PATHOLOGY- PAGE 5
PATHOLOGY MCQs- PAGE 5
1. Ag presenting dendritic cells in epidermis are:
(A) Merkel cells (B) Langerhans cells (C) Macrophages (D) Lymphocytes
Ans: B
2. Epidermotropism is seen in:
(A) Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (B) Spongiotic dermatitis (C) Allergic contact dermatitis (D) Merkel cell carcinoma
Ans: A
3. S-100 protein is expressed by all except:
(A) Melanoma (B) Cartilaginous tumors (C) Langerhans cells (D) Myofibroblastic tumor
Ans: D
4. Useful markers for PECOMAs are:
(A) SMA (B) Melanocytic marker (C) Both of (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
5. Speed of penetration of tissue by formalin is:
(A) 0.5 mm/hr (B) 1 mm/hr (C) 1.5 mm/hr (D) 2 mm/hr
Ans: B
6. Bouin fixative is recommended for:
(A) Testicular biopsy (B) Bone Marrow Biopsy (C) Electron microscopy (D) Lymph node biopsy
Ans: A
7. For most fungi and parasites commonly used special stain is:
(A) Reticulin (B) Hematoxylene& Eosin (C) PAS (D) Fontana-Masson
Ans: C
8. Special stain used for demonstration of basement membrane is:
(A) PAS (B) Reticulin (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Trichrome stain
Ans: C
9. Match the following:
a) Hemosiderin i) Fontana-Masson
b) Melalin ii) Oil red O
c) Calcium iii) Pearls
d) Neutral lipid iv) Von kossa
(A) (a - iii) (b - iv) (c - ii) (d - i)
(B) (a - iii) (b - i) (c - iv) (d - ii)
(C) (a - iv) (b - iii) (c - ii) (d - i)
(D) (a - i) (b - ii) (c - iii) (d - iv)
Ans: B
10. Rosettes and pseudorosettes are seen in all except:
(A) Neuroblastoma (B) PNET (C) Schwannoma (D) Neurofibroma
Ans: D
11. Sputum culture for tuberculosis is carried out for:
(A) Drug susceptibility testing (B) Species identification (C) Sputum negative tuberculosis patients (D) All of the above
Ans: D
12. For preservation of eggs, larvae and cysts in stool sample, preservative which can be used is:
(A) 10% formalin (B) Polyvinyl alcohol (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
13. True about stool microscopic examination is:
(A) Iodine wet mount is useful for identification of protozoal cysts (B) Iodine stains glycogen and nuclei of the cysts
(C) Trophozoites become non-motile in iodine mounts (D) All of the above
Ans: D
14. Biphasic pattern with epithelial and spindle cell areas are characteristic of:
(A) Synovial sarcoma (B) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)
(C) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) (D) Alveolar soft part sarcoma
Ans: A
15. Cytokeratins are expressed by:
(A) Carcinomas (B) Epitheloid sarcoma (C) Synovial sarcoma (D) All of the above
Ans: D
16. Tram track appearance of glomerular capillary wall is seen in:
(A) Membranoproliferative glomerulosclerosis (B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (C) IgA nephropathy (D) Good pasture syndrome
Ans: A
17. True about light microscopy in minimal change disease is:
(A) Loss of foot process seen (B) Anti GBM Abs seen (C) IgA deposits seen (D) No change seen
Ans: D
18. Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion is characteristic of:
(A) HIV nephropathy (B) Diabetic nephropathy (C) Amyloidosis (D) Malignant hypertension
Ans: B
19. Papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except:
(A) NSAIDs (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Shock
Ans: D
20. Cells with crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm in bone marrow aspiration is seen in:
(A) Gaucher’s disease (B) Niemanpick disease (C) Sea blue histocytosis (D) Hunter’s disease
Ans: A
21. True regarding IgA nephropathy:
(A) Usually in children <10 years (B) Microscopic hematuria is the most common presentation
(C) Recurrent gross hematuria following respiratory infection (D) Decreased serum IgA
Ans: C
22. Intra tubular germ cell neoplasia is implicated as a cause for the following testicular tumor?
(A) Pediatric yolk sac tumors (B) Pediatric teratomas (C) Seminomas (D) Adult spermatocytic seminomas
Ans: C
23. Fish net pattern on immuno-fluorescence is seen in:
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris (B) Bullous pemphigoid (C) Bechet syndrome (D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Ans: A
24. Which one of the following tests has the higher chance of detecting HIV infection in a blood donor during the window period?
(A) Demonstration of antibody to HIV by ELISA (B) CD4 Count (C) P24 antigen detection (D) Western blot test
Ans: C
25. Which of the following is least likely complication after massive blood transfusion?
(A) Hyperkalemia (B) Citrate toxicity (C) Hypothermia (D) Metabolic acidosis
Ans: D
26. Which of the following regarding Bombay blood group is false?
(A) Lack of H, A and B antigen on RBCs (B) Lack of H, A and B substance in saliva
(C) Lack of antigens of several blood group systems (D) H, A and B antibodies will always be present in serum
Ans: C
27. Sampling that involves randomly selecting some of the pre-existing natural groups is called:
(A) Cluster (B) Quota (C) Systematic (D) Simple random
Ans: A
28. Osteoblastic metastasis in skeletal survey of men is diagnostic of:
(A) Seminoma (B) Prostatic carcinoma (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: B
29. All are true about squamous intraepithelial neoplasia (SIL) except:
(A) Diagnosis of SIL is based on identification of nuclear atypia (B) Most cases of LSIL regress spontaneously
(C) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia-III is renamed as HSIL (D) HSILs are at high risk for progression to malignancy
Ans: C
30. Endometrial Adenocarcinoma with chondrosarcoma like component is:
(A) Malignant mixed mullerian tumors (B) Carcinosarcoma (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Stromal sarcoma
Ans: C
31. Antigen-retrieving in IHC can be obtained by:
(A) Microwave oven (B) Water bath (C) Pressure cooker (D) All of the above
Ans: D
32. Fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in:
(A) Nephrotic syndrome (B) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Chronic renal failure (D) All of the above
Ans: C
33. Albumin/ creatinine ratio in random urine sample in nephrotic syndrome is:
(A) 0.2 - 1.0 (B) 1.0 - 3.5 (C) >3.5 (D) None of above
Ans: C
34. Only element in urinary sediment that is specifically of renal origin is:
(A) Cells (B) Cast (C) Crystals (D) Organisms
Ans: B
35. Crystals present in acid urine are all except:
(A) Uric acid (B) Calcium oxalate (C) Phosphate (D) Cysteine
Ans: D
36. Increase in serum creatinine level occur when:
(A) 25% loss of kidney function (B) 50% loss of kidney function (C) 60% loss of kidney function (D) 75% loss of kidney function
Ans: B
37. Crystalloids of Reinke is characteristic of:
(A) Sertoli cell tumor (B) Leydig cell tumor (C) Gonadoblastoma (D) All of the above
Ans: B
38. Comparison of proportion can be made by:
(A) ‘t’ test (B) Chi-square test (C) ANOVA (D) Correlation & Regression
Ans: B
39. Mode is:
(A) Value that most frequently occurs in a set of observation
(B) When observations are arranged in ascending or descending order the value that comes in the centre
(C) Calculated by adding up the values of a group of items and dividing the sum by the number of items
(D) Best measure for central tendency is a highly scented distribution
Ans: A
40. Life span of transfused platelets is:
(A) < 24 hrs (B) 1 - 3 days (C) 3 - 5 days (D) 7 - 14 days
Ans: C
41. Most common ovarian tumor is:
(A) Mucinous adenocarcinoma (B) Serous adenocarcinoma (C) Granulosa cell tumor (D) Endometrioid carcinoma
Ans: B
42. True about molar pregnancy is all except:
(A) Complete mole results from fertilization of an egg that has lost its female chromosomes
(B) In complete mole genetic material is completely paternally derived
(C) Partial mole results from fertilization of an empty ovum with two sperms
(D) Partial mole is not associated with choriocarcinoma
Ans: C
43. Granulomatous lobular mastitis is associated with:
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Sarcoidosis (C) Hypersensitivity reaction to Ag expressed during lactation (D) All of the above
Ans: C
44. Women carrying BRCA 1 gene are more likely to develop which type of breast carcinoma?
(A) Medullary (B) Lobular (C) Colloid (D) Secretory
Ans: A
45. Lobular carcinoma breast is characterized by:
(A) Absent tubule formation (B) Estrogen receptor positive (C) E-cadherin negative (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. Patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis are at increased risk of developing:
(A) Papillary carcinoma (B) Follicular carcinoma (C) T-cell lymphoma (D) B-cell lymphoma
Ans: D
47. Osteitis fibrosacystica of bone is seen in:
(A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Hypoparathyroidism (C) Hypothroidism (D) Hyperthroidism
Ans: A
48. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
(A) Adenoma (B) Hyperplasia (C) Hypertrophy (D) Carcinoma
Ans: A
49. All of the following statements about Type I diabetes are true except?
(A) Family history is present in 90% cases (B) Dependent on insulin to prevent Diabetic Ketoacidosis
(C) Autoimmune destruction of - cells (D) Often occurs in children
Ans: A
50. Sustentacular cells of pheochromocytoma are positive for which of the following markers?
(A) S-100 (B) Cytokeratin (C) Vimentin (D) Desmin
Ans: A
(A) Merkel cells (B) Langerhans cells (C) Macrophages (D) Lymphocytes
Ans: B
2. Epidermotropism is seen in:
(A) Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (B) Spongiotic dermatitis (C) Allergic contact dermatitis (D) Merkel cell carcinoma
Ans: A
3. S-100 protein is expressed by all except:
(A) Melanoma (B) Cartilaginous tumors (C) Langerhans cells (D) Myofibroblastic tumor
Ans: D
4. Useful markers for PECOMAs are:
(A) SMA (B) Melanocytic marker (C) Both of (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
5. Speed of penetration of tissue by formalin is:
(A) 0.5 mm/hr (B) 1 mm/hr (C) 1.5 mm/hr (D) 2 mm/hr
Ans: B
6. Bouin fixative is recommended for:
(A) Testicular biopsy (B) Bone Marrow Biopsy (C) Electron microscopy (D) Lymph node biopsy
Ans: A
7. For most fungi and parasites commonly used special stain is:
(A) Reticulin (B) Hematoxylene& Eosin (C) PAS (D) Fontana-Masson
Ans: C
8. Special stain used for demonstration of basement membrane is:
(A) PAS (B) Reticulin (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Trichrome stain
Ans: C
9. Match the following:
a) Hemosiderin i) Fontana-Masson
b) Melalin ii) Oil red O
c) Calcium iii) Pearls
d) Neutral lipid iv) Von kossa
(A) (a - iii) (b - iv) (c - ii) (d - i)
(B) (a - iii) (b - i) (c - iv) (d - ii)
(C) (a - iv) (b - iii) (c - ii) (d - i)
(D) (a - i) (b - ii) (c - iii) (d - iv)
Ans: B
10. Rosettes and pseudorosettes are seen in all except:
(A) Neuroblastoma (B) PNET (C) Schwannoma (D) Neurofibroma
Ans: D
11. Sputum culture for tuberculosis is carried out for:
(A) Drug susceptibility testing (B) Species identification (C) Sputum negative tuberculosis patients (D) All of the above
Ans: D
12. For preservation of eggs, larvae and cysts in stool sample, preservative which can be used is:
(A) 10% formalin (B) Polyvinyl alcohol (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
13. True about stool microscopic examination is:
(A) Iodine wet mount is useful for identification of protozoal cysts (B) Iodine stains glycogen and nuclei of the cysts
(C) Trophozoites become non-motile in iodine mounts (D) All of the above
Ans: D
14. Biphasic pattern with epithelial and spindle cell areas are characteristic of:
(A) Synovial sarcoma (B) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)
(C) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) (D) Alveolar soft part sarcoma
Ans: A
15. Cytokeratins are expressed by:
(A) Carcinomas (B) Epitheloid sarcoma (C) Synovial sarcoma (D) All of the above
Ans: D
16. Tram track appearance of glomerular capillary wall is seen in:
(A) Membranoproliferative glomerulosclerosis (B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (C) IgA nephropathy (D) Good pasture syndrome
Ans: A
17. True about light microscopy in minimal change disease is:
(A) Loss of foot process seen (B) Anti GBM Abs seen (C) IgA deposits seen (D) No change seen
Ans: D
18. Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion is characteristic of:
(A) HIV nephropathy (B) Diabetic nephropathy (C) Amyloidosis (D) Malignant hypertension
Ans: B
19. Papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except:
(A) NSAIDs (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Shock
Ans: D
20. Cells with crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm in bone marrow aspiration is seen in:
(A) Gaucher’s disease (B) Niemanpick disease (C) Sea blue histocytosis (D) Hunter’s disease
Ans: A
21. True regarding IgA nephropathy:
(A) Usually in children <10 years (B) Microscopic hematuria is the most common presentation
(C) Recurrent gross hematuria following respiratory infection (D) Decreased serum IgA
Ans: C
22. Intra tubular germ cell neoplasia is implicated as a cause for the following testicular tumor?
(A) Pediatric yolk sac tumors (B) Pediatric teratomas (C) Seminomas (D) Adult spermatocytic seminomas
Ans: C
23. Fish net pattern on immuno-fluorescence is seen in:
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris (B) Bullous pemphigoid (C) Bechet syndrome (D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Ans: A
24. Which one of the following tests has the higher chance of detecting HIV infection in a blood donor during the window period?
(A) Demonstration of antibody to HIV by ELISA (B) CD4 Count (C) P24 antigen detection (D) Western blot test
Ans: C
25. Which of the following is least likely complication after massive blood transfusion?
(A) Hyperkalemia (B) Citrate toxicity (C) Hypothermia (D) Metabolic acidosis
Ans: D
26. Which of the following regarding Bombay blood group is false?
(A) Lack of H, A and B antigen on RBCs (B) Lack of H, A and B substance in saliva
(C) Lack of antigens of several blood group systems (D) H, A and B antibodies will always be present in serum
Ans: C
27. Sampling that involves randomly selecting some of the pre-existing natural groups is called:
(A) Cluster (B) Quota (C) Systematic (D) Simple random
Ans: A
28. Osteoblastic metastasis in skeletal survey of men is diagnostic of:
(A) Seminoma (B) Prostatic carcinoma (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: B
29. All are true about squamous intraepithelial neoplasia (SIL) except:
(A) Diagnosis of SIL is based on identification of nuclear atypia (B) Most cases of LSIL regress spontaneously
(C) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia-III is renamed as HSIL (D) HSILs are at high risk for progression to malignancy
Ans: C
30. Endometrial Adenocarcinoma with chondrosarcoma like component is:
(A) Malignant mixed mullerian tumors (B) Carcinosarcoma (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Stromal sarcoma
Ans: C
31. Antigen-retrieving in IHC can be obtained by:
(A) Microwave oven (B) Water bath (C) Pressure cooker (D) All of the above
Ans: D
32. Fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in:
(A) Nephrotic syndrome (B) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Chronic renal failure (D) All of the above
Ans: C
33. Albumin/ creatinine ratio in random urine sample in nephrotic syndrome is:
(A) 0.2 - 1.0 (B) 1.0 - 3.5 (C) >3.5 (D) None of above
Ans: C
34. Only element in urinary sediment that is specifically of renal origin is:
(A) Cells (B) Cast (C) Crystals (D) Organisms
Ans: B
35. Crystals present in acid urine are all except:
(A) Uric acid (B) Calcium oxalate (C) Phosphate (D) Cysteine
Ans: D
36. Increase in serum creatinine level occur when:
(A) 25% loss of kidney function (B) 50% loss of kidney function (C) 60% loss of kidney function (D) 75% loss of kidney function
Ans: B
37. Crystalloids of Reinke is characteristic of:
(A) Sertoli cell tumor (B) Leydig cell tumor (C) Gonadoblastoma (D) All of the above
Ans: B
38. Comparison of proportion can be made by:
(A) ‘t’ test (B) Chi-square test (C) ANOVA (D) Correlation & Regression
Ans: B
39. Mode is:
(A) Value that most frequently occurs in a set of observation
(B) When observations are arranged in ascending or descending order the value that comes in the centre
(C) Calculated by adding up the values of a group of items and dividing the sum by the number of items
(D) Best measure for central tendency is a highly scented distribution
Ans: A
40. Life span of transfused platelets is:
(A) < 24 hrs (B) 1 - 3 days (C) 3 - 5 days (D) 7 - 14 days
Ans: C
41. Most common ovarian tumor is:
(A) Mucinous adenocarcinoma (B) Serous adenocarcinoma (C) Granulosa cell tumor (D) Endometrioid carcinoma
Ans: B
42. True about molar pregnancy is all except:
(A) Complete mole results from fertilization of an egg that has lost its female chromosomes
(B) In complete mole genetic material is completely paternally derived
(C) Partial mole results from fertilization of an empty ovum with two sperms
(D) Partial mole is not associated with choriocarcinoma
Ans: C
43. Granulomatous lobular mastitis is associated with:
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Sarcoidosis (C) Hypersensitivity reaction to Ag expressed during lactation (D) All of the above
Ans: C
44. Women carrying BRCA 1 gene are more likely to develop which type of breast carcinoma?
(A) Medullary (B) Lobular (C) Colloid (D) Secretory
Ans: A
45. Lobular carcinoma breast is characterized by:
(A) Absent tubule formation (B) Estrogen receptor positive (C) E-cadherin negative (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. Patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis are at increased risk of developing:
(A) Papillary carcinoma (B) Follicular carcinoma (C) T-cell lymphoma (D) B-cell lymphoma
Ans: D
47. Osteitis fibrosacystica of bone is seen in:
(A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Hypoparathyroidism (C) Hypothroidism (D) Hyperthroidism
Ans: A
48. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
(A) Adenoma (B) Hyperplasia (C) Hypertrophy (D) Carcinoma
Ans: A
49. All of the following statements about Type I diabetes are true except?
(A) Family history is present in 90% cases (B) Dependent on insulin to prevent Diabetic Ketoacidosis
(C) Autoimmune destruction of - cells (D) Often occurs in children
Ans: A
50. Sustentacular cells of pheochromocytoma are positive for which of the following markers?
(A) S-100 (B) Cytokeratin (C) Vimentin (D) Desmin
Ans: A
51. Three basic steps of PCR involves Following except:
(A) DNA extraction (B) Amplification (C) Gel documentation (D) Melting curve analysis
Ans: D
52. Regarding blotting techniques, which of the following is false?
(A) Southern blot is used to detect DNA (B) Northern blot is used to detect RNA
(C) Western blot is used to detect antigens (D) Eastern blot is used to analyze proteins for post-translational modifications
Ans: C
53. What should be the minimum distance between two adjacent antimicrobial disks on the MuellerHinton agar plate?
(A) 5mm (B) 10mm (C) 20mm (D) 30mm
Ans: C
54. In post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
(A) C3 decreases, ASO increases (B) C3 increases, ASO increases (C) C3 decreases, ASO decreases (D) C3 increases, ASO decreases
Ans: A
55. Which of the following is not a selective media?
(A) Blood agar (B) LJ medium (C) Wilson Blair medium (D) Thiosulphate citrate bile
Ans: A
56. Most common cause of primary nephrotic syndrome in adult:
(A) Membranous glomerulonephritis (B) Minimal change disease
(C) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (D) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Ans: D
57. A grape like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in a 4 yr old girl is characteristic of:
(A) Fibrosarcoma (B) Sarcoma botryoides (C) Leiomyosarcoma (D) Inflammatory polyp
Ans: B
58. Which hormone is increased in Poly Cystic Ovarian Syndrome?
(A) LH (B) FSH (C) Inhibin (D) Estrogen
Ans: A
59. Most common radiosensitive ovarian tumor:
(A) Dysgerminoma (B) Granulosa cell tumor (C) Teratoma (D) Theca cell tumor
Ans: A
60. Wrong pair is:
(A) Seminoma- Placental Alkaline phosphatase (B) Embryonal carcinoma- CD-30
(C) Yolk sac tumor- - fetoprotein (D) Choriocarcinoma- HCG
Ans: B
61. What is probable diagnosis of patient having pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, prolactinoma and parathyroid adenoma?
(A) MEN-1 (B) MEN-2A (C) MEN- 2B (D) Li fraumni syndrome
Ans: A
62. Medium for growth of anaerobic bacteria:
(A) SN medium (B) LJ medium (C) Blood agar (D) Chocolate media
Ans: A
63. Mac Conkey agar is:
(A) Differential media (B) Enrich media (C) Selective media (D) Simple media
Ans: A
64. Golden yellow pigmented colonies on nutrient agar is observed in:
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) β- hemolytic streptococci (C) Pneumococci (D) Corynebacterium
Ans: A
65. Mucoid dome shaped pink coloured colonies on Mac-Conkey agar is observed in:
(A) Proteus (B) S. typhi (C) Klebsiella (D) V. cholera
Ans: C
66. For electron microscopy suitable thickness of section is:
(A) 0 - 20 nm (B) 20 - 100nm (C) 100 - 200nm (D) 200 - 500nm
Ans: B
67. Percentage of Sulphuric acid needed for decolorisation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 25% (D) 1%
Ans: C
68. Tripple sugar ion test shows alkaline slant and acidic butt, no gas and a speck of H2S. The identification is:
(A) E. coli (B) S. typhi (C) Proteus (D) H. pylori
Ans: B
69. Stab culture is used for all, except:
(A) Maintaining stock culture (B) Demonstration of oxygen requirement of bacteria (C) Motility testing (D) Bacteriophage typing
Ans: D
70. Selenite F broth is an enrichment media for:
(A) Salmonella (B) Proteus (C) E. Coli (D) Campylobacter
Ans: A
71. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram- negative organism:
(A) Clostridium welchii (B) Clostridium tetani (C) Bacillus cereus (D) Proteus mirabilias
Ans: D
72. Selective media for Vibrio:
(A) TCBS (B) Stuart (C) Skirrows (D) MYPA
Ans: A
73. In nutrient agar concentration of agar is:
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
Ans: B
74. Match the following:
a) Neuroendocrine tumor i) Weibel-palade bodies
b) Langerhans cell histiocytosis ii) Melanosomes
c) Endothelial cell tumor iii) Birbeck granules
d) Melanocytic tumor iv) Dense-core granules
(A) (a - iv) (b - i) (c - iii) (d - ii)
(B) (a - i) (b - ii) (c - iv) (d - ii)
(C) (a - iv) (b - iii) (c - i) (d - ii)
(D) (a - iii) (b - i) (c - iv) (d - ii)
Ans: C
(A) DNA extraction (B) Amplification (C) Gel documentation (D) Melting curve analysis
Ans: D
52. Regarding blotting techniques, which of the following is false?
(A) Southern blot is used to detect DNA (B) Northern blot is used to detect RNA
(C) Western blot is used to detect antigens (D) Eastern blot is used to analyze proteins for post-translational modifications
Ans: C
53. What should be the minimum distance between two adjacent antimicrobial disks on the MuellerHinton agar plate?
(A) 5mm (B) 10mm (C) 20mm (D) 30mm
Ans: C
54. In post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
(A) C3 decreases, ASO increases (B) C3 increases, ASO increases (C) C3 decreases, ASO decreases (D) C3 increases, ASO decreases
Ans: A
55. Which of the following is not a selective media?
(A) Blood agar (B) LJ medium (C) Wilson Blair medium (D) Thiosulphate citrate bile
Ans: A
56. Most common cause of primary nephrotic syndrome in adult:
(A) Membranous glomerulonephritis (B) Minimal change disease
(C) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (D) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Ans: D
57. A grape like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in a 4 yr old girl is characteristic of:
(A) Fibrosarcoma (B) Sarcoma botryoides (C) Leiomyosarcoma (D) Inflammatory polyp
Ans: B
58. Which hormone is increased in Poly Cystic Ovarian Syndrome?
(A) LH (B) FSH (C) Inhibin (D) Estrogen
Ans: A
59. Most common radiosensitive ovarian tumor:
(A) Dysgerminoma (B) Granulosa cell tumor (C) Teratoma (D) Theca cell tumor
Ans: A
60. Wrong pair is:
(A) Seminoma- Placental Alkaline phosphatase (B) Embryonal carcinoma- CD-30
(C) Yolk sac tumor- - fetoprotein (D) Choriocarcinoma- HCG
Ans: B
61. What is probable diagnosis of patient having pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, prolactinoma and parathyroid adenoma?
(A) MEN-1 (B) MEN-2A (C) MEN- 2B (D) Li fraumni syndrome
Ans: A
62. Medium for growth of anaerobic bacteria:
(A) SN medium (B) LJ medium (C) Blood agar (D) Chocolate media
Ans: A
63. Mac Conkey agar is:
(A) Differential media (B) Enrich media (C) Selective media (D) Simple media
Ans: A
64. Golden yellow pigmented colonies on nutrient agar is observed in:
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) β- hemolytic streptococci (C) Pneumococci (D) Corynebacterium
Ans: A
65. Mucoid dome shaped pink coloured colonies on Mac-Conkey agar is observed in:
(A) Proteus (B) S. typhi (C) Klebsiella (D) V. cholera
Ans: C
66. For electron microscopy suitable thickness of section is:
(A) 0 - 20 nm (B) 20 - 100nm (C) 100 - 200nm (D) 200 - 500nm
Ans: B
67. Percentage of Sulphuric acid needed for decolorisation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 25% (D) 1%
Ans: C
68. Tripple sugar ion test shows alkaline slant and acidic butt, no gas and a speck of H2S. The identification is:
(A) E. coli (B) S. typhi (C) Proteus (D) H. pylori
Ans: B
69. Stab culture is used for all, except:
(A) Maintaining stock culture (B) Demonstration of oxygen requirement of bacteria (C) Motility testing (D) Bacteriophage typing
Ans: D
70. Selenite F broth is an enrichment media for:
(A) Salmonella (B) Proteus (C) E. Coli (D) Campylobacter
Ans: A
71. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram- negative organism:
(A) Clostridium welchii (B) Clostridium tetani (C) Bacillus cereus (D) Proteus mirabilias
Ans: D
72. Selective media for Vibrio:
(A) TCBS (B) Stuart (C) Skirrows (D) MYPA
Ans: A
73. In nutrient agar concentration of agar is:
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
Ans: B
74. Match the following:
a) Neuroendocrine tumor i) Weibel-palade bodies
b) Langerhans cell histiocytosis ii) Melanosomes
c) Endothelial cell tumor iii) Birbeck granules
d) Melanocytic tumor iv) Dense-core granules
(A) (a - iv) (b - i) (c - iii) (d - ii)
(B) (a - i) (b - ii) (c - iv) (d - ii)
(C) (a - iv) (b - iii) (c - i) (d - ii)
(D) (a - iii) (b - i) (c - iv) (d - ii)
Ans: C
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine