SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH- PAGE 4
SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH MCQs
1. Visceral protein malnutrition that tends to occur in Developing Countries during the weaning of children from breast milk is known as
(A) Anabolism
(B) Anasarca
(C) Cachexia
(D) Kwashiorkor
Ans: D
2. The current recommendation for the Dietary intake for fats in adults is to have intake of
(A) 10% of total daily calories
(B) 30% of total daily calories
(C) 65 grams per day
(D) 75 grams per day
Ans: B
3. Of the following environmental hazards the only one categorised as a Non-Threshold hazard is
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Heat
(C) Ionising Radiation
(D) Noise
Ans: C
4. The Ames test is used to
(A) Determine Antibiotic susceptibility
(B) Adequacy of Ventilation in a room
(C) Estimate the Carcinogenic potential of a chemical
(D) Quantification of Radiation exposure
Ans: C
5. The indoor Air pollutant of greatest public health importance is
(A) Environmental Tobacco Smoke
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Aromatic amines
Ans: A
6. The administration of Human Immunoglobulin after exposure of Hepatitis B is an example of
(A) Active Immunity
(B) Passive Immunity
(C) Health Promotion
(D) Herd Immunity
Ans: B
7. Which of the following vaccines would most likely to be dangerous to a person with Immune deficiency?
(A) Diptheria Vaccine
(B) Hepatitis B Vaccine
(C) Measles Vaccine
(D) Typhoid Vaccine
Ans: B
8. A modified influenza vaccine must be produced every year because of change of nature of influenza virus. Which of the following study design is appropriate to test the efficiency of the vaccine for a particular year?
(A) A Randomised field trial
(B) A Retrospective cohort study
(C) Review of data from previous years
(D) Routine surveillance
Ans: B
9. The principle reason for extending the administration of Measles vaccine till 15 months is
(A) Measles infection is less severe in infants.
(B) Infants are immune to Measles.
(C) Maternal antibody inactivates the measles vaccine in infants.
(D) Measles vaccine being a live vaccine can cause severe reaction in infants.
Ans: C
10. New a cellular vaccine is available to prevent, which of the following diseases?
(A) Lyme disease
(B) Measles
(C) Pertussis
(D) Rubella
Ans: C
11. An appropriate example of secondary prevention is all except
(A) Treatment of Diabetic nephropathy
(B) Detection and treatment of hypertension
(C) Percutaneous Tran’s luminal Coronary Angioplasty
(D) Vaccination against Hepatitis B
Ans: B
12. Data’s obtained through screening at Health meals are of little value because of
(A) Bias in sampling due to self-selection.
(B) Most conditions are rare in random samples.
(C) False positive results are common.
(D) Possibility of missing co-morbid conditions quite frequent.
Ans: A
13. The modifiable risk factors of coronary heart disease are all except
(A) Smoking
(B) Physical Inactivity
(C) Environmental factors
(D) High blood cholesterol
Ans: C
14. Alcohol has been implicated as a modifiable risk factor in all except
(A) Motor vehicle injuries
(B) Cancers
(C) Cirrohosis of liver
(D) Heart disease
Ans: B
15. The following are all clinical risk factors for coronary artery disease except:
(A) Hypertension
(B) High blood cholesterol
(C) Smoking
(D) Type A personality
Ans: C
16. All are the types of selection bias except
(A) Volunteer Bias
(B) Berkesonian Bias
(C) Survivorship Bias
(D) Observers Bias
Ans: D
17. Turners Syndrome is a Genetic disease related to abnormality of
(A) Chromosome 21
(B) Y chromosome
(C) Any Autosome
(D) x chromosome
Ans: D
18. Which of the following is a event type disability indicator?
(A) Limitation of mobility
(B) Bed disability days
(C) Limitation to perform the basic Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
(D) Confinement to Bed house
Ans: B
19. The ratio between incidence among exposed persons and incidence among non-exposed persons is known as
(A) Odds ratio
(B) Attributable risk
(C) Relative risk
(D) Population attributable risk
Ans: C
20. Daily requirement of folic acid during pregnancy as per ICMR 2010 recommendation is
(A) 500 mcg
(B) 200 mcg
(C) 80-120 mcg
(D) 300 mcg
Ans: A
21. Out of total tuberculosis load the percentage contribution of childhood tuberculosis is
(A) < 10
(B) 10 to 20
(C) 30 to 40
(D) ≥ 50
Ans: B
22. Subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well is referred to as
(A) Dysfunction
(B) Diseases
(C) Sickness
(D) Illness
Ans: D
23. A study was started in the year 2005 in Nashik with 30,000 population of alcoholics. The occurrence of cancer amongst them was studied in 2012-13. The study design is
(A) Cash control study
(B) Prospective cohort study
(C) Retrospective cohort study
(D) Cross sectional study
Ans: B
24. Protein energy ratio is maximum for
(A) Fish
(B) Cow milk
(C) Tur dal
(D) Banana
Ans: A
25. The first round of the National Pulse Polio Immunisation in India was held during
(A) 1985-86
(B) 1990-91
(C) 1995-96
(D) 2000-01
Ans: C
26. Handicap in children refers to an impairment or other circumstances that interfere with all except
(A) Normal Growth
(B) Normal Development
(C) Capacity to fulfil a social role
(D) Capacity to learn
Ans: C
27. A verbal autopsy means
(A) examination of a dead body where post mortem facilities are not available.
(B) finding out the cause of death by interviewing the relative of a dead person.
(C) inquest report of panchanama.
(D) periodic death conference.
Ans: B
28. Approximate Energy Expenditure in Kcal/hour on walking 4 kilometres/hour for 60 kg reference man is
(A) 132
(B) 160
(C) 360
(D) 750
Ans: B
29. Persistent carrier state for hepatitis-B refers to carriers of more than
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
Ans: C
30. Goal No. 4 is Millennium Development Goal (MDG) related to child health is, to reduce under 5 mortality rate between 1990-2015 by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: C
31. The mean incubation period of Tetanus is
(A) 7 – 14 days
(B) 1 – 7 days
(C) 7 – 10 days
(D) 7 – 28 days
Ans: A
32. Of the following indices of Malaria, which one provides an idea of recent transmission?
(A) Spleen Rate
(B) Infant Parasite Rate
(C) Parasite Density Rate
(D) Proportional Case Rate
Ans: B
33. The primary series in injectable polio vaccine (IPV) consists of
(A) Two doses
(B) Five doses
(C) Four doses
(D) Three doses
Ans: D
34. All of the following are characteristics of staphylococcal food poisoning except:
(A) Symptoms usually begins 2 to 4 hours after ingestion
(B) The temperature of the patient is usually 101 0F to 102 0F
(C) Death in Normal individuals are rare
(D) Diarrohea, if present may be severe
Ans: B
35. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be detected by dark field microscopy?
(A) Gonorrohea
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) Syphilis
(D) Lympho Granuloma Venereum
Ans: C
36. A person is labelled blind for examined eye when the visual acuity in that eye is less than
(A) 6/18
(B) 6/60
(C) 1/60
(D) 3/60
Ans: D
37. The screening for gestational diabetes is done by
(A) Blood sugar
(B) Urine Examination
(C) Glycosylated Haemoglobin
(D) Eye Examination
Ans: B
38. World’s “No Tobacco Day” is observed on
(A) 7th April
(B) 31st May
(C) 1st December
(D) 11th July
Ans: B
39. Epidemic Dropsy is caused due to
(A) Beta Oxyl Amino Alanine (BOAA)
(B) Aflatoxin
(C) Sanguanarine
(D) Strychnine
Ans: C
40. The occupational health hazard of working with Isopropyl Alcohol is cancer of
(A) Colon
(B) Nasal sinuses
(C) Stomach
(D) Skin
Ans: B
41. Mild anaemia due to interference with Haem synthesis is seen as a result of occupational exposure to
(A) Chromium
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Carbon materials
Ans: B
42. Which of the following occupational agents is usually associated with lung cancer?
(A) Asbestos
(B) Nickel
(C) Arsenic
(D) Chromium
Ans: A
43. The standardised Mortality Rate or SMR is a method of
(A) Direct standardization
(B) Indirect standardization
(C) Method of estimating crude death rate
(D) Method of calculating age specific death rate
Ans: B
44. The most important cause of maternal mortality in India is
(A) Anaemia
(B) Sepsis
(C) Haemmorage
(D) Obstructed labour
Ans: C
45. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio
(A) >1 in Men 8 > 0.85 in Women
(B) >1 in Men 8 > 1 in Women
(C) >2 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women
(D) >1 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women
Ans: A
46. Lowest Glycemic Index Food has to be selected by an obese person. The best, amongst the following will be
(A) White Bread
(B) Corn Flakes
(C) Beans
(D) Brown rice
Ans: C
47. All are the models of Health Education except
(A) Socio economic model
(B) Medical model
(C) Motivational model
(D) Social interventional model
Ans: A
48. As per 2011 census when is India predicted to reach the replacement level of fertility?
(A) 2016
(B) 2021
(C) 2026
(D) 2031
Ans: B
49. “Jai Vigyan Mission Mode” project is being carried out in India for community control of
(A) Stroke
(B) Hypertension
(C) Rheumatic Fever/Rheumatic Heart Disease
(D) Cancer
Ans: C
50. As per the criteria decided by WHO Anemia in children aged 6 months to 5 years is defined as Haemoglobin below the following levels in venous blood
(A) 13 g/dl
(B) 12.5 g/dl
(C) 12 g/dl
(D) 11 g/dl
Ans: C
(A) Anabolism
(B) Anasarca
(C) Cachexia
(D) Kwashiorkor
Ans: D
2. The current recommendation for the Dietary intake for fats in adults is to have intake of
(A) 10% of total daily calories
(B) 30% of total daily calories
(C) 65 grams per day
(D) 75 grams per day
Ans: B
3. Of the following environmental hazards the only one categorised as a Non-Threshold hazard is
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Heat
(C) Ionising Radiation
(D) Noise
Ans: C
4. The Ames test is used to
(A) Determine Antibiotic susceptibility
(B) Adequacy of Ventilation in a room
(C) Estimate the Carcinogenic potential of a chemical
(D) Quantification of Radiation exposure
Ans: C
5. The indoor Air pollutant of greatest public health importance is
(A) Environmental Tobacco Smoke
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Aromatic amines
Ans: A
6. The administration of Human Immunoglobulin after exposure of Hepatitis B is an example of
(A) Active Immunity
(B) Passive Immunity
(C) Health Promotion
(D) Herd Immunity
Ans: B
7. Which of the following vaccines would most likely to be dangerous to a person with Immune deficiency?
(A) Diptheria Vaccine
(B) Hepatitis B Vaccine
(C) Measles Vaccine
(D) Typhoid Vaccine
Ans: B
8. A modified influenza vaccine must be produced every year because of change of nature of influenza virus. Which of the following study design is appropriate to test the efficiency of the vaccine for a particular year?
(A) A Randomised field trial
(B) A Retrospective cohort study
(C) Review of data from previous years
(D) Routine surveillance
Ans: B
9. The principle reason for extending the administration of Measles vaccine till 15 months is
(A) Measles infection is less severe in infants.
(B) Infants are immune to Measles.
(C) Maternal antibody inactivates the measles vaccine in infants.
(D) Measles vaccine being a live vaccine can cause severe reaction in infants.
Ans: C
10. New a cellular vaccine is available to prevent, which of the following diseases?
(A) Lyme disease
(B) Measles
(C) Pertussis
(D) Rubella
Ans: C
11. An appropriate example of secondary prevention is all except
(A) Treatment of Diabetic nephropathy
(B) Detection and treatment of hypertension
(C) Percutaneous Tran’s luminal Coronary Angioplasty
(D) Vaccination against Hepatitis B
Ans: B
12. Data’s obtained through screening at Health meals are of little value because of
(A) Bias in sampling due to self-selection.
(B) Most conditions are rare in random samples.
(C) False positive results are common.
(D) Possibility of missing co-morbid conditions quite frequent.
Ans: A
13. The modifiable risk factors of coronary heart disease are all except
(A) Smoking
(B) Physical Inactivity
(C) Environmental factors
(D) High blood cholesterol
Ans: C
14. Alcohol has been implicated as a modifiable risk factor in all except
(A) Motor vehicle injuries
(B) Cancers
(C) Cirrohosis of liver
(D) Heart disease
Ans: B
15. The following are all clinical risk factors for coronary artery disease except:
(A) Hypertension
(B) High blood cholesterol
(C) Smoking
(D) Type A personality
Ans: C
16. All are the types of selection bias except
(A) Volunteer Bias
(B) Berkesonian Bias
(C) Survivorship Bias
(D) Observers Bias
Ans: D
17. Turners Syndrome is a Genetic disease related to abnormality of
(A) Chromosome 21
(B) Y chromosome
(C) Any Autosome
(D) x chromosome
Ans: D
18. Which of the following is a event type disability indicator?
(A) Limitation of mobility
(B) Bed disability days
(C) Limitation to perform the basic Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
(D) Confinement to Bed house
Ans: B
19. The ratio between incidence among exposed persons and incidence among non-exposed persons is known as
(A) Odds ratio
(B) Attributable risk
(C) Relative risk
(D) Population attributable risk
Ans: C
20. Daily requirement of folic acid during pregnancy as per ICMR 2010 recommendation is
(A) 500 mcg
(B) 200 mcg
(C) 80-120 mcg
(D) 300 mcg
Ans: A
21. Out of total tuberculosis load the percentage contribution of childhood tuberculosis is
(A) < 10
(B) 10 to 20
(C) 30 to 40
(D) ≥ 50
Ans: B
22. Subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well is referred to as
(A) Dysfunction
(B) Diseases
(C) Sickness
(D) Illness
Ans: D
23. A study was started in the year 2005 in Nashik with 30,000 population of alcoholics. The occurrence of cancer amongst them was studied in 2012-13. The study design is
(A) Cash control study
(B) Prospective cohort study
(C) Retrospective cohort study
(D) Cross sectional study
Ans: B
24. Protein energy ratio is maximum for
(A) Fish
(B) Cow milk
(C) Tur dal
(D) Banana
Ans: A
25. The first round of the National Pulse Polio Immunisation in India was held during
(A) 1985-86
(B) 1990-91
(C) 1995-96
(D) 2000-01
Ans: C
26. Handicap in children refers to an impairment or other circumstances that interfere with all except
(A) Normal Growth
(B) Normal Development
(C) Capacity to fulfil a social role
(D) Capacity to learn
Ans: C
27. A verbal autopsy means
(A) examination of a dead body where post mortem facilities are not available.
(B) finding out the cause of death by interviewing the relative of a dead person.
(C) inquest report of panchanama.
(D) periodic death conference.
Ans: B
28. Approximate Energy Expenditure in Kcal/hour on walking 4 kilometres/hour for 60 kg reference man is
(A) 132
(B) 160
(C) 360
(D) 750
Ans: B
29. Persistent carrier state for hepatitis-B refers to carriers of more than
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
Ans: C
30. Goal No. 4 is Millennium Development Goal (MDG) related to child health is, to reduce under 5 mortality rate between 1990-2015 by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: C
31. The mean incubation period of Tetanus is
(A) 7 – 14 days
(B) 1 – 7 days
(C) 7 – 10 days
(D) 7 – 28 days
Ans: A
32. Of the following indices of Malaria, which one provides an idea of recent transmission?
(A) Spleen Rate
(B) Infant Parasite Rate
(C) Parasite Density Rate
(D) Proportional Case Rate
Ans: B
33. The primary series in injectable polio vaccine (IPV) consists of
(A) Two doses
(B) Five doses
(C) Four doses
(D) Three doses
Ans: D
34. All of the following are characteristics of staphylococcal food poisoning except:
(A) Symptoms usually begins 2 to 4 hours after ingestion
(B) The temperature of the patient is usually 101 0F to 102 0F
(C) Death in Normal individuals are rare
(D) Diarrohea, if present may be severe
Ans: B
35. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be detected by dark field microscopy?
(A) Gonorrohea
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) Syphilis
(D) Lympho Granuloma Venereum
Ans: C
36. A person is labelled blind for examined eye when the visual acuity in that eye is less than
(A) 6/18
(B) 6/60
(C) 1/60
(D) 3/60
Ans: D
37. The screening for gestational diabetes is done by
(A) Blood sugar
(B) Urine Examination
(C) Glycosylated Haemoglobin
(D) Eye Examination
Ans: B
38. World’s “No Tobacco Day” is observed on
(A) 7th April
(B) 31st May
(C) 1st December
(D) 11th July
Ans: B
39. Epidemic Dropsy is caused due to
(A) Beta Oxyl Amino Alanine (BOAA)
(B) Aflatoxin
(C) Sanguanarine
(D) Strychnine
Ans: C
40. The occupational health hazard of working with Isopropyl Alcohol is cancer of
(A) Colon
(B) Nasal sinuses
(C) Stomach
(D) Skin
Ans: B
41. Mild anaemia due to interference with Haem synthesis is seen as a result of occupational exposure to
(A) Chromium
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Carbon materials
Ans: B
42. Which of the following occupational agents is usually associated with lung cancer?
(A) Asbestos
(B) Nickel
(C) Arsenic
(D) Chromium
Ans: A
43. The standardised Mortality Rate or SMR is a method of
(A) Direct standardization
(B) Indirect standardization
(C) Method of estimating crude death rate
(D) Method of calculating age specific death rate
Ans: B
44. The most important cause of maternal mortality in India is
(A) Anaemia
(B) Sepsis
(C) Haemmorage
(D) Obstructed labour
Ans: C
45. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio
(A) >1 in Men 8 > 0.85 in Women
(B) >1 in Men 8 > 1 in Women
(C) >2 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women
(D) >1 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women
Ans: A
46. Lowest Glycemic Index Food has to be selected by an obese person. The best, amongst the following will be
(A) White Bread
(B) Corn Flakes
(C) Beans
(D) Brown rice
Ans: C
47. All are the models of Health Education except
(A) Socio economic model
(B) Medical model
(C) Motivational model
(D) Social interventional model
Ans: A
48. As per 2011 census when is India predicted to reach the replacement level of fertility?
(A) 2016
(B) 2021
(C) 2026
(D) 2031
Ans: B
49. “Jai Vigyan Mission Mode” project is being carried out in India for community control of
(A) Stroke
(B) Hypertension
(C) Rheumatic Fever/Rheumatic Heart Disease
(D) Cancer
Ans: C
50. As per the criteria decided by WHO Anemia in children aged 6 months to 5 years is defined as Haemoglobin below the following levels in venous blood
(A) 13 g/dl
(B) 12.5 g/dl
(C) 12 g/dl
(D) 11 g/dl
Ans: C
51. Interruption of transmission of disease from a large geographic area is called as
(A) Elimination
(B) Eradication
(C) Control
(D) Monitoring
Ans: A
52. The theme of WHO day during 2013 was related to
(A) Environment
(B) Blood Pressure
(C) Diabetes
(D) Coronary Heart Disease(CHD)
Ans: B
53. Protection offered by ‘Herd Immunity’ in the community is due to
(A) Immune people acting as barrier.
(B) Environmental sharing.
(C) Passive transfer of disease agent.
(D) Common social practices.
Ans: A
54. Time period between detection by screening test and standard diagnostic test is known as
(A) Lag time
(B) Generation time
(C) Latent period
(D) Lead time
Ans: D
55. Incidence can be found out by conducting
(A) Case control study
(B) Cross sectional study
(C) Ecological study
(D) Cohort study
Ans: D
56. Secondary attack rate is a measure of
(A) Communicability
(B) Sub clinical cases
(C) Exposure to carriers
(D) Immunization coverage in the population
Ans: A
57. Confounding factor is associated to
(A) Both exposure and disease
(B) Disease only
(C) Exposure only
(D) Neither disease nor exposure
Ans: A
58. Severity of acute diseases can be best measured by
(A) Age specific death rate.
(B) Cause specific death rate.
(C) Proportional mortality rate.
(D) Case fatality rate.
Ans: D
59. All the following are criteria for identifying “at risk” infants except:
(A) Birth weight less than 2.5 kg
(B) Birth order of 3 or more
(C) Weight below 70% of the expected weight.
(D) Failure to gain weight during three successive months.
Ans: B
60. The study of time, place, person distribution of a disease is known as
(A) Descriptive Epidemiology
(B) Experimental Epidemiology
(C) Analytical Epidemiology
(D) Clinical Epidemiology
Ans: A
61. Which article of the constitution of India covers all health subjects enumerated in union list, concurrent list & States list?
(A) 39
(B) 45
(C) 47
(D) 246
Ans: D
62. Stop TB strategy was started by WHO in
(A) 1996
(B) 2002
(C) 2006
(D) 2012
Ans: C
63. Which is an antiseptic having sporocidal action?
(A) Cataclon
(B) Halogens
(C) Chlorohexidine
(D) 70% alcohol
Ans: B
64. The time between first possible point of diagnosis and the final critical diagnosis is called
(A) Screening time
(B) Generation time
(C) Lead time
(D) Serial interval
Ans: C
65. In a highly prevalent disease, if the cutoff point is lowered
(A) Sensitivity will increase
(B) Sensitivity will decrease
(C) Specificity will increase
(D) Specificity will decrease
Ans: A
66. Arrange the topics mentioned below related to the themes of World Health Day in chronological order:
(A) Urbanization and Health, Antimicrobial resistance, Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure.
(B) Urbanization and Health, Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure, Antimicrobial resistance
(C) Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure, Antimicrobial resistance, Urbanization and Health
(D) Healthy blood pressure, Urbanization and Health, Longivity and quality of life, Antimicrobial resistance
Ans: A
67. Arrange the following ionizing radiations in descending order of their penetrating power in tissues:
(A) Gamma rays, Alpha particles, Beta particles, X-rays
(B) Beta particles, X-rays, Alpha particles, Gamma rays
(C) X-rays, Gamma rays, Alpha particles, Beta particles
(D) Gamma rays, X-rays, Beta particles, Alpha particles.
Ans: D
68. Arrange the following interventions and strategies of malaria control in India, in ascending order of the year of their implementation:
(A) Indoor residual spraying, Prereferral treatment with recommended medicines, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(B) Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Pre-referral treatment with recommended medicines, indoor residual spraying, rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(C) Indoor residual spraying, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Prereferral treatment with recommended medicines, rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(D) Indoor residual spraying, Rapid diagnostic tests used at community level, Pre-referral treatment with recommended medicines, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost
Ans: A
69. Arrange the following milks from various sources in descending order of their energy (Kcal) content:
(A) Goat, cow, human, buffalo
(B) Buffalo, goat, cow, human
(C) Human, goat, buffalo, cow
(D) Buffalo, cow, goat, human
Ans: B
70. Arrange the following modes of transmission of HIV/AIDS in ascending order of their efficiency of transmission:
(A) Intravenous drug use, Mother to child transmission, Sexual transmission, Blood transfusion
(B) Mother to child transmission, Intravenous drug use, Sexual transmission, Blood transfusion
(C) Sexual transmission, Mother to child transmission, Intravenous drug use, Blood transfusion.
(D) Sexual transmission, Intravenous drug use, Mother to child transmission, Blood transfusion
Ans: C
Questions 71 to 80 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II:
71. List – I (Agency) List – II (Assistance in India)
a. Rockefeller foundation i. Designing and construction of hand flushed sanitary latrines.
b. SIDA ii. Supporting the National Blindness Control Programme
c. DANIDA iii. Supporting the National Tuberculosis Control Programme
d. Ford Foundation iv. Setting up the field demonstration area with AIIMS
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) i iv ii iii
Ans: A
72. List – I (Pneumo-Coniosis) List – II (Dust)
a. Farmer’s Lung i. Coal
b. Bagassosis ii. Grain
c. Byssinosis iii. Cotton
d. Anthracosis iv. Sugar cane
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: B
73. List – I (Type of Food Poisoning) List – II (Symptoms)
a. Salmonella i. Sudden onset with vomiting and abdominal cramps
b. Staphylococcal ii. Diarrhoea, abdominal pain, no fever and little vomiting
c. Botulism iii. Sudden on set with chills, fever, nausea and vomiting
d. Bacillus cereus iv. Dysphagia, diplopia, ptosis and blurring of vision
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) i iii iv ii
Ans: C
74. List – I (Committee) List – II (Purpose)
a. Modhok i. Basic health workers’ norms
b. Chadha ii. Minimum additional staff for PHCs
c. Mukherjee iii. Multipurpose Health Workers
d. Kartar Singh iv. Malaria Eradication Programme
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) ii iii i ii
Ans: C
75. List – I (Health Related Millennium Development Goal Number) List – II (Goal)
a. Goal 1 i. Combat HIV/AIDS Malaria
b. Goal 5 ii. Ensure environmental sustainability
c. Goal 6 iii. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
d. Goal 7 iv. Improve Maternal Health
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii iii iv i
Ans: A
76. List – I (Mendelian Diseases) List – II (Mode of inheritance)
a. Achondroplasia i. Sex linked recessive
b. Albinism ii. Autosomal recessive
c. G6 PD Deficiency iii. Sex linked dominant
d. Vit. D resistant Rickets iv. Autosomal dominant
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: D
77. List – I (Measures of a screening test) List – II (Quality)
a. Sensitivity i. Diagnosis of previously undiagnosed disease
b. Specificity ii. Diagnostic power of the test
c. Predictive accuracy iii. Ability to detect true negatives
d. Yield iv. Ability to detect true positives
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: B
78. List – I (Instruments) List – II (Measures)
a. Sling Psychrometer i. Radiant temperature
b. Kata thermometer ii. Air velocity
c. Globe Thermometer iii. Humidity
d. Anemometer iv. Cooling power
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
79. List – I (Type of Communication) List – II (Method)
a. Didactic i. Internet
b. Socratic ii. Body language
c. Non-verbal iii. One way
d. Telecommunication iv. Two way
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: A
80. List – I (Food Stuff) List – II (Rich Source)
a. Ground nut i. Vit C
b. Ragi ii. Iron
c. Indian Gooseberry iii. Calcium
d. Garden cress seeds iv. Niacin
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Ans: B
81. India is on the verge of eradicating which of the following diseases?
(A) Poliomyelitis
(B) Leprosy
(C) Malaria
(D) Lymphatic Filariasis
Ans: A
82. Which of the following is a conditional cash transfer scheme implemented at the ICDs level?
(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana
(B) Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for employment of adolescent girls
(C) Indira Gandhi Matratva Sahayog Yojana
(D) Nutrition Programme for adolescent girls
Ans: C
83. The most effective tool for measuring incidence of a disease in community is
(A) Case control study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Cross sectional study
(D) Retrospective study
Ans: B
84. The relationship between prevalence incidence and duration of an illness for stable condition is expressed as
(A) Prevalence = Incidence + duration
(B) Prevalence = Incidence – duration
(C) Prevalence = Incidence / duration
(D) Prevalence = Incidence × duration
Ans: D
85. Panchayati Raj at village level includes following bodies excepts:
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Gram Panchayat
(D) Nyaya Sabha
Ans: B
86. Declaration of the Rights of the Child was adopted in 1959 by
(A) WHO
(B) UNICEF
(C) USAID
(D) United Nations
Ans: D
87. If a drug prevents mortality but does not give complete cure of a disease, then the effect will be
(A) Increase in Incidence
(B) Increase in Prevalence
(C) Decrease in Incidence
(D) Decrease in Prevalence
Ans: B
88. Giving access to the suitable environment for ready expression of genes is called
(A) Eugenics
(B) Population Genetics
(C) Euthenics
(D) Human Genome Project
Ans: C
(A) Elimination
(B) Eradication
(C) Control
(D) Monitoring
Ans: A
52. The theme of WHO day during 2013 was related to
(A) Environment
(B) Blood Pressure
(C) Diabetes
(D) Coronary Heart Disease(CHD)
Ans: B
53. Protection offered by ‘Herd Immunity’ in the community is due to
(A) Immune people acting as barrier.
(B) Environmental sharing.
(C) Passive transfer of disease agent.
(D) Common social practices.
Ans: A
54. Time period between detection by screening test and standard diagnostic test is known as
(A) Lag time
(B) Generation time
(C) Latent period
(D) Lead time
Ans: D
55. Incidence can be found out by conducting
(A) Case control study
(B) Cross sectional study
(C) Ecological study
(D) Cohort study
Ans: D
56. Secondary attack rate is a measure of
(A) Communicability
(B) Sub clinical cases
(C) Exposure to carriers
(D) Immunization coverage in the population
Ans: A
57. Confounding factor is associated to
(A) Both exposure and disease
(B) Disease only
(C) Exposure only
(D) Neither disease nor exposure
Ans: A
58. Severity of acute diseases can be best measured by
(A) Age specific death rate.
(B) Cause specific death rate.
(C) Proportional mortality rate.
(D) Case fatality rate.
Ans: D
59. All the following are criteria for identifying “at risk” infants except:
(A) Birth weight less than 2.5 kg
(B) Birth order of 3 or more
(C) Weight below 70% of the expected weight.
(D) Failure to gain weight during three successive months.
Ans: B
60. The study of time, place, person distribution of a disease is known as
(A) Descriptive Epidemiology
(B) Experimental Epidemiology
(C) Analytical Epidemiology
(D) Clinical Epidemiology
Ans: A
61. Which article of the constitution of India covers all health subjects enumerated in union list, concurrent list & States list?
(A) 39
(B) 45
(C) 47
(D) 246
Ans: D
62. Stop TB strategy was started by WHO in
(A) 1996
(B) 2002
(C) 2006
(D) 2012
Ans: C
63. Which is an antiseptic having sporocidal action?
(A) Cataclon
(B) Halogens
(C) Chlorohexidine
(D) 70% alcohol
Ans: B
64. The time between first possible point of diagnosis and the final critical diagnosis is called
(A) Screening time
(B) Generation time
(C) Lead time
(D) Serial interval
Ans: C
65. In a highly prevalent disease, if the cutoff point is lowered
(A) Sensitivity will increase
(B) Sensitivity will decrease
(C) Specificity will increase
(D) Specificity will decrease
Ans: A
66. Arrange the topics mentioned below related to the themes of World Health Day in chronological order:
(A) Urbanization and Health, Antimicrobial resistance, Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure.
(B) Urbanization and Health, Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure, Antimicrobial resistance
(C) Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure, Antimicrobial resistance, Urbanization and Health
(D) Healthy blood pressure, Urbanization and Health, Longivity and quality of life, Antimicrobial resistance
Ans: A
67. Arrange the following ionizing radiations in descending order of their penetrating power in tissues:
(A) Gamma rays, Alpha particles, Beta particles, X-rays
(B) Beta particles, X-rays, Alpha particles, Gamma rays
(C) X-rays, Gamma rays, Alpha particles, Beta particles
(D) Gamma rays, X-rays, Beta particles, Alpha particles.
Ans: D
68. Arrange the following interventions and strategies of malaria control in India, in ascending order of the year of their implementation:
(A) Indoor residual spraying, Prereferral treatment with recommended medicines, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(B) Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Pre-referral treatment with recommended medicines, indoor residual spraying, rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(C) Indoor residual spraying, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Prereferral treatment with recommended medicines, rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(D) Indoor residual spraying, Rapid diagnostic tests used at community level, Pre-referral treatment with recommended medicines, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost
Ans: A
69. Arrange the following milks from various sources in descending order of their energy (Kcal) content:
(A) Goat, cow, human, buffalo
(B) Buffalo, goat, cow, human
(C) Human, goat, buffalo, cow
(D) Buffalo, cow, goat, human
Ans: B
70. Arrange the following modes of transmission of HIV/AIDS in ascending order of their efficiency of transmission:
(A) Intravenous drug use, Mother to child transmission, Sexual transmission, Blood transfusion
(B) Mother to child transmission, Intravenous drug use, Sexual transmission, Blood transfusion
(C) Sexual transmission, Mother to child transmission, Intravenous drug use, Blood transfusion.
(D) Sexual transmission, Intravenous drug use, Mother to child transmission, Blood transfusion
Ans: C
Questions 71 to 80 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II:
71. List – I (Agency) List – II (Assistance in India)
a. Rockefeller foundation i. Designing and construction of hand flushed sanitary latrines.
b. SIDA ii. Supporting the National Blindness Control Programme
c. DANIDA iii. Supporting the National Tuberculosis Control Programme
d. Ford Foundation iv. Setting up the field demonstration area with AIIMS
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) i iv ii iii
Ans: A
72. List – I (Pneumo-Coniosis) List – II (Dust)
a. Farmer’s Lung i. Coal
b. Bagassosis ii. Grain
c. Byssinosis iii. Cotton
d. Anthracosis iv. Sugar cane
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: B
73. List – I (Type of Food Poisoning) List – II (Symptoms)
a. Salmonella i. Sudden onset with vomiting and abdominal cramps
b. Staphylococcal ii. Diarrhoea, abdominal pain, no fever and little vomiting
c. Botulism iii. Sudden on set with chills, fever, nausea and vomiting
d. Bacillus cereus iv. Dysphagia, diplopia, ptosis and blurring of vision
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) i iii iv ii
Ans: C
74. List – I (Committee) List – II (Purpose)
a. Modhok i. Basic health workers’ norms
b. Chadha ii. Minimum additional staff for PHCs
c. Mukherjee iii. Multipurpose Health Workers
d. Kartar Singh iv. Malaria Eradication Programme
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) ii iii i ii
Ans: C
75. List – I (Health Related Millennium Development Goal Number) List – II (Goal)
a. Goal 1 i. Combat HIV/AIDS Malaria
b. Goal 5 ii. Ensure environmental sustainability
c. Goal 6 iii. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
d. Goal 7 iv. Improve Maternal Health
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii iii iv i
Ans: A
76. List – I (Mendelian Diseases) List – II (Mode of inheritance)
a. Achondroplasia i. Sex linked recessive
b. Albinism ii. Autosomal recessive
c. G6 PD Deficiency iii. Sex linked dominant
d. Vit. D resistant Rickets iv. Autosomal dominant
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: D
77. List – I (Measures of a screening test) List – II (Quality)
a. Sensitivity i. Diagnosis of previously undiagnosed disease
b. Specificity ii. Diagnostic power of the test
c. Predictive accuracy iii. Ability to detect true negatives
d. Yield iv. Ability to detect true positives
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: B
78. List – I (Instruments) List – II (Measures)
a. Sling Psychrometer i. Radiant temperature
b. Kata thermometer ii. Air velocity
c. Globe Thermometer iii. Humidity
d. Anemometer iv. Cooling power
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
79. List – I (Type of Communication) List – II (Method)
a. Didactic i. Internet
b. Socratic ii. Body language
c. Non-verbal iii. One way
d. Telecommunication iv. Two way
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: A
80. List – I (Food Stuff) List – II (Rich Source)
a. Ground nut i. Vit C
b. Ragi ii. Iron
c. Indian Gooseberry iii. Calcium
d. Garden cress seeds iv. Niacin
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Ans: B
81. India is on the verge of eradicating which of the following diseases?
(A) Poliomyelitis
(B) Leprosy
(C) Malaria
(D) Lymphatic Filariasis
Ans: A
82. Which of the following is a conditional cash transfer scheme implemented at the ICDs level?
(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana
(B) Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for employment of adolescent girls
(C) Indira Gandhi Matratva Sahayog Yojana
(D) Nutrition Programme for adolescent girls
Ans: C
83. The most effective tool for measuring incidence of a disease in community is
(A) Case control study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Cross sectional study
(D) Retrospective study
Ans: B
84. The relationship between prevalence incidence and duration of an illness for stable condition is expressed as
(A) Prevalence = Incidence + duration
(B) Prevalence = Incidence – duration
(C) Prevalence = Incidence / duration
(D) Prevalence = Incidence × duration
Ans: D
85. Panchayati Raj at village level includes following bodies excepts:
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Gram Panchayat
(D) Nyaya Sabha
Ans: B
86. Declaration of the Rights of the Child was adopted in 1959 by
(A) WHO
(B) UNICEF
(C) USAID
(D) United Nations
Ans: D
87. If a drug prevents mortality but does not give complete cure of a disease, then the effect will be
(A) Increase in Incidence
(B) Increase in Prevalence
(C) Decrease in Incidence
(D) Decrease in Prevalence
Ans: B
88. Giving access to the suitable environment for ready expression of genes is called
(A) Eugenics
(B) Population Genetics
(C) Euthenics
(D) Human Genome Project
Ans: C
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine