RADIOLOGY
RADIOLOGY MCQs
1. 2nd Commonest heart disease in India after ischemic heart disease is
(A) Rheumatic Heart disease (B) Cardiac tumour (C) Congenital heart disease (D) Infective carditis
Ans: A
2. Aaortic sinus aneurysm occurs in
(A) Marfan’s syndrome (B) Atherosclerotic aneurysm (C) Tuberculosis (D) Takayasu’s disease
Ans: A
3. Radiographic features favouring metastasis is
(A) Diaphyseal location in long bones (B) Absence of bone expansion
(C) No florid peristeal reaction (D) Absence of large soft tissue mass
Ans: A
4. Polyhydramnios in fetal USG is associated with
(A) Thanatophoric dysplasia (B) Campomelic dysplasia (C) Chondro ectodermal dysplasia (D) Cleido cranial dysostosis
Ans: A
5. Commonest primary pericardial tumour is
(A) Lymphoma (B) Mesothelioma (C) Teratoma (D) Phaeochromocytoma
Ans: B
6. Bone marrow Density is between -1 and – 2.5 SD below the young adult reference mean is
(A) Osteopenia (B) Osteopororsis (C) Severe osteoporosis (D) Normal
Ans: A
7. In tuberous sclerosis which one is not classical presentation
(A) Epilepsy (B) Intellectual impairment (C) Hearing loss (D) Adenoma sebaceum
Ans: C
8. Rainshower appearance of uterus on USG is seen in
(A) Adenomyosis (B) Endometrial polyp (C) Endometrial hyperplasia (D) Leiomyoma
Ans: A
9. All are true about Burkitt’s lymphoma except
(A) Involves mandible and maxilla only. (B) Floating teeth appearance
(C) Pelvic bones can be involved. (D) Periosteal reaction may be present.
Ans: A
10. Osteoslcerosis in axial skeleton with ossification of ligaments and paraspinal ossification - There are signs of
(A) Flurosis (B) Acromegaly (C) Cushing’s disease (D) Thyroid disease
Ans: A
11. Eisenmenger syndrome consists of following except
(A) Pulmonary arterial hypertension (B) Common with VSD and patent ductus areteriosus
(C) Large ASD (D) Pulmonary venous hypertension
Ans: D
12. Swiss cheese appearance of VSD can be more accurately presented on
(A) CT scan (B) Echocardiography
(C) MRI (D) Coronary angiography
Ans: C
13. Which is true for fracture in child abuse
(A) TranseverseMetaphyseal fracture is common
(B) All fracture are identical in age
(C) Unilateral is common
(D) diaphyseal fracture
Ans: D
14. Which one is locally aggressive tumour
(A) Chondro myxoid fibroma (B) Non ossifying fibroms
(C) Fibrous cortial defect (D) Osteochondroma
Ans: A
15. Enlarged orbit can be seen in all except
(A) Neurofibromatosis (B) Congenital glaucoma
(C) SOL retinoblastoma (D) Enophthalmos
Ans: D
16. Commonest benign salivary gland tumour is seen in
(A) Parotid gland (B) Submandibular gland
(C) Sublingual salivary gland (D) Minor salivary glands
Ans: A
17. Visual failure is common due to — mucocele .
(A) Anterior ethmoid mucocele (B) Posterior ethmoid mucocele
(C) Frontal ethmoid mucocle (D) Maxillary sinus mucocele
Ans: B
18. Post operative scarring can be more accurately differentiated from recurrent disk herniation by
(A) T1 weighted MRI (B) T2 weighted MRI
(C) Gadolinium enhanced MRI (D) Nbone of the above
Ans: C
19. Acro osteolysis is seen in all except
(A) Ergot’s poisoning (B) Psoriasis
(C) Pyknodysostosis (D) Fanconi’s anemia
Ans: C
20. Hypoplasia of mandibular condyle is seen in
(A) Marfan’s syndrome (B) Hurler’s syndrome
(C) Morquio’s brasilford (D) Down’s syndrome
Ans: B
21. In X-ray generator design, which is the best statement:
(A) Three phase generators have highest voltage ripple. (B) Increased voltage ripple leads to lower patient radiation dose.
(C) Three phase generators have slow exposure time control. (D) All of the above are false.
Ans: D
22. For radiography in children which is the true statement:
(A) X-ray risk in children is less because of higher life expectancy.
(B) Carbon fiber table tops and film plates should not be discouraged from the use in children.
(C) Geometrical unsharpness is usually the most important cause of blurring paediatric radiography.
(D) Filtration is preferred in children.
Ans: D
23. Regarding photoelectric effect, which statement is most appropriate?
(A) An interating photon does not disappear completely. (B) It is an interaction between photon and free electron.
(C) It does not produce an ionized atom. (D) It produces characteristic radiation.
Ans: D
24. Effective radiation dose equivalent in SI can be expressed as:
(A) Becquerel (B) Sievert’s. (C) Joules/lbs. (D) Curie.
Ans: B
25. Sprengel deformity occurs due to failure of normal descent of scapula in — week of gestation
(A) 6th to 8th week (B) 16th to 18th week (C) 20th wek onwards (D) 12th to 14th week
Ans: A
26. Regarding intensifying screens which is the incorrect answer:
(A) Help reduce patient dose. (B) May increase noise on the final image.
(C) Have phosphorescent properties. (D) Absorb more photons when thickness is increased
Ans: C
27. In chest radiography which is the best statements?
(A) A typical focus film distance is 300 cm for a standard PA view. (B) A high KV technique improves contrast.
(C) An apical view is taken with 30o control angulation of the beam. (D) A lordotic view improves the visualization of middle lobe
Ans: D
28. ESD – enterance surface dose is highest with
(A) Lumbar spine Ap view (B) Lumbar spine lat view (C) Lumbo sacral lateral view (D) Pelvis AP view
Ans: C
29. Cervical rib is the:
(A) Spine of seventh cervical vertebra. (B) Centrum of seventh cervical vertebra.
(C) Sometimes underdeveloped first thoracic rib (D) Costal element of eighth cervical vertebra.
Ans: C
30. A radiologist made the diagnosis of pituitary tumor when he saw an evidence of invasion of the Nearby bone by the tumor. This bone was:
(A) Body of the sphenoid. (B) Floor of the orbit.
(C) Roof of sella turcica. (D) Basilar part of the occipital bone.
Ans: A
31. Other name of Albers- Schonberg disease
(A) Hyperphosphatasia (B) Autosomal dominant type of Osteopetrosis (C) Flurosis (D) Achondroplasia
Ans: B
32. Deletarious effect of ultrasound on organ is primarily de to
(A) Ionisation (B) Absorption (C) Refraction (D) Reflection
Ans: B
33. The first CT scan was manufactured by :
(A) Hitachi,Japan (B) Mitshubishi , Japan (C) Electro musical instrument, England (D) General electric USA
Ans: D
34. Egg shell calcification in Hilar region is seen in :
(A) Pneumoconiosis (B) Tuberculosis (C) Sarcoidosis (D) Aneurysm
Ans: A
35. Which investigation is Not done in case of pheochromocytoma ?
(A) CT scan (B) MRI (C) FNAC (D) MIBG scan
Ans: C
36. The urethra is best visualized for inflammatory lesions and diverticuli by
(A) Static cystogram (B) Retrograde urethrogram (C) Voiding cystogram (D) CT cystogram
Ans: B
37. Which of the following organs should always be imaged in a suspected case of bronchogenic carcinoma?
(A) Adrenals (B) Kidney (C) Spleen (D) Pancreas
Ans: A
38. Which of the following is characterized by ‘Cobra head deformity
(A) Ureterocele (B) Cystitis (C) Posterior urethral valve (D) Bladder tumour
Ans: A
39. Pyloric stenosis is featured on X-ray by
(A) Multiple air fluid level (B) Double bubble appearance (C) Single bubble appearance (D) Gas under diaphragm
Ans: C
40. Following statement is true for USG diagnosis of Anencephaly
(A) Earliest suspected at 11-12 wk of gestation (B) Confirmed at 15-16 wk of gestation
(C) Frog like appearance of fetal face (D) All of the above
Ans: D
41. Radiological sign characteristic of Ischemic colitis is
(A) Thumbprint appearance (B) Craggy popcorn appearance (C) Cobra head sign (D) Inverted 3 appearance
Ans: A
42. Technique of choice for studying Renal Cortical lesions
(A) 99Tc Pyrophosphate (B) 99Tc DTPA (C) 53Cr study (D) 99Tc DMSA
Ans: D
43. Lead Pipe Stem Appearance in barium enema is seen in
(A) Crohn’s disease (B) Chronic Ulcerative colitis (C) Schistosomiasis (D) Carcinoma Colon
Ans: B
44. The X-ray findings in small bowel malabsorption syndrome are all except
(A) Increased transit time (B) Mucosal atrophy
(C) Dilatation of bowel (D) Flocculation of barium
Ans: A
45. In nephrogram one sees
(A) Renal capillaries (B) Renal pelvis
(C) Only renal cortex (D) Nephrons
Ans: D
46. Splenic calcification occurs in
(A) Coeliac disease (B) Gaucher’s disease
(C) Brucellosis (D) Malaria
Ans: C
47. Renal scan should be done in which position
(A) Supine (B) Prone
(C) Sitting (D) Left lateral
Ans: B
48. In hepatobilliary scanning most commonly used isotope is
(A) Chromium-51
(B) Technecium 99 phosphines
(C) Technetium-99 immino diacetic acid derivatives
(D) Iodine-131
Ans: C
49. In a patient who has acid fast bacilli in the urine all are true except
(A) Calcification of the bladder is common
(B) Bladder disease is associated with extensive renal disease
(C) Shortening of the ureters
(D) Reflux nephropathy
Ans: A
50. Commonest systemic cause which reduces motility of esophagus
(A) Presbyoesophagus (B) Cork screw oesophgus
(C) Scleroderma (D) Cricopharyngeal carcinoma
Ans: C
(A) Rheumatic Heart disease (B) Cardiac tumour (C) Congenital heart disease (D) Infective carditis
Ans: A
2. Aaortic sinus aneurysm occurs in
(A) Marfan’s syndrome (B) Atherosclerotic aneurysm (C) Tuberculosis (D) Takayasu’s disease
Ans: A
3. Radiographic features favouring metastasis is
(A) Diaphyseal location in long bones (B) Absence of bone expansion
(C) No florid peristeal reaction (D) Absence of large soft tissue mass
Ans: A
4. Polyhydramnios in fetal USG is associated with
(A) Thanatophoric dysplasia (B) Campomelic dysplasia (C) Chondro ectodermal dysplasia (D) Cleido cranial dysostosis
Ans: A
5. Commonest primary pericardial tumour is
(A) Lymphoma (B) Mesothelioma (C) Teratoma (D) Phaeochromocytoma
Ans: B
6. Bone marrow Density is between -1 and – 2.5 SD below the young adult reference mean is
(A) Osteopenia (B) Osteopororsis (C) Severe osteoporosis (D) Normal
Ans: A
7. In tuberous sclerosis which one is not classical presentation
(A) Epilepsy (B) Intellectual impairment (C) Hearing loss (D) Adenoma sebaceum
Ans: C
8. Rainshower appearance of uterus on USG is seen in
(A) Adenomyosis (B) Endometrial polyp (C) Endometrial hyperplasia (D) Leiomyoma
Ans: A
9. All are true about Burkitt’s lymphoma except
(A) Involves mandible and maxilla only. (B) Floating teeth appearance
(C) Pelvic bones can be involved. (D) Periosteal reaction may be present.
Ans: A
10. Osteoslcerosis in axial skeleton with ossification of ligaments and paraspinal ossification - There are signs of
(A) Flurosis (B) Acromegaly (C) Cushing’s disease (D) Thyroid disease
Ans: A
11. Eisenmenger syndrome consists of following except
(A) Pulmonary arterial hypertension (B) Common with VSD and patent ductus areteriosus
(C) Large ASD (D) Pulmonary venous hypertension
Ans: D
12. Swiss cheese appearance of VSD can be more accurately presented on
(A) CT scan (B) Echocardiography
(C) MRI (D) Coronary angiography
Ans: C
13. Which is true for fracture in child abuse
(A) TranseverseMetaphyseal fracture is common
(B) All fracture are identical in age
(C) Unilateral is common
(D) diaphyseal fracture
Ans: D
14. Which one is locally aggressive tumour
(A) Chondro myxoid fibroma (B) Non ossifying fibroms
(C) Fibrous cortial defect (D) Osteochondroma
Ans: A
15. Enlarged orbit can be seen in all except
(A) Neurofibromatosis (B) Congenital glaucoma
(C) SOL retinoblastoma (D) Enophthalmos
Ans: D
16. Commonest benign salivary gland tumour is seen in
(A) Parotid gland (B) Submandibular gland
(C) Sublingual salivary gland (D) Minor salivary glands
Ans: A
17. Visual failure is common due to — mucocele .
(A) Anterior ethmoid mucocele (B) Posterior ethmoid mucocele
(C) Frontal ethmoid mucocle (D) Maxillary sinus mucocele
Ans: B
18. Post operative scarring can be more accurately differentiated from recurrent disk herniation by
(A) T1 weighted MRI (B) T2 weighted MRI
(C) Gadolinium enhanced MRI (D) Nbone of the above
Ans: C
19. Acro osteolysis is seen in all except
(A) Ergot’s poisoning (B) Psoriasis
(C) Pyknodysostosis (D) Fanconi’s anemia
Ans: C
20. Hypoplasia of mandibular condyle is seen in
(A) Marfan’s syndrome (B) Hurler’s syndrome
(C) Morquio’s brasilford (D) Down’s syndrome
Ans: B
21. In X-ray generator design, which is the best statement:
(A) Three phase generators have highest voltage ripple. (B) Increased voltage ripple leads to lower patient radiation dose.
(C) Three phase generators have slow exposure time control. (D) All of the above are false.
Ans: D
22. For radiography in children which is the true statement:
(A) X-ray risk in children is less because of higher life expectancy.
(B) Carbon fiber table tops and film plates should not be discouraged from the use in children.
(C) Geometrical unsharpness is usually the most important cause of blurring paediatric radiography.
(D) Filtration is preferred in children.
Ans: D
23. Regarding photoelectric effect, which statement is most appropriate?
(A) An interating photon does not disappear completely. (B) It is an interaction between photon and free electron.
(C) It does not produce an ionized atom. (D) It produces characteristic radiation.
Ans: D
24. Effective radiation dose equivalent in SI can be expressed as:
(A) Becquerel (B) Sievert’s. (C) Joules/lbs. (D) Curie.
Ans: B
25. Sprengel deformity occurs due to failure of normal descent of scapula in — week of gestation
(A) 6th to 8th week (B) 16th to 18th week (C) 20th wek onwards (D) 12th to 14th week
Ans: A
26. Regarding intensifying screens which is the incorrect answer:
(A) Help reduce patient dose. (B) May increase noise on the final image.
(C) Have phosphorescent properties. (D) Absorb more photons when thickness is increased
Ans: C
27. In chest radiography which is the best statements?
(A) A typical focus film distance is 300 cm for a standard PA view. (B) A high KV technique improves contrast.
(C) An apical view is taken with 30o control angulation of the beam. (D) A lordotic view improves the visualization of middle lobe
Ans: D
28. ESD – enterance surface dose is highest with
(A) Lumbar spine Ap view (B) Lumbar spine lat view (C) Lumbo sacral lateral view (D) Pelvis AP view
Ans: C
29. Cervical rib is the:
(A) Spine of seventh cervical vertebra. (B) Centrum of seventh cervical vertebra.
(C) Sometimes underdeveloped first thoracic rib (D) Costal element of eighth cervical vertebra.
Ans: C
30. A radiologist made the diagnosis of pituitary tumor when he saw an evidence of invasion of the Nearby bone by the tumor. This bone was:
(A) Body of the sphenoid. (B) Floor of the orbit.
(C) Roof of sella turcica. (D) Basilar part of the occipital bone.
Ans: A
31. Other name of Albers- Schonberg disease
(A) Hyperphosphatasia (B) Autosomal dominant type of Osteopetrosis (C) Flurosis (D) Achondroplasia
Ans: B
32. Deletarious effect of ultrasound on organ is primarily de to
(A) Ionisation (B) Absorption (C) Refraction (D) Reflection
Ans: B
33. The first CT scan was manufactured by :
(A) Hitachi,Japan (B) Mitshubishi , Japan (C) Electro musical instrument, England (D) General electric USA
Ans: D
34. Egg shell calcification in Hilar region is seen in :
(A) Pneumoconiosis (B) Tuberculosis (C) Sarcoidosis (D) Aneurysm
Ans: A
35. Which investigation is Not done in case of pheochromocytoma ?
(A) CT scan (B) MRI (C) FNAC (D) MIBG scan
Ans: C
36. The urethra is best visualized for inflammatory lesions and diverticuli by
(A) Static cystogram (B) Retrograde urethrogram (C) Voiding cystogram (D) CT cystogram
Ans: B
37. Which of the following organs should always be imaged in a suspected case of bronchogenic carcinoma?
(A) Adrenals (B) Kidney (C) Spleen (D) Pancreas
Ans: A
38. Which of the following is characterized by ‘Cobra head deformity
(A) Ureterocele (B) Cystitis (C) Posterior urethral valve (D) Bladder tumour
Ans: A
39. Pyloric stenosis is featured on X-ray by
(A) Multiple air fluid level (B) Double bubble appearance (C) Single bubble appearance (D) Gas under diaphragm
Ans: C
40. Following statement is true for USG diagnosis of Anencephaly
(A) Earliest suspected at 11-12 wk of gestation (B) Confirmed at 15-16 wk of gestation
(C) Frog like appearance of fetal face (D) All of the above
Ans: D
41. Radiological sign characteristic of Ischemic colitis is
(A) Thumbprint appearance (B) Craggy popcorn appearance (C) Cobra head sign (D) Inverted 3 appearance
Ans: A
42. Technique of choice for studying Renal Cortical lesions
(A) 99Tc Pyrophosphate (B) 99Tc DTPA (C) 53Cr study (D) 99Tc DMSA
Ans: D
43. Lead Pipe Stem Appearance in barium enema is seen in
(A) Crohn’s disease (B) Chronic Ulcerative colitis (C) Schistosomiasis (D) Carcinoma Colon
Ans: B
44. The X-ray findings in small bowel malabsorption syndrome are all except
(A) Increased transit time (B) Mucosal atrophy
(C) Dilatation of bowel (D) Flocculation of barium
Ans: A
45. In nephrogram one sees
(A) Renal capillaries (B) Renal pelvis
(C) Only renal cortex (D) Nephrons
Ans: D
46. Splenic calcification occurs in
(A) Coeliac disease (B) Gaucher’s disease
(C) Brucellosis (D) Malaria
Ans: C
47. Renal scan should be done in which position
(A) Supine (B) Prone
(C) Sitting (D) Left lateral
Ans: B
48. In hepatobilliary scanning most commonly used isotope is
(A) Chromium-51
(B) Technecium 99 phosphines
(C) Technetium-99 immino diacetic acid derivatives
(D) Iodine-131
Ans: C
49. In a patient who has acid fast bacilli in the urine all are true except
(A) Calcification of the bladder is common
(B) Bladder disease is associated with extensive renal disease
(C) Shortening of the ureters
(D) Reflux nephropathy
Ans: A
50. Commonest systemic cause which reduces motility of esophagus
(A) Presbyoesophagus (B) Cork screw oesophgus
(C) Scleroderma (D) Cricopharyngeal carcinoma
Ans: C
51. Common site of lung abscess is
(A) Posterior segment of right upper lobe (B) Lingular segment
(C) Posterior segment of left lower lobe (D) Posterior segment of right lower lobe
Ans: A
52. Foetal heart activity can be seen with help of ultrasonography as early as
(A) 4 weeks (B) 6 weeks (C) 8 weeks (D) 10 weeks
Ans: B
53. Epiphysis of distal end of femur can be seen on antenatal USG as early as
(A) 28 to 30 week (B) 32 to 34 week (C) 36 to 38 week (D) 26 to 28 week
Ans: B
54. Which is least likely cause of suprarenal calcification
(A) Infarction (B) Hemorrhage (C) Neuroblastoma (D) Tuberculosis
Ans: A
55. For foreign body which statement is true
(A) Commonest site of hold up of aspirated Foreign body aspiration is Crico pharynx
(B) Lateral radiography of chest and abdomen will show majority of radio opaque foreign body.
(C) Barium swallow examination required for location of radiolucent foreign body
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
56. Following is not used for treating radiological contrast media reaction
(A) Adrenaline (B) Atropin (C) Vitamin K (D) Ringer’s lactate
Ans: C
57. Rib notching is seen in all , except
(A) Aortitis (B) Coarctation of aorta (C) Congenital A-V fistula (D) Neurofibroma
Ans: A
58. “Golden S” sign is seen in
(A) Right upper lobe collapse (B) Left upper lobe collapse
(C) Right middle lobe collapse (D) Lower lobe collapse
Ans: A
59. Pop corn calcification is seen in
(A) Pulmonary Hamartoma (B) Pulmonary Hemorrhage (C) Pulmonary Teratoma (D) Bronchogenic cyst
Ans: A
60. All of the following are common causes of pericardial effusion except
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Systemic lupus erythematosus (D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans: B
61. Bull’s eye lesion in liver on USG is most commonly seen in
(A) Colorectal carcinoma metastases
(B) Metastases from breast malignancy
(C) Metastases from thyroid malignancy
(D) Metastases from carcinoma of lung
Ans: A
62. Barium study in Trendelenberg position is best for
(A) Ladd band (B) Hiatus disorder
(C) Esophageal web (D) Crohn’s disease
Ans: B
63. Ileo cecal region koch’s pathology is sometimes mimicked by
(A) Behcet’s disease (B) Eosinophilic enteritis
(C) Amyloidosis (D) Kaposi’s sarcoma
Ans: A
64. Invertogram to be done in a newborn in
(A) Vacterl sequence (B) OEIS complex
(C) Down’s syndrome (D) All of the above
Ans: D
65. Fifty year old man on steroid therapy complains pain in left hip. Advisable imaging modality is
(A) USG (B) CT scan (C) MRI (D) Bone scan
Ans: C
66. Commonest cause of renal metastases
(A) Bronchial malignnacy (B) Thyroid malignancy (C) Osteosarcoma (D) Small bowel malignancy
Ans: A
67. Out of the following which form radioloucent stone
(A) Pure uric acid (B) Cysteine (C) Oxalate (D) Calcium phosphate
Ans: A
68. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal X ray multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be (A) Pyloric obstruction (B) Duodenal atresia (C) Ileal atresia (D) Ladd’s bands
Ans: A
69. Hepatic adenoma from Focal nodular hyperplasia can be highly accurately diagnosed with
(A) Radio nuclear imaging (B) CT scan (C) MRI (D) Angiography
Ans: A
70. Pinetree appearance of bladder on cystography is due to
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Neurogenic (C) Schistosomiasis (D) Papillomata
Ans: B
71. Which one is not the component of prune belly syndrome
(A) Renal dysplasia (B) Undescended testes (C) Universal mysentry (D) Bladder extrophy
Ans: D
72. Undescended testes is part of the following syndrome
(A) Prune belly syndrome (B) Congenital rubella (C) Beckwith wiedemann syndrome (D) All of the above
Ans: D
73. Hayfork sign on USG is part of
(A) Small bowel lymphoma (B) Intussusception (C) Sigmoid carcinoma (D) Crohn’s disease
Ans: B
74. Thimble bladder on cystography found in
(A) Cystitis cystica (B) Tuberculosis (C) Carcinoma of urinary bladder (D) Syphilis
Ans: B
75. Whirlpool sign on USG may suggest
(A) Duodenal atresia (B) SMA sysndrome (C) Midgut volvulus (D) Intussuception
Ans: C
76. Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is
(A) 0.5 rad (B) 1.0 rad (C) 1.5 rad (D) 2.5 rad
Ans: A
77. Which is low vascular or late enhancing lesion in liver?
(A) Hepatoma (B) Cholangiocarcinoma (C) Cavernous Hemangioma (D) Hemangioendothelioma
Ans: B
78. Potter syndrome consist of all EXCEPT
(A) Oligohydramnios (B) Charasteric facies (C) Pulmonary hypoplasia (D) Club foot
Ans: D
79. Retroperitoneal air is seen in all EXCEPT
(A) Rectal perforation (B) Uterine perforation (C) Duodenal perforation (D) Pneumothorax
Ans: B
80. Single umbilical artery on USG is associated with
(A) Diabetes (B) Twins (C) Increased neonatal mortality (D) IUGR
Ans: D
81. The only epiphysis present at birth in skeleton is:
(A) Upper end of humerus. (B) Lower end of femur.
(C) Upper end of femur. (D) Lower end of tibia.
Ans: B
82. The radiographic appearance of normal epiphysial cartilage plate is:
(A) Regular dark line. (B) Irregular dark line.
(C) Regular white line. (D) Irregular white line.
Ans: A
83. A 50-year-old man having pancreatic cyst on CT scan . Investigations - Fluid aspirated from cyst .Which of the Following markers would be most useful for future follow-up of this patient for the evaluation of Possible malignnancy
(A) Alpha fetoprotein (AFP).
(B) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
(C) Chloroacetate esterase (CAE).
(D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg).
Ans: B
84. Which one of the following is the most common childhood malignancy ?
(A) Acute Leukemia. (B) Neuroblastoma.
(C) Wilms tumour. (D) Retinoblastoma.
Ans: A
85. Regarding mammography which statement is correct:
(A) For magnification mammography a focal spot size of 10mm diameter is required.
(B) To see micro calcification short exposure time is required .
(C) In order to see mico calcification we have to increase the Kvp upto 80
(D) To reduce the radiation dose to the breast double sided film screen combination is Used.
Ans: B
86. Which one of the following is the most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography?
(A) Transfemoral route (B) Transaxillary route
(C) Direct carotid puncture (D) Transbrachial route
Ans: A
87. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus:
(A) Echogenic foci in heart (B) Hyperechogenic bowel
(C) Choroid plexus cysts (D) Nuchal edema
Ans: D
88. Which of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra adrenal pheochromocytoma?
(A) USG (B) CT
(C) MRI (D) MIGB Scan
Ans: D
89. A dense persistent nephrogram may be seen in all of following except:
(A) Acute ureteral obstruction (B) Systemic hypertension
(C) Severe hydro-nephrosis (D) Dehydration
Ans: B
90. A young man with TB presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first?
(A) Pulmonary artery (B) Bronchial artery (C) Pulmonary Vein (D) Superior vena cava
Ans: B
91. Most ionizing radiation among the following is?
(A) X rays (B) Gamma rays (C) Alpha rays (D) Thermal neutrons
Ans: C
92. Is the most common tumour of the heart
(A) Angiosarcoma (B) Lymphoma (C) Myxomas (D) Hydatid cyst
Ans: A
93. Obliteration of Left heart border in pa chest x ray is s/o
(A) Lingular pathology (B) Left upper lobe lesion (C) Left hilar lymph nodes (D) Left lower lobe lesion
Ans: A
94. Which of the following contrast agents can be used in a patient with renal dysfunction for the prevention of contrast nephropathy ?
(A) Low osmolar contrast (B) Ionic contrast (C) Fenoldopam (D) Acetylcysteine
Ans: A
95. Pneumothorax is best demonstrated by taking radiograph,with the patient with:
(A) Inspiration (B) Expiration (C) Full Inspiration (D) Prone
Ans: B
96. Hydatid cyst of the lung in chest x ray Is seen as
(A) a calcified ring shadow (B) shows spakkled calcification (C) will not calcify (D) 1 & 2 are correct
Ans: C
97. Solitary lung nodule can not be :
(A) Tuberculoma (B) Neuro fibroma (C) Bronchogenic carcinoma (D) Lymphoma
Ans: D
98. Spider leg appearance is found in
(A) Polycystic kidney (B) Pyelonephritis (C) Hydronephrosis (D) Renal artery stenosis
Ans: A
99. X rays are modified :
(A) Photons (B) Electrons (C) Neutrons (D) Positrons
Ans: B
100. Avascular necrosis of head of radius is known as
(A) Brailsford disease (B) Cafefey disease
(C) Keinbock’s disease (D) Buchman’s disease
Ans: A
(A) Posterior segment of right upper lobe (B) Lingular segment
(C) Posterior segment of left lower lobe (D) Posterior segment of right lower lobe
Ans: A
52. Foetal heart activity can be seen with help of ultrasonography as early as
(A) 4 weeks (B) 6 weeks (C) 8 weeks (D) 10 weeks
Ans: B
53. Epiphysis of distal end of femur can be seen on antenatal USG as early as
(A) 28 to 30 week (B) 32 to 34 week (C) 36 to 38 week (D) 26 to 28 week
Ans: B
54. Which is least likely cause of suprarenal calcification
(A) Infarction (B) Hemorrhage (C) Neuroblastoma (D) Tuberculosis
Ans: A
55. For foreign body which statement is true
(A) Commonest site of hold up of aspirated Foreign body aspiration is Crico pharynx
(B) Lateral radiography of chest and abdomen will show majority of radio opaque foreign body.
(C) Barium swallow examination required for location of radiolucent foreign body
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
56. Following is not used for treating radiological contrast media reaction
(A) Adrenaline (B) Atropin (C) Vitamin K (D) Ringer’s lactate
Ans: C
57. Rib notching is seen in all , except
(A) Aortitis (B) Coarctation of aorta (C) Congenital A-V fistula (D) Neurofibroma
Ans: A
58. “Golden S” sign is seen in
(A) Right upper lobe collapse (B) Left upper lobe collapse
(C) Right middle lobe collapse (D) Lower lobe collapse
Ans: A
59. Pop corn calcification is seen in
(A) Pulmonary Hamartoma (B) Pulmonary Hemorrhage (C) Pulmonary Teratoma (D) Bronchogenic cyst
Ans: A
60. All of the following are common causes of pericardial effusion except
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Systemic lupus erythematosus (D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans: B
61. Bull’s eye lesion in liver on USG is most commonly seen in
(A) Colorectal carcinoma metastases
(B) Metastases from breast malignancy
(C) Metastases from thyroid malignancy
(D) Metastases from carcinoma of lung
Ans: A
62. Barium study in Trendelenberg position is best for
(A) Ladd band (B) Hiatus disorder
(C) Esophageal web (D) Crohn’s disease
Ans: B
63. Ileo cecal region koch’s pathology is sometimes mimicked by
(A) Behcet’s disease (B) Eosinophilic enteritis
(C) Amyloidosis (D) Kaposi’s sarcoma
Ans: A
64. Invertogram to be done in a newborn in
(A) Vacterl sequence (B) OEIS complex
(C) Down’s syndrome (D) All of the above
Ans: D
65. Fifty year old man on steroid therapy complains pain in left hip. Advisable imaging modality is
(A) USG (B) CT scan (C) MRI (D) Bone scan
Ans: C
66. Commonest cause of renal metastases
(A) Bronchial malignnacy (B) Thyroid malignancy (C) Osteosarcoma (D) Small bowel malignancy
Ans: A
67. Out of the following which form radioloucent stone
(A) Pure uric acid (B) Cysteine (C) Oxalate (D) Calcium phosphate
Ans: A
68. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal X ray multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be (A) Pyloric obstruction (B) Duodenal atresia (C) Ileal atresia (D) Ladd’s bands
Ans: A
69. Hepatic adenoma from Focal nodular hyperplasia can be highly accurately diagnosed with
(A) Radio nuclear imaging (B) CT scan (C) MRI (D) Angiography
Ans: A
70. Pinetree appearance of bladder on cystography is due to
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Neurogenic (C) Schistosomiasis (D) Papillomata
Ans: B
71. Which one is not the component of prune belly syndrome
(A) Renal dysplasia (B) Undescended testes (C) Universal mysentry (D) Bladder extrophy
Ans: D
72. Undescended testes is part of the following syndrome
(A) Prune belly syndrome (B) Congenital rubella (C) Beckwith wiedemann syndrome (D) All of the above
Ans: D
73. Hayfork sign on USG is part of
(A) Small bowel lymphoma (B) Intussusception (C) Sigmoid carcinoma (D) Crohn’s disease
Ans: B
74. Thimble bladder on cystography found in
(A) Cystitis cystica (B) Tuberculosis (C) Carcinoma of urinary bladder (D) Syphilis
Ans: B
75. Whirlpool sign on USG may suggest
(A) Duodenal atresia (B) SMA sysndrome (C) Midgut volvulus (D) Intussuception
Ans: C
76. Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is
(A) 0.5 rad (B) 1.0 rad (C) 1.5 rad (D) 2.5 rad
Ans: A
77. Which is low vascular or late enhancing lesion in liver?
(A) Hepatoma (B) Cholangiocarcinoma (C) Cavernous Hemangioma (D) Hemangioendothelioma
Ans: B
78. Potter syndrome consist of all EXCEPT
(A) Oligohydramnios (B) Charasteric facies (C) Pulmonary hypoplasia (D) Club foot
Ans: D
79. Retroperitoneal air is seen in all EXCEPT
(A) Rectal perforation (B) Uterine perforation (C) Duodenal perforation (D) Pneumothorax
Ans: B
80. Single umbilical artery on USG is associated with
(A) Diabetes (B) Twins (C) Increased neonatal mortality (D) IUGR
Ans: D
81. The only epiphysis present at birth in skeleton is:
(A) Upper end of humerus. (B) Lower end of femur.
(C) Upper end of femur. (D) Lower end of tibia.
Ans: B
82. The radiographic appearance of normal epiphysial cartilage plate is:
(A) Regular dark line. (B) Irregular dark line.
(C) Regular white line. (D) Irregular white line.
Ans: A
83. A 50-year-old man having pancreatic cyst on CT scan . Investigations - Fluid aspirated from cyst .Which of the Following markers would be most useful for future follow-up of this patient for the evaluation of Possible malignnancy
(A) Alpha fetoprotein (AFP).
(B) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
(C) Chloroacetate esterase (CAE).
(D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg).
Ans: B
84. Which one of the following is the most common childhood malignancy ?
(A) Acute Leukemia. (B) Neuroblastoma.
(C) Wilms tumour. (D) Retinoblastoma.
Ans: A
85. Regarding mammography which statement is correct:
(A) For magnification mammography a focal spot size of 10mm diameter is required.
(B) To see micro calcification short exposure time is required .
(C) In order to see mico calcification we have to increase the Kvp upto 80
(D) To reduce the radiation dose to the breast double sided film screen combination is Used.
Ans: B
86. Which one of the following is the most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography?
(A) Transfemoral route (B) Transaxillary route
(C) Direct carotid puncture (D) Transbrachial route
Ans: A
87. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus:
(A) Echogenic foci in heart (B) Hyperechogenic bowel
(C) Choroid plexus cysts (D) Nuchal edema
Ans: D
88. Which of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra adrenal pheochromocytoma?
(A) USG (B) CT
(C) MRI (D) MIGB Scan
Ans: D
89. A dense persistent nephrogram may be seen in all of following except:
(A) Acute ureteral obstruction (B) Systemic hypertension
(C) Severe hydro-nephrosis (D) Dehydration
Ans: B
90. A young man with TB presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first?
(A) Pulmonary artery (B) Bronchial artery (C) Pulmonary Vein (D) Superior vena cava
Ans: B
91. Most ionizing radiation among the following is?
(A) X rays (B) Gamma rays (C) Alpha rays (D) Thermal neutrons
Ans: C
92. Is the most common tumour of the heart
(A) Angiosarcoma (B) Lymphoma (C) Myxomas (D) Hydatid cyst
Ans: A
93. Obliteration of Left heart border in pa chest x ray is s/o
(A) Lingular pathology (B) Left upper lobe lesion (C) Left hilar lymph nodes (D) Left lower lobe lesion
Ans: A
94. Which of the following contrast agents can be used in a patient with renal dysfunction for the prevention of contrast nephropathy ?
(A) Low osmolar contrast (B) Ionic contrast (C) Fenoldopam (D) Acetylcysteine
Ans: A
95. Pneumothorax is best demonstrated by taking radiograph,with the patient with:
(A) Inspiration (B) Expiration (C) Full Inspiration (D) Prone
Ans: B
96. Hydatid cyst of the lung in chest x ray Is seen as
(A) a calcified ring shadow (B) shows spakkled calcification (C) will not calcify (D) 1 & 2 are correct
Ans: C
97. Solitary lung nodule can not be :
(A) Tuberculoma (B) Neuro fibroma (C) Bronchogenic carcinoma (D) Lymphoma
Ans: D
98. Spider leg appearance is found in
(A) Polycystic kidney (B) Pyelonephritis (C) Hydronephrosis (D) Renal artery stenosis
Ans: A
99. X rays are modified :
(A) Photons (B) Electrons (C) Neutrons (D) Positrons
Ans: B
100. Avascular necrosis of head of radius is known as
(A) Brailsford disease (B) Cafefey disease
(C) Keinbock’s disease (D) Buchman’s disease
Ans: A
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