(C) II, III, IV are correct.
(D) I, II, IV are correct.
Ans: D
80. Which of the following are means of primary prevention of Hypertension?
I. Dietary changes
II. Cessation of smoking
III. Early diagnosis
IV. Regular physical exercise
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III
(D) III, IV
Ans: A
81. Which of the following statements are correct about assessment of growth and development in children?
I. Mean rather than median is used because of a skewed distribution of most of the anthropometric measurements.
II. A variation of 25 D from either side of the mean is considered as normal.
III. Normal children fall between 3rd and 97th percentile.
IV. Percentiles refer to the percentage of individuals falling above a particular level.
(A) II and III are correct.
(B) I and II are correct.
(C) II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Ans: A
82. Which of the following statements are correct about epidemiological assessment iodine deficiency?
I. Urinary iodine excretion is recommended.
II. Neonatal hypothyroidism has been found to be a sensitive indicator for environmental iodine deficiency.
III. Serum T3 level is a more sensitive indicator of thyroid insufficiency than T4.
IV. Prevalence of cretinism is a recommended indicator.
(A) I and III are correct.
(B) III and IV are correct.
(C) I, II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Ans: C
83. Which of the following organs are affected among cancers attributed to occupational exposure?
I. Lung
II. Breast
III. Bladder
IV. Liver
(A) II, III & IV are correct.
(B) I, III & IV are correct.
(C) I & II are correct.
(D) II & IV are correct.
Ans: B
84. Which of the following is a vaccine preventable disease?
(A) Malaria
(B) HIV/AIDS
(C) Poliomyelitis
(D) Dengue fever
Ans: C
85. Sex ratio in the Indian context is expressed as
(A) Number of males per 1000 females.
(B) Number of females per 1000 males.
(C) Number of males per 100 females.
(D) Number of females per 100 males.
Ans: B
86. Use of Oral Rehydration solution in place of Intravenous fluids for treating mild dehydration is an example of
(A) Equitable distribution
(B) Inter-sectoral co-ordination
(C) Appropriate technology
(D) Community participation
Ans: C
87. Orthotoluidine test determines
(A) Free chlorine
(B) Residual chlorine
(C) Combined chlorine
(D) Both free and combined chlorine
Ans: D
88. Sentinal surveillance is done for identifying
(A) Missed cases
(B) Index case
(C) Sub-clinical cases
(D) Carriers
Ans: A
89. Anti-tetanus serum is prepared from
(A) Rat
(B) Rabbit
(C) Guinea pig
(D) Horse
Ans: D
90. Sensitivity of a screening test is the ability to correctly identify
(A) True positives
(B) True negatives
(C) False positives
(D) False negatives
Ans: A
91. Minimum interval between two doses of Vaccines should be
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
Ans: B
92. AedesAegypti is a vector that transmits
(A) Malaria
(B) Filaria
(C) Dengue fever
(D) Diarrhoeal Diseases
Ans: C
93. According to WHO, blindness is defined as a visual acuity of the better eye, less than
(A) 6/60 (B) 5/60 (C) 4/60 (D) 3/60
Ans: D
94. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansen’s Disease is
(A) Pain (B) Touch (C) Vibration (D) Temperature
Ans: B
95. The criteria for validity of a screening test are
(A) Accuracy (B) Reproducibility (C) Sensitivity and specificity (D) Cost effectiveness
Ans: C
96. According to the WHO, what is the minimum bacteriological standard for drinking water :
(A) All the samples should not contain E. coli organisms. (B) 3 consecutive samples of water should not contain any coliforms.
(C) 3 coliforms in a 100 ml. water sample. (D) 1 coliform in a 100 ml water sample
Ans: A
97. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by rat flea ?
(A) Trench Fever (B) Chagas Disease (C) Oriental Sere (D) Endemic Typhus
Ans: D
98. The law stating that “the relative frequency of each gene allele tend to remain constant from generation to generation” is known as
(A) Mendel’s Law (B) David-Morgan’s Law (C) Hardy-Weinberg Law (D) Lamarck’s law
Ans: C
99. The ‘concurrent list’ of the constitution of India lists the following functions, except
(A) Prevention of extension of communicable diseases (B) Administration of hospital and health services.
(C) Collection and compilation of vital statistics (D) Labour Welfare
Ans: B
100. Under the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Shramik Kalyan Yojana, in the case of a closure of a factory/establishment entitles a worker to get once during service an unemployment allowance for a period of
(A) 6 months (B) 9 months (C) 12 months (D) 18 months
Ans: A
(A) Social Engineering
(B) Genetic Engineering
(C) Human Engineering
(D) Occupational Alterations
Ans: C
52. Cereals are deficient in which amino acid?
(A) Lysine
(B) Methionine
(C) Leucine
(D) Tryptophans
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is the most important cause of Infant Mortality in India?
(A) Respiratory infections
(B) Low Birth Weight (LBW)
(C) Diarrhoeal Diseases
(D) Cord infections
Ans: B
54. Which of the following is the maximum intensity of sound that can be tolerated by humans on a daily basis in decibels (dB) without substantial damage to their hearing?
(A) 60 dB
(B) 85 dB
(C) 100 dB
(D) 120 dB
Ans: B
55. Which of the following is the goal to be achieved by 2015 as per the National Health Policy 2002?
(A) Eradicate Polio and Yaws
(B) Eliminate Leprosy
(C) Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis
(D) Achieve Zero growth of HIV/AIDS
Ans: C
56. The term ‘Comprehensive health care’ was used for the first time by which of the following committees?
(A) Bhore Committee
(B) Mukerji Committee
(C) Jungalwalla Committee
(D) Kartar Singh Committee
Ans: A
57. The Births, Deaths and Marriages Registration Act was passed by the Government of India in the year:
(A) 1872
(B) 1975
(C) 1873
(D) 1985
Ans: C
58. Which of the following areas in India is ‘Rabies Free’?
(A) Goa
(B) Nagland
(C) Sikkim
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Ans: D
59. In which one of the following cities was the First International Sanitary Conference held in the year 1851?
(A) Geneva
(B) Paris
(C) Copenhagen
(D) London
Ans: B
60. Which one of the following indices is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality?
(A) Parasite Rate
(B) Spleen Rate
(C) Infant Parasite Rate
(D) Average Enlarged spleen
Ans: C
61. The impact indicator for monitoring ASHA’s work set up by the Government of India is
(A) Percentage of children with diarrhoea receiving ORS.
(B) Percentage of institutional deliveries.
(C) Percentage of ASHA’s attending review meetings.
(D) Child Malnutrition rates.
Ans: D
62. Which of the following of the millennium Development Goals is to ‘Develop a global partnership for development’?
(A) Goal 5
(B) Goal 4
(C) Goal 8
(D) Goal 1
Ans: C
63. The target age group for measles catch up campaign is
(A) 9 months to 5 years
(B) 9 months to 6 years
(C) 9 months to 10 years
(D) 9 months to 14 years
Ans: C
64. In the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program a Designated Microscopy centre is established for:
(A) 1 Lakh in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(B) 1 Lakh in plains and 50,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(C) 50,000 in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(D) 50,000 in plains and 20,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
Ans: B
65. Which of the following is not a recommendation of a WHO study group 2011, for recording blood pressure?
(A) Record B.P. in a sitting position
(B) Measure B.P. thrice over a period of at least 3 minutes
(C) Take the average of three readings as correct B.P
(D) Use one arm consistently
Ans: C
66. Tobacco use is associated with all the following cancers except:
(A) Bladder
(B) Liver
(C) Pancrease
(D) Pharynx
Ans: B
67. Glycosylated haemoglobin is indicative of mean blood glucose levels during the past
(A) 2-3 days
(B) 2-3 weeks
(C) 2-3 months
(D) 2-3 years
Ans: C
68. Provision of concentrated solution of Vitamin A to every child from 9 months to 5 years of age as a prophylactic dose, every 6 monthly was supported by
(A) UNICEF
(B) WHO
(C) UNDP
(D) World Bank
Ans: A
69. What is meant by an exclusive breast feeding during first six months of Infancy?
(A) Feeding only breast milk including colostrum
(B) Feeding only breast milk excluding colostrum
(C) Feeding breast milk and boiled water
(D) Feeding breast milk and sugar water
Ans: A
70. Pap smear test for women is currently recommended at
(A) every year in women aged more than 35 years.
(B) beginning of sexual activity and every year after that.
(C) beginning of sexual activity and every 3 years after that.
(D) every year in married women.
Ans: C
71. Exposure to radiation in mammography is
(A) more than 10 times higher radiation risk than M chest X-rays.
(B) same radiation risk as chest X-Ray.
(C) Lower radiation risk than a chest X-ray.
(D) No risk of radiation.
Ans: A
72. The follow up prescribed for a woman after IUCD insertation is
(A) every month for one year.
(B) after her first and third menstrual periods and 6 months after that.
(C) after her first menstrual period and 6 months after that.
(D) after three months and every month thereafter.
Ans: B
73. Special Newborn Care Unit (SNCU) should be there in
(A) any facility with more than 1000 deliveries per year.
(B) any facility with more than 1,000 deliveries per month.
(C) any facility with more than 3000 deliveries per month.
(D) any facility with more than 3000 deliveries per year.
Ans: D
74. The level at which increase in knowledge is brought about by communication is known as
(A) Cognitive domen
(B) Affective domen
(C) Psychomotor domen
(D) Social domen
Ans: A
75. Which of the following vaccines are given at birth in India as per National Immunization schedule?
I. BCG
II. OPV
III. Hepatitis-B
IV. Hepatitis-A
(A) I, II, III are correct.
(B) II, III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II, IV are correct.
(D) III, IV, I are correct.
Ans: A
76. Which of the following countries comes under W.H.O. South East Asia Region?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Egypt
Ans: C
77. Which of the following are true regarding point source epidemic?
I. All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously.
II. Children are most commonly affected.
III. Occurs with a specified incubation period.
IV. The epidemic curve rises and falls rapidly.
(A) I, III, IV are correct.
(B) II, III, IV are correct.
(C) II, III are correct.
(D) I, II are correct.
Ans: A
78. Which of the following prevalence criteria are used to determine the problem of xerophthalmia in children aged 6 months to 6 years:
I. Night blindness more than 1%
II. Bitots spots more than 0.05%
III. Corneal xerosis more than 0.01%
IV. Serum retinol (less than 10 mcgldl) more than 5%
(A) II, III, IV are correct.
(B) I, III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II are correct.
(D) II, III are correct.
Ans: B
79. Which of the following are true about Anopheles mosquitoes?
I. Eggs boat shaped and pointed with parallel floats.
II. Larvae rest parallel to water surface
III. Larvae have siphon tubes.
IV. Wings of adult are spotted
(A) I, III are correct.
(B) II, III are correct.
(C) II, III, IV are correct.
(D) I, II, IV are correct.
Ans: D
80. Which of the following are means of primary prevention of Hypertension?
I. Dietary changes
II. Cessation of smoking
III. Early diagnosis
IV. Regular physical exercise
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III
(D) III, IV
Ans: A
81. Which of the following statements are correct about assessment of growth and development in children?
I. Mean rather than median is used because of a skewed distribution of most of the anthropometric measurements.
II. A variation of 25 D from either side of the mean is considered as normal.
III. Normal children fall between 3rd and 97th percentile.
IV. Percentiles refer to the percentage of individuals falling above a particular level.
(A) II and III are correct.
(B) I and II are correct.
(C) II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Ans: A
82. Which of the following statements are correct about epidemiological assessment iodine deficiency?
I. Urinary iodine excretion is recommended.
II. Neonatal hypothyroidism has been found to be a sensitive indicator for environmental iodine deficiency.
III. Serum T3 level is a more sensitive indicator of thyroid insufficiency than T4.
IV. Prevalence of cretinism is a recommended indicator.
(A) I and III are correct.
(B) III and IV are correct.
(C) I, II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Ans: C
83. Which of the following organs are affected among cancers attributed to occupational exposure?
I. Lung
II. Breast
III. Bladder
IV. Liver
(A) II, III & IV are correct.
(B) I, III & IV are correct.
(C) I & II are correct.
(D) II & IV are correct.
Ans: B
84. Which of the following is a vaccine preventable disease?
(A) Malaria
(B) HIV/AIDS
(C) Poliomyelitis
(D) Dengue fever
Ans: C
85. Sex ratio in the Indian context is expressed as
(A) Number of males per 1000 females.
(B) Number of females per 1000 males.
(C) Number of males per 100 females.
(D) Number of females per 100 males.
Ans: B
86. Use of Oral Rehydration solution in place of Intravenous fluids for treating mild dehydration is an example of
(A) Equitable distribution
(B) Inter-sectoral co-ordination
(C) Appropriate technology
(D) Community participation
Ans: C
87. Orthotoluidine test determines
(A) Free chlorine
(B) Residual chlorine
(C) Combined chlorine
(D) Both free and combined chlorine
Ans: D
88. Sentinal surveillance is done for identifying
(A) Missed cases
(B) Index case
(C) Sub-clinical cases
(D) Carriers
Ans: A
89. Anti-tetanus serum is prepared from
(A) Rat
(B) Rabbit
(C) Guinea pig
(D) Horse
Ans: D
90. Sensitivity of a screening test is the ability to correctly identify
(A) True positives
(B) True negatives
(C) False positives
(D) False negatives
Ans: A
91. Minimum interval between two doses of Vaccines should be
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
Ans: B
92. AedesAegypti is a vector that transmits
(A) Malaria
(B) Filaria
(C) Dengue fever
(D) Diarrhoeal Diseases
Ans: C
93. According to WHO, blindness is defined as a visual acuity of the better eye, less than
(A) 6/60 (B) 5/60 (C) 4/60 (D) 3/60
Ans: D
94. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansen’s Disease is
(A) Pain (B) Touch (C) Vibration (D) Temperature
Ans: B
95. The criteria for validity of a screening test are
(A) Accuracy (B) Reproducibility (C) Sensitivity and specificity (D) Cost effectiveness
Ans: C
96. According to the WHO, what is the minimum bacteriological standard for drinking water :
(A) All the samples should not contain E. coli organisms. (B) 3 consecutive samples of water should not contain any coliforms.
(C) 3 coliforms in a 100 ml. water sample. (D) 1 coliform in a 100 ml water sample
Ans: A
97. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by rat flea ?
(A) Trench Fever (B) Chagas Disease (C) Oriental Sere (D) Endemic Typhus
Ans: D
98. The law stating that “the relative frequency of each gene allele tend to remain constant from generation to generation” is known as
(A) Mendel’s Law (B) David-Morgan’s Law (C) Hardy-Weinberg Law (D) Lamarck’s law
Ans: C
99. The ‘concurrent list’ of the constitution of India lists the following functions, except
(A) Prevention of extension of communicable diseases (B) Administration of hospital and health services.
(C) Collection and compilation of vital statistics (D) Labour Welfare
Ans: B
100. Under the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Shramik Kalyan Yojana, in the case of a closure of a factory/establishment entitles a worker to get once during service an unemployment allowance for a period of
(A) 6 months (B) 9 months (C) 12 months (D) 18 months
Ans: A
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine