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RADIOLOGY- PAGE 1


RADIOLOGY MCQs

1. Carneys’s triad consists of following except
(A) Multiple Pulmonary chondroma (B) Gastric leiomayo sarcoms (C) Extra adrenal paraganglioma (D) Thymoma

Ans: D

2. Advantage of oxysulfide phosphors in screen is
(A) Lower conversion efficiency (B) Higher conversion efficiency (C) They emit light photons (D) They absorb x-ray photons

Ans: B

3. Unexposed X-ray film is comprised of a plastic, transparent base coated with an emulsion containing radiation-sensitive particle known as:
(A) Metalic silver crystals (B) Silver halide grains (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Ans: B

4. Which of the following is not imaging findings of Kartagener syndrome?
(A) Recurrent pneumonia (B) Bronchiectasis (C) Asplenia (D) infertility

Ans: C

5. I am known as vanishing lung tumour
(A) Pulmonary oedema (B) Encysted pleural effusion (C) Pulmonary hamartoma (D) Interlobular effusion

Ans: D

6. The commonest site for skeletal tuberculosis is:
(A) Phalanges (B) Hip joint (C) Spine (D) Knee joint

Ans: C

7. Honey combing in inafant is called as
(A) Wilson Mikity syndrome (B) Farmer’s lung (C) Pigeon breeder’s lung (D) Tuberous sclerosis

Ans: A

8. Which of the following answers regarding pancreatic tuberculosis is true?
(A) Isolated pancreatic tuberculosis usually occurs in patients over 50 years of age
(B) In patients with pancreatic tuberculosis ascites, splenic and hepatic lesions may be present.
(C) It presents as a completely solid mass.
(D) Tuberculous lesions usually are located in the pancreatic tail.

Ans: B

9. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?
(A) Leiomyoma (B) Cystic teratoma (C) Endometriosis (D) Corpus luteum

Ans: A

10. For Desmoid tumour which statement is wrong
(A) It is benign and does not metastasize (B) Locally agreessive and infiltrates contiguous structure
(C) Recurs after resection. (D) Presents with metastases.

Ans: D

11. In the newer x-ray tube head 0.3 mm focal spot x-ray tube uses Anode angle of
(A) 6 degree (B) 20 degree (C) 45 degree (D) 90 degree

Ans: A

12. In masticator space which one is pseudomass formation
(A) Accessory parotid gland (B) Benign masseteric hypertrophy (C) Mandibular nerve denervation atrophy (D) All of the above

Ans: D

13. Most common tumour in the cerebellopontine angle is
(A) Schwanomas (B) Tuberculoma (C) Glioma (D) Meningioma

Ans: A

14. The spacing of lines in k space corresponds to
(A) Resolution (B) Number of excitations (C) Matrix size (D) Field of view

Ans: D

15. Which contrast media is gadolinium based MRI contrast
(A) Endoderm (B) Resovist (C) Teslascan (D) prohance

Ans: D

16. It is difficult to perform MR imaging in mummies because
(A) Solid (dry) tissues have very long T1 (B) Solid (dry) tissues have very long T2
(C) Solid (dry) tissues have very short T1 (D) Solid (dry) tissues have very short T2

Ans: D

17. Which is not an indication of therapeutic arterial embolization
(A) Control of severe bleding (B) Cerebro vascular ischemia and infract
(C) Pre operatvive measure (D) In management of vascular malformation

Ans: B

18. To perform MRI experiment , after placing the patient in uniform magnetic field we first need to
(A) Apply a radiofrequency pulse in a different direction from B0
(B) Apply a radiofrequency pulse along B0
(C) Change the strength of B0
(D) Apply a magnetic field gradient

Ans: A

19. TR and TE in spin echo sequences refers to options
(A) TR: the spacing between successive 90-degree pulses; TE: time before the 90-degree pulse and the spin echo
(B) TR: the spacing between successive 90-degree pulses; TE: the spacing between the 90-degree pulse and the 180-degree pulse
(C) TR: time before the 90-degree pulse and the spin echo; TE: the spacing between successive 90-degree pulses
(D) TR: the spacing between the 90-degree pulse and the 180-degree pulse; TE: the spacing between successive 90-degree pulses

Ans: A

20. In spin echo pulse sequence , which is not true
(A) A short TE minimizes Ta1 difference
(B) A short TE minimizes T2 differnce
(C) A long TE maximizes T2 differences
(D) A spin echos sequence using along TE will be a T2 weighted sequence

Ans: A

21. Image quality in MRI - noise is decreased bty
(A) Large voxel size (B) Small voxel size
(C) Long TE (D) Short TR

Ans: A

22. Which nerve is not passing through superior orbital fissure
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7

Ans: D

23. Velocity of transmission of ultrasound waves in human body — which one is true
(A) When frequency inceases wavelength must decrease
(B) Velocity of the sound is constant in any particular medium
(C) All body tissue except bone behave like liquids
(D) All of the above

Ans: D

24. Gradual decrease in x-ray beam intensity as it passes through material is called
(A) Attenuation (B) decay
(C) radioactivity (D) imaging

Ans: A

25. In high frequency ultrasound
(A) A. Tissue penetration is good (B) B. Fresnel zone is longer
(C) C. Fresnel zone is shorter (D) Length of fresnel zone is not dependent on diameter of transducer

Ans: B

26. In radiation exposure – stochastic effect is defined as
(A) A. effect in which the probability of occurrence increases with increasing absorbed dose
(B) B. Somatic effect increases in severity with increasing absorbed dose
(C) C. Severity of the effect does not depend on magnitude of the absorbed dose
(D) All of the above

Ans: A

27. Changing from a 2 MHz to a 5 MHz ultrasound transducer would generally produce:
(A) Faster imaging. (B) Deeper penetration (C) Shorter wavelengths. (D) Shorter ultrasound pulses.

Ans: C

28. While doing an ultrasound scan you notice that the echoes at a depth of 4 - 6 cm appear relatively weak. The appropriate action to increase their brightness in the image would be to adjust the:
(A) Frequency. (B) Focusing. (C) The time-gain compensation (TGC) (D) Beam intensity

Ans: C

29. When using Doppler ultrasound to determine blood flow velocity it is necessary for the equipment operator to make a specific adjustment unique to the Doppler function for:
(A) Direction of vessel. (B) Transducer frequency (C) Depth of vessel. (D) Size of vessel.

Ans: A

30. Changing the CT image matrix size will have a significant effect on
(A) CT number values (B) Image detail. (C) Image noise. (D) Scan time

Ans: C

31. A CT number value of 100 for a specific soft tissue indicates that it:
(A) Has a higher than normal water content.
(B) Probably has a density greater than 1 gm/cc.
(C) Will appear dark if a window with a width of 50 is centered at 50.
(D) Will change to a value of 50 if the slice thickness is reduced to one half.

Ans: B

32. If a CT viewing window is centered at +100 with a width of 50:
(A) Fat will appear black (B) Water will appear white
(C) Tissue with a CT number of 100 will appear black (D) Tissue with a CT number of 50 will appear white.

Ans: A

33. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:
(A) White matter (B) Grey matter (C) Thalamus (D) Basal ganglia

Ans: A

34. Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome causes are
​(A) Hypertensive disorder in male (B) Treatment with cyclosporine (C) Carbon monoxide poisoning (D) None of the above
​
Ans: B

35. Concerning CT KUB technique, which of the following is correct? (A) The scan should be performed with the patient in the supine position only. (B) The scan should be performed without intravenous contrast. (C) The scan should be performed in the arterial phase. (D) The scan should be performed in the excretory phase.
Ans: B

36. Regarding the composition of angiolipomas chose the correct answer.
(A) Calcium is frequently found in this tumor. (B) The tumor is exclusively composed of fatty tissue.
(C) Vascular structures can be identified inside the tumor. (D) No fatty tissue can be identified inside the tumor

Ans: C

37. About thyroid carcinoma arising in struma ovarii, only one of the following answers is true
(A) Psammoma bodies are typically identified in follicular carcinomas
(B) It is most likely to occur in the right ovary
(C) Papillary carcinoma is the most frequent thyroid carcinoma arising in struma ovarii
(D) The morphological criteria of thyroid carcinoma arising in struma ovarii are different from its thyroid counterpart

Ans: C

38. Which of the following statements is true regarding Wandering spleen?
(A) Wandering spleen is quite common. (B) It is acquired.
(C) Majority of them are detected incidentally during ultrasound (D) It is more common in women of reproductive age group.

Ans: D

39. Following is incorrect about Cavernous sinus thrombosis:
(A) Cavernous sinus is vulnerable to infection from multiple sites.
(B) CT can best assess the presence and extent of the thrombosis
(C) Extension of the thrombosis to other venous sinuses and surrounding tissues can occur.
(D) Clinical features are strong indicators of cavernous sinus thrombosis.

Ans: B

40
. All are seen in congenital syphilis except
(A) Periostitis (B) Metaphysitis
(C) Dactylitis (D) Epiphysitis
Ans: D

41. Earliest Periosteal reaction can be seen on x-ray in childhood fracture
(A) 2nd day (B) 10th day
(C) 21st day (D) One month

Ans: B

42. Number of carpal bones seen in a radiograph of an infant are
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6

Ans: B

43. Commonest site of physiological Calcification in brain is
(A) Basal ganglia (B) Choroid plexus (C) Pineal gland (D) Falx calcification

Ans: B

44. All are radiographic features of osteomalcia except
(A) Protrusion acetabuli (B)  Tear drop outline (C)  Cod fish deformity (D) Milk man fracture

Ans: B

45. Which one is not a case of primary tumour in sellar and parasellar region
(A) Germ cell tumour (B) Meningioma (C) Tuber cinerum (D) ependymonma

Ans: D

46. Which statement is true On USG and Doppler in case of post renal transplant primary renal non function due to acute tubular necrosis . (A) good arterial and venous flow (B) No venous flow
(C) No arterial flow and no venous flow (D) Dampening of systolic peak with reverse arterial flow in diastole.

Ans: A

47. I am intraventricular tumour
(A) Neurocytoma (B) epidermoid (C) chordoma (D) Rathke’s cleft cyst

Ans: A

48. Out of following list which one doe not include as a cause of dementia
(A) Fronto temporal dementia (B) Alzheimer’s disease (C) Hippocampal sclerosis (D) Prion diseases

Ans: C

49. On CT scan , it is seen as hyperdense area
(A) Acute Cerebral Hemorrhage (B) Glioblastoma (C) Cerebral edema (D) Cerebral infarct

Ans: A

50. Mayer Rokitansky kuster Hauser syndrome comprises
(A) Vaginal agenesis with anomaly of uterus , ovaries , urinary tract and skeletal anomaly
(B) Vaginal agenesis with normal ovary and anomaly of uterus, urinary tract and skeletal anomaly
(C) Anomaly of uterus and vagina only
​(D) Anomalous uterus, urinary tract and skeletal anomaly

Ans: B
51. Which statement is true ?
(A) Luminennce is optical radiation. (B) In flurosence light is emitted after 10-8 sec of stimulation.
(C) In phosphorescence emission of light occure before 10-8 sec . (D) Luminescent material can not absorb energy.

Ans: A

52. Different signs of pneumoperitoneum except
(A) Chiladiti syndrome (B) Rigler’s sign (C) Inverted V sign (D) football or air dome sign

Ans: A

53. Holmes and Wright developed the first commercial portable ultrasound system when?
(A) 1952 (B) 1962 (C) 1972 (D) 1982

Ans: B

54. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:
(A) 15-20 sec (B) 20-30 sec (C) 60-70 sec (D) 120-180 sec

Ans: B

55. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?
(A) Early arterial (B) Corticomedullary (C) Nephrographic (D) Excretory

Ans: D

56. Name the syndrome- Genetic disorder associated with chromosome 17 having café au lait skin lesions with vascular abnormalities
(A) Alagille syndrome (B) Takayasu’s Disease (C) Von Recklinghausen’s syndrome (D) William’s syndrome

Ans: C

57. Jones fracture is name of
(A) March fracture (B) 5th metatarsal meta diaphyseal fracture (C) Calcanean stress fracture (D) Navicualr fracture

Ans: B

58. The cathode is a filament composed of
(A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Tungsten (D) Copper

Ans: C

59. Collimation of the primary beam
(A) Dictates the contrast of the final radiograph (B) Decreases the exposure time
(C) Restricts the shape and size of the beam (D) Makes the primary beam more difficult to pass the subject

Ans: C

60. The film emulsion is softens during :
(A) Development (B) Fixing (C) Rinsing (D) Washing

Ans: A

61. Which of the following describes secondary radiation ?
(A) Radiation that exist the tubehead (B) Radiation that is created when x-rays come in contact with matter
(C) Radiation that has been deflected from its path by the interaction with matter (D) None of the above

Ans: B

62. The cathode and anode are parts of an x-ray tube. The anode is negatively charged.
(A) The first statement is correct. The second statement is wrong
(B) The first statement is wrong. The second statement is correct
(C) Both the statements are correct
(D) Both the statements are wrong

Ans: A

63. Latest piezo electric crystal used in USG
(A) Barium titanate (B) Lead zirconate titanate (C) Amorphous selenium (D) Aluminum substarte

Ans: B

64. The characteristic that is “ the amount of radiation required to produce a radiograph of standard density “ is :
(A) contrast (B) Screen speed (C) Image resolution (D) Film emulsion

Ans: B

65. Most of the energy of the electrons from the cathode is converted to :
(A) X-rays (B) Scatter (C) Primary beam (D) Heat

Ans: D

66. Filters are used in the xray beam to
(A) Increase density (B) Reduce density (C) Reduce exposure size of the beam (D) Reduce patient radiation dose

Ans: D

67. Europium activated barium flurohalide is used in
(A) Barium study (B) Computed radiography (C) Digital radiography (D) in rare earth intensifying screen

Ans: B

68. If a radiograph remains in the developing solution too long the film will be
(A) Darker (B) Lighter (C) Lighter only if the temperature is increased (D) Unaffected because time is not a factor

Ans: B

69. Which statement is true regarding cervical spine fracture in hanging ?
(A) it is often seen but is not usually associated with spinal cord injury
(B) spinal cord injury tends to happen without C spine fracture
(C) Traumatic spondylolysis of the axis
(D) Other name is jaffersons fracture

Ans: C

70. Out of the following pancreatic tumour, which is functioning tumour
(A) Somatostatinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma of pancreas
(C) Pancreaticblastoma (D) Primary pancreatic lymphoma

Ans: A

71. Bowel dilatation due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:
(A) Adhesion (B) Dyspepsia (C) Intussusception (D) Ileus

Ans: D

72. The internal saphenous vein drains in to
(A) Drains into the common femoral vein. (B) Drains in to the popliteal vein . (C) Drain to peroneal vein (D) Drains in to iliac vein.

Ans: A

73. What are the constituents of a normal three vessel cord?
(A) Two umbilical arteries and one vein (B) One umbilical artery and two umbilical veins
(C) Three umbilical arteries (D) Three umbilical veins

Ans: A

74. On MR imaging the signal characteristics of CP angle lipoma predominantly of triglyceride is/ are
(A) Hypointense on both T1 and T2 WI. (B) Hyperintense signal on T1 and T2 both
(C) Hyperintense on T1 and hypointense on T2WI (D) Shown to be intensely enhancing.

Ans: C

75. Gallbladder adenomyomatosis and xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis share the following clinical and imaging features except:
(A) Gallbladder wall thickening
(B) Both represent benign inflammatory processes.
(C) Both entities may mimic gallbladder carcinoma on imaging studies.
(D) Cholesterol crystals in Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses are not visible by ultrasound

Ans: D

76. The differential diagnosis for an intraventricular lesion in an adult includes all of the following except:
(A) Metastasis. (B) Meningioma. (C) Ependymoma. (D) DNET - dysembryoblastic neuroepithelial tumor is

Ans: D

77. Which of the following is affected by the slice spacing in the CT study
(A) Signal to noise ratio (B) Spatial resolution (C) Quantum mottle (D) Radiation dose to the PT

Ans: D

78. Typical presentation of an abcess on an contrast enhanced CT study is
(A) That the following contrast enhancement, the abcess becomes isodense with the surrounding tissue
(B) A high attenuation are because the contrast pools in the abcess, often creating clear fluid levels
(C) A low attenuation are surrounded by a ring of enhancement .
(D) That the abscess remains entirely unaffected by the contrast material and presents as a low attenuatioin area

Ans: C

79. Which of the following is true concerning CT studies of the musculoskeletal system
(A) When possible, the normal side should be examined, with the two sides placed symmetrically.
(B) Slice thickness is typically 1-2mm and never exceeds 3mm
(C) A single bone window is adequate for most studies.
(D) IV contrast is never necessary.

Ans: A

80. Commonest cause of Enhancement of brain lesions is due to
(A) The intrinsic vascularity of the brain. (B) The high subject contrast inherent in the brain.
(C) The disruption of the blood brain barrier. (D) Arterio venous malformations

Ans: C

81. Which statement is true
(A) Most common malignant ocular tumour in children is retinoblastoma
(B) Most common malignant orbital tumour is retinoblastoma
(C) Most common malignant orbital and ocular tumour is retinoblastoma .
(D) None of the above

Ans: A

82. What is the advantages of scans of the pituitary taken in the coronal plane?
(A) IV contrast material is better visualized (B) Streak aritfacts are reduced or eliminated
(C) The Patient is more comfortable during scanning (D) The patient receives a lower dose of radiation

Ans: B

83. Which of the following conditions may be visualized in a CT study in the brainparenchyma
(A) Glioblastoma (B) Krukenberg tumor (C) Wilms tumor (D) Plasmacytosis

Ans: A

84. In CTscan following artifacts are seen
(A) beam hardening artifact (B) Cone beam artifact (C) Stair stepping artifact (D) All of the above

Ans: D

85. The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of
(A) T10 (B) T12 (C) L2 (D) L4

Ans: D

86. Which of the following is a common complication during CT guided biopsy of the lung
(A) Pulmonary embolism (B) Aspiration (C) Pneumonitis (D) Pnuemothorax

Ans: D

87. Of the following ranges, which would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen?
(A) Below the diaphragm to the bottom of the kidney (B) To of the kidney to the level of the mid sacrum
(C) Top of the kidney to the umbilicus (D) Above the diaphragm to the illiac crest

Ans: D

88. After the IV administration of contrast, a small hepatic hemangioma show
(A) Hypodense (B) Radiolucent (C) Isodense (D) Prolonged enhancement on equilibrium phase

Ans: D

89
. All the following are true of thyroid orbitopathy except:
(A) Extra-ocular involvement often spares the muscular tendons. (B) The lateral rectus muscle is usually involved first.
(C) Patients are not necessarily hyperthyroid. (D) The retro-orbital fat is usually spared in the early stages of the disease.

Ans: B

90. The base of the breast is considered to:
(A) Include the nipple (B) Include the IMP
(C) Be the area closest to the chest wall (D) Include the axilla

Ans: C

91. All mammography films, no matter the manufacturer are
​ (A) Most sensitive to green light (B) Most sensitive to blue light (C) Equally sensitive to blue or green light (D) None of the above

Ans: A

92. Polycystic ovarian syndrome includes except
(A)  Brenner tumour (B) Oligomenorrhea
(C) Secondary amenorrhoea (D) Infertility

Ans: A

93. Removal of unwanted, unexposed silver bromide on film happens in the:
(A) Developer cycle (B) Fixer cycle
(C) Wash cycle (D) Not removed

Ans: B

94. The advantage of the molybdenum target over the tungsten target for Mammography is its ability to produce:
(A) More characteristic photons of approximately 20 keV
(B) More characteristic photons of approximately 10 keV
(C) Short exposure time
(D) Use of 0.5 mm focal spot

Ans: A

95. The actual focal spot is always _______ then the projected focal spot.
(A) Larger than (B) Smaller than
(C) The same size as (D) variable

Ans: A

96. Which statement is false for breast compression while doing mammography?
(A) Decreased tissue thickness
(B) Decreases patient motion
(C) Increases radiation exposure to breast tissues
(D) Spreads tissues

Ans: C

97. For breast fibroadenoma which finding gives suspicion of phyllodes tumour
(A) Size grater than 3 cm
(B) Rapid increase in size
(C) Smooth well defined margin with lobulation
(D) Hyperechogenic compared to fat with thin echogenic pseudo capsule

Ans: B

98. Causes of ocular metastases except
(A) Lung malignancy (B) Breast malignancy
(C) Uveal melanoma (D) Thyroid malignancy

Ans: D
​

99. Causes of neuropathic arthropathy except
(A) Syringomyelia (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Alcohol (D) haemophilia

Ans: D
​
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