UPSC STUDYMATERIALS
  • HOME
    • OVERVIEW OF UPSC
    • UPSC PRELIMINARY EXAM SYLLABUS
    • UPSC MAIN EXAM SYLLABUS >
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- AGRICULTURE
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ANTHROPOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- BOTANY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- CHEMISTRY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- GEOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- CIVIL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- GEOGRAPHY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- COMMERCE AND ACCOUNTING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ECONOMICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- HISTORY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- LAW
      • UPSC EXAM- FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQs)
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MANAGEMENT
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MATHEMATICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MEDICAL SCIENCE
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PHILOSOPHY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PHYSICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PSYCHOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- SOCIOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- STATISTICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ZOOLOGY
    • THE COMBINED GEOSCIENTIST AND GEOLOGIST EXAMINATION SYLLABUS
    • COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICES EXAMINATION SYLLABUS
    • JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
    • OPTIONAL SUBJECTS OF UPSC EXAM TOPPERS
    • UPSC- EXAM CENTRES
    • UPSC EXAM TIMETABLE/ PATTERN
    • UPSC EXAM BEGINNERS TIPS
    • COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION- SSC
    • OVERVIEW OF GATE EXAM
    • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE >
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- AGRICULTURE
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- BOTANY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- CHEMISTRY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
      • GEN. STUDIES- INDIA PAGE 5
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- CIVIL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- FORESTRY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- GEOLOGY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- MATHEMATICS
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- PHYSICS
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- STATISTICS
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- ZOOLOGY
  • SITEMAP
  • OPTIONAL
    • ACCOUNTANCY
    • AGRICULTURE
    • ANIMAL HUSBANDARY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
    • ANTHROPOLOGY
    • GEOLOGY
    • LAW
    • MANAGEMENT
    • MATHEMATICS
    • PHILOSOPHY
    • POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
    • PSYCHOLOGY
    • PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
    • SOCIOLOGY
  • GENERAL MEDICINE
  • ENGINEERING
  • EARN MONEY ONLINE
  • COMPUTER
  • OVERVIEW OF UGC NET
    • ADULT EDUCATION
    • ARAB CULTURE AND ISLAMIC STUDIES
    • ARCHAEOLOGY
    • COMPARATIVE LITERATURE
    • COMPARATIVE STUDY OF RELIGIONS
    • CRIMINOLOGY
    • DANCE
    • DEFENCE AND STRATEGIC STUDIES
    • DRAMA
    • FOLK LITERATURE
    • HUMAN RIGHTS AND DUTIES
    • INDIAN CULTURE
    • INTERNATIONAL AND AREA STUDIES
    • LINGUISTICS
    • MUSEOLOGY AND CONSERVATION
    • PERFORMING ARTS- DANCE/DRAMA/THEATRE
    • POPULATION STUDIES
    • TRIBAL AND REGIONAL LANGUAGE
    • VISUAL ARTS
    • WOMEN STUDIES
  • GEN SUBJECTS
    • ARITHMETIC AND MENTAL ABILITY
    • BOTANY
    • BIOLOGY
    • ECONOMICS
    • GENERAL ENGLISH
    • PHYSICS
    • GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
    • INDIAN HISTORY
    • INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
    • ZOOLOGY
  • GEN. STUDIES
  • GENERAL ARTICLES
  • OTHER SUBJECTS
    • AYURVEDA
    • BUSINESS
    • COOPERATION
    • DAIRY SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
    • FISHERIES SCIENCE
    • FORENSIC MEDICINE
    • FORENSIC SCIENCE
    • FORESTRY
    • GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
    • HOMEOPATHY
    • HOME SCIENCE
    • LABOUR WELFARE
    • LIBRARY SCIENCE
    • MASS COMMUNICATION AND JOURNALISM
    • NUTRITION
    • OFFICE SECRETARYSHIP
    • PERCUSSION
    • SERICULTURE
    • SIDDHA
    • TAILORING
    • TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE
    • TOURISM ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT
    • TYPEWRITING
    • UNANI
  • STATES/ UT
  • LANGUAGES
  • SUCCESS STORIES
  • BRILLIANCE TUITION CENTRE
    • COMPLETED MATH WORKSHEETS
  • TEAM MEMBERS
  • MEMBERSHIP
  • SHOP ONLINE
  • GROUP STUDY
  • TERMS OF USE
  • PRIVACY POLICY
  • COMMENTS PAGE
  • ABOUT US
  • CONTACT US

PATHOLOGY- PAGE 4


PATHOLOGY MCQs- PAGE 4

1. Sputum from an asthma patient may show:
(A) Numerous eosinophils (B) Curschmanns spirals (C) Charcot-Leyden crystals (D) All of the above

​Ans: D

2. What type of  RBC are seen in chronic renal failure?
(A) Microcytic (B) Macrocytic (C) Normocytic (D) None of the above

​Ans: C

3. Heinz bodies are observed in all except:
(A)  Exposure to oxidizing drugs (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Unstable hemoglobin disease (D) Megaloblastic anemia

​Ans: D

4. In G6PD deficiency which cells are more prone for hemolysis?
(A) Older red cells (B) Young red cells (C) Reticulocytes (D) All are susceptible

​Ans: A

5. Donath Landsteiner antibody is seen in:
(A) PNH (B) Waldenstrom’smacroglobulinemia (C) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (D) Malaria

​Ans: C

6. Autosplenectomy is seen in:
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Thalassemia major

​Ans: C

7. Hair on end appearance on skull X-ray is seen in:
(A) Sickle cell anemia (B) Thalessemia major (C) Thalessemia minor (D) All of the above

​Ans: B

8. Pappenheimer body is seen in:
(A) Sideroblast (B) Siderocyte (C) Reticulocyte (D) Bite cells

​Ans: B

9. Macrophages are converted to epitheloid cells by which cytokine:
(A) IL-2 (B) IFN-Ò (C) TNF- alpha (D) TGF-beta

Ans: B

10. All of the following are true about type I HLA except?
(A) Present on APC (B) Activate cytotoxic T cell and kill virus infected cell (C) Present on nucleated cell (D) First line defense mechanism

Ans: D

11. AFP and CEA both rise in:
(A) Testicular carcinoma (B) Hepatic carcinoma (C) Renal cell carcinoma (D) Germ cell tumor of ovary

Ans: B

12. MIC-2 is a marker of:
(A) Ewing sarcoma (B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (C) Mantle cell lymphoma (D) All of above

Ans: A

13. All are tumors arising from metaphysis except:
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) Osteochondroma (C) Osteoid osteoma (D) Osteoclastoma

Ans: D

14. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for Myasthenia gravis:
(A) Type I hypersensitivity (B) Type II hypersensitivity (C) Type III hypersensitivity (D) Type IV hypersensitivity

Ans: B

15. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in following except:
(A) Arthus phenomenon (B) Contact dermatitis (C) Tuberculin test (D) Graft vs host reaction

Ans: A

16. Which of these is used as a marker in mesothelioma?
(A) Calretinin (B) TTF-1 (C) CK-5/6 (D) Glypican

​Ans: A

17. Transformed lymphocytes in Infectious Mononucleosis are
(A) B cells (B) Monocytes (C) CD4 cells (D) CD8 cells

​Ans: D

18. Tumor most commonly associated with H pylori:
(A) Maltoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Squamous cell carcinoma (D) None of the above

​Ans: A

19. Not true about GIST:
(A) Stomach is the most common site (B) High propensity of malignant change
(C) Associated with c-KIT mutation (D) Histology shows epitheloid and spindle shaped cells

​Ans: B

20. Giant hypertrophy of gastric mucosa is seen in:
(A) Peptic ulceration (B) Carcinoma stomach (C) Menetrier’s disease (D) Leiomyosarcoma

​Ans: C

21. Aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia is due to following viral infection:
(A) CMV (B) Parvovirus B19 (C) HSV (D) EBV

​Ans: B

22. Whipple’s disease is characterized by:
(A) Foamy macrophages (B) Villous atrophy (C) Papillary projections (D) Lymphoplasmacyticinfiltrtion

​Ans: A

23. In carcinoma of unknown primary, if the tissue marker CDX-2 is positive, it indicates:
(A) Bladder cancer (B) Gastrointestinal cancer (C) Lung cancer (D) Thyroid cancer

​Ans: B

24. True regarding Hirschsprung disease is
(A) Aganglionosis always involves distal rectum (B) Non passage of meconium in first 24 hr after birth
(C) Diagnosis is established by suction rectal biopsy (D) All of the above

​Ans: D

25. The most common source of pulmonary embolism is:
(A) Amniotic fluid embolism (B) Renal artery embolism (C) Large veins of lower limb (D) Cardiothoracic surgery

​Ans: C

26. DIC is common in which AML?
(A) Monocytic(M5) (B) Promyelocytic (M3) (C) Erythrocytic (M6) (D) Megakaryotic (M7)

Ans: B

27. Cells most sensitive to hypoxia are:
(A) Myocardial cells (B) Neurons (C) Hepatocytes (D) Renal tubular epithelial cells

Ans: B

28. False about apoptosis:
(A) Inflammation present (B) Program cell death (C) Normal physiology (D) Genetically determined by a cell

Ans: A

29. True about lionization of X chromosome:
(A) Inactivation of X chromosome only in somatic cell (B) Inactivation of X chromosome only in germ cell
(C) Inactivation of X chromosome in somatic and germ cell both (D) Maximum number of Barr body is equal to X chromosome

Ans: A

30. Stellate granuloma is seen in:
(A) Cat scratch disease (B) Sarcoidosis (C) LGV (D) Histoplasmosis

Ans: A

31. Hallmark of chronic inflammation:
(A) Increased vascular permeability (B) Vasodilation (C) Granulomas (D) Tissue destruction

Ans: D

32. Cytokine involved in epithelial tissue migration and granulation tissue formation in healing:
(A) TGF-bb bb b (B) IL-10 (C) IL-4 (D) INF-Ò

Ans: A

33. Wound contraction occurs by the action of:
(A) Macrophages (B) Myofibroblasts (C) Endothelial cells (D) Fibroblast

Ans: B

34. Heart failure cells are:
(A) Foam cells (B) Lipid laden macrophages (C) Hemosiderin laden macrophages (D) Type I pneumocytes

Ans: C

35
. Causative agent of Farmer’s lung is:
(A) Thermophilusactinomycetes (B) Aspergillus (C) Penicilliumglabrum (D) Rhizopus

​Ans: A​

36. Hypoglycemia occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in:
(A) Bronchogenic carcinoma (B) CA pancreas (C) Fibrosarcoma (D) Renal cell carcinoma

​Ans: C

37. Which of the following statements about neuroblastoma is not true:
(A) Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood (B) >50% present with metastasis at the time of diagnosis
(C) Lung metastasis are common (D) Often encase aorta and its branches at the time of diagnosis

​Ans: C

38. In infant, bone marrow biopsy is done from?
(A) Tibia (B) Sternum (C) Posterior superior iliac spine (D) Iliac crest

Ans: A

39. True about acute lymphoid leukemia:
(A) tdT positive (B) Gamma globulins (C) t(8,14) (D) Insidious onset

Ans: A

40. Stain used for diagnosis of granulocytic sarcoma:
(A) Myeloperoxidase (B) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (C) Nonspecific esterase (D) Neuron specific enolase

Ans: A

41. Spur cells are seen in:
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Liver disease (D) Sideroblastic anemia

​Ans: C

42. Find the false statement regarding megaloblastic anemia:
(A) Hypersegmented neutrophils are the earliest manifestation (B) Reticulocyte count decreased
(C) Hypercellular bone marrow (D) MCHC is increased

​Ans: D

43. Most sensitive marker in iron deficiency anemia:
(A) TIBC (B) Serum ferritin (C) Serum iron (D) Serum transferring saturation

​Ans: B

44. Punctate basophilia on peripheral smear examination is observed in all except:
(A) Lead poisoning (B) Thalassemia (C) Spherocytosis (D) Sideroblastic anemia

​Ans: C

45. What abnormalities will be present in a patient having deficiency of Von Willebrand factor?
(A) Increased apTT, Increased PT (B) Decreased PT, Increased apt
(C) Normal PT, Normal apTT (D) Normal PT, Increased aPTT

​Ans: D

46. Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause:
(A) Only necrosis (B) Only apoptosis (C) Both necrosis and apoptosis (D) None of the above

Ans: C

47. Metastatic calcification is seen in all except:
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Breast carcinoma (C) Atherosclerosis (D) Renal failure

Ans: C

48. The enzyme that protects brain from free radical injury:
(A) Superoxide dismutase (B) Catalase (C) Glutathione peroxidase (D) Monoamine oxidase

Ans: A

49. Severe infection will increase if absolute neutrophil count will become?
(A) <500 (B) Less than 800 (C) Less than 1000 (D) Less than 2000

Ans: A

50. Permanent tissue is:
​(A) Heart (B) Liver (C) Kidney (D) Skeletal muscle

Ans: D
51. Transcytosis is:
(A) Transport of fluids and proteins through endothelial cells (B) Migration of neutrophils through endothelial cell
(C) Migration of platelets through endothelial cells (D) Locomotion oriented along chemical gradient

Ans: A

52. A 16 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be the histopathological finding in the ovary?
(A) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries) (B) Mucinous cystadenoma (C) Psamomma bodies (D) Hemmorhagic corpus leuteum

Ans: A

53. Which of the following is X- linked recessive?
(A) Duschene muscular dystrophy (B) Hypophosphatemic rickets (C) Marfans syndrome (D) Downs syndrome

Ans: A

54. The best suited nucleated cell for chromosomal study
(A) Polymorphs (B) Lymphocytes (C) Epithelial cells (D) Langerhan’s cell

Ans: B

55. Real time polymerase chain reaction is done for:
(A) DNA detection only (B) RNA detection only (C) Both RNA and DNA detection (D) Monitoring amplification of target nucleic acid

Ans: D

56. True about ELISA are all, except:
(A) It is most sensitive screening test (B) It can be used for only antibody detection
(C)  96 samples can be tested at a time (D) Takes 2-3 hrs for performing assay

Ans: B

57. Phagocytosis is not done by:
(A) NK cells (B) Histiocytes
(C) Neutrophils (D) Macrophages

Ans: A

58. Which among the following is not an adhesion molecule?
(A) Integrin (B) Selectin (C) Interferon (D) Transferrin

Ans: D

59. Histamine causes all except:
(A) Arteriolar dilatation (B) Increased permeability of venules (C) Constriction of large arteries (D) Platelet aggregation

Ans: D

60. Spectral karyotyping is also known as:
(A) FISH (B) Multicolor FISH (C) Microarray (D) PCR

Ans: B

61. Techniques used for detectinggene mutation is:
(A) Real-time PCR (B) Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis (C) DNA sequencing (D) All of the above

Ans: D

62. DNA repair defect is associated with:
(A) Xerodermapigmentosum (B) Icthyosis (C) Angelman syndrome (D) DiGeorge’s syndrome

Ans: A

63. Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Thymus

Ans: B

64. K-RAS proto-oncogene is associated with:
(A) Colon cancer (B) Breast cancer (C) Bladder cancer (D) Melanoma

Ans: A

65. All of the following are angiogenic factors except:
(A) VEGF (B) Platelet activating factor (C) IFN
α (D) TGF-β
Ans: C

66. Human papilloma virus is associated with all except:
(A) Oropharyngeal tumors (B) Carcinoma nasopharynx (C) Carcinoma anal canal (D) Carcinoma cervix

Ans: B

67. Inherited cancer syndromes include all except:
(A) Retinoblastoma (B) Neurofibroma (C) Xerodermapigmentosa (D) Familial polyposis coli

​Ans: C

68. Malignancy associated with erythropoietin secretion is:
(A) Breast cancer (B) Prostate cancer (C) Small cell lung cancer (D) Hepatocellular carcinoma

​Ans: D

69. HMB-45 is positive in:
(A) Small cell carcinoma of lung (B) Adenocarcinoma of lung (C) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung (D) Angiomyolipoma of lung

​Ans: D

70. Clover leaf cells are seen in:
(A) Burkitt’s lymphoma (B) Adult T cell leukemia-lymphoma (C) Hairy cell leukemia (D) Mantle cell lymphoma

Ans: B

71. Lethal midline granuloma is:
(A) T cell lymphoma (B) B -cell lymphoma (C) ExtranodalNK/ T cell lymphoma (D) Mycosis fungoids

Ans: C

72. In POEM syndrome E stands for:
(A) Endocrinopathy (B) Edema (C) Eosinophilia (D) Erythema

Ans: A

73. For monitoring warfarin therapy we use
(A) PT (B) CT (C) aPTT (D) PT-INR

Ans: A

74. Elevated D-dimer levels are specific for:
(A) Deep vein thrombosis (B) Pulmonary thromboembolism (C) Systemic embolism (D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Ans: D

75. Onion peeling of renal vessels is seen in:
(A) Benign hypertension (B) Malignant hypertension (C) Diabetic nephropathy (D) SLE

​Ans: B

76. Pulseless disease is:
(A) Giant cell arteritis (B) Takayasu arteritis (C) Kawasaki disease (D) Polyarteritisnodosa(PAN)

​Ans: B

77. Spontaneous regression can occur with:
(A) Cavernous hemagioma (B) Strawberry angioma (C) Nevus flemes (D) None of above

​Ans: B

78. Irreversible change in ischemia of heart occurs in?
(A) 10 min (B) 30 min (C) 60 min (D) 90 min

​Ans: B

79. The following are true regarding hyaline membrane disease except:
(A) Basic abnormality is deficiency of surfactant (B) Prenatal diagnosis by low amniotic fluid L/S ratio
(C) Intratracheal surfactant helps (D) Occurs in babies born post-dates

​Ans: D

80. True about miliary tuberculosis:
(A) Occur primarily due to hematogenous spread (B) Miliary lesion is generally of size 1-2mm
(C) Onset is generally acute (D) Sputum smear microscopy is negative in 80% of cases

​Ans: C

81. Subepidermal bullae are seen in all except:
(A) Bullous pemphigoid (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis (C) Linear IgA bullous dermatosis (D) Pemphigus vulgaris

​Ans: D

82. Premalignant lesion is:
(A) Actinic keratosis (B) Seborrheic keratosis (C) Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (D) All of the above

​Ans: A

83. CD 34 positivity is seen in:
(A) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (B) Neurofibroma (C) Dermatofibroma (D) Myofibroma

​Ans: A

84. Cafe au lait lesions are seen in:
(A) Neurilemmoma (B) Neurofibromatosis (C) Neuroma (D) Neurothekeoma

​Ans: B

85. Special stain for mast cell is:
(A) Giemsa (B) Toluidine blue (C) Chloracetate esterase (D) All of the above

​Ans: D

86. Fascicular pattern is seen in following tumors except:
(A) Leiomyosarcoma (B) Synovial sarcoma (C) Fibromatosis (D) Neurofibroma

​Ans: D

87. Soft tissue tumors showing myxoid change are all except:
(A) Neurofibroma (B) Liposarcoma (C) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (D) Synovial sarcoma

​Ans: D

88. Zellballen pattern is seen in:
(A) Paraganglioma (B) Pheochromocytoma (C) Carotid body tumor (D) All of the above

​Ans: D

89. Palisading pattern is seen in all except:
(A) Schwannoma (B) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (C) Leiomyosarcoma (D) Fibrosarcoma

​Ans: D

90. Primary biliary cirrhosis is positive for:
(A) ANCA (B) Anti-mitochondrial antibody (C) Anti-nuclear antibody (D) Anti-microsomal antibody
​Ans: B

91. True statements about aa aa a1-anti-trypsin deficiency are all, except:
(A) Autosomal dominant disease (B) Emphysema (C) Fibrosis of portal tract (D) Diastase resistant PAS positive hepatocytes
​Ans: A

92. True about prehepatic jaundice is all except:
(A) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (B) Increased urobilinogen
(C) Raised alkaline phosphatase (D) Absent bile salts/ bile pigments in urine

​Ans: C

93. AST/ ALT ratio >2.0 is highly suggestive of:
(A) Alcoholic hepatitis (B) Acute viral hepatitis (C) Cirrhosis (D) None of the above

​Ans: A

94. Ziehl-Neelsen stain sputum smear is positive if number of tuberculous bacilli in sputum is:
(A) 500-1000/ml (B) 1000-3000/ml (C) 3000-5000/ml (D) 5000-10,000/ml

​Ans: D

95. Colon carcinogenesis by adenoma-carcinoma sequence is associated with all except:
​(A) APC (B) k-RAS (C)
β-catenin (D) Mismatch repair
​Ans: D

96. Minimum number of polyps necessary for a diagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis is:
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 50 (D) 100

​Ans: D

97. Budd-chiari syndrome is characterized by all except:
(A) Hepatic veno-occlusive disease (B) Hepatomegaly (C) Portal vein obstruction (D) IVC obstruction

​Ans: C

98. Acute hepatitis ‘B’ can be diagnosed by:
(A) IgM anti-HBcAb (B) HBeAg (C) IgG anti-HBcAb (D) Core antigen

​Ans: A

99. Chronic Active Hepatitis is most reliably distinguished from chronic persistent hepatitis by the presence of:
(A) Extrahepatic manifestation (B) Significant titre of anti-smooth muscle antibody
(C) Characteristic liver histology (D) Hepatitis B surface antigen

​Ans: C

100. Cellophane tape technique is used for collection of ova of:
​(A) Trichuristrichiura (B) Enterobiusvermicularis (C) Taenia (D) Hook worm
​Ans: B
​
  • General Medicine
  • Medicine- Page 1
  • Medicine- Page 2
  • Medicine- Page 3
  • Medicine- Page 4
  • Medicine- Page 5
  • Medicine- Page 6
  • Medicine- Page 7
  • Medicine- Page 8
  • Medicine- Page 9
  • Medicine- Page 10
  • Medicine- Page 11
  • Anaesthesiology
  • Clinical Psychology
  • Community Medicine
  • Community Medicine- Page 1
  • ​CSR Technician- Medicine
  • Dental
  • Dental- Page 1
  • Dental- Page 2
  • Dental- Page 3
  • Dermatology and Venerology
  • Dialysis
  • ECG Technician
  • ENT
  • General Surgery
  • Genito Urinary Surgery
  • ​Nursing
  • Nursing -Page 1
  • Nursing -Page 2
  • Nursing -Page 3
  • Nursing -Page 4
  • Nursing -Page 5
  • Obstetrics and Gynaecology
  • Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
  • Opthalmology
  • Orthopaedics
  • Orthopaedics- Page 1
  • Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
  • Paediatrics
  • Paediatrics- Page 1
  • Pathology
  • Pathology-Page 1
  • Radiodiagnosis
  • Radiotheraphy
  • Radiotheraphy- Page 1
  • Radiotheraphy- Page 2
  • Radiotheraphy- Page 3
  • Radiotheraphy- Page 4
  • Rehabilitation Technician
  • Social Medicine and Community Health
  • Speech Pathology
  • Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
  • Surgical Gasteroenterology
  • Toxicology
  • Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
  • Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine​

UPSC Study Materials
​MCQs for Competitive Examinations

About Us
Terms of Use
​Privacy Policy
​
Follow Us
Facebook
Twitter
​Google Plus
Youtube​
Share this Page
Facebook
Twitter
​Google+
​Pinterest
​Linkedin
© upscstudymaterials.com   
​ALL RIGHTS RESERVED.


  • HOME
    • OVERVIEW OF UPSC
    • UPSC PRELIMINARY EXAM SYLLABUS
    • UPSC MAIN EXAM SYLLABUS >
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- AGRICULTURE
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ANTHROPOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- BOTANY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- CHEMISTRY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- GEOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- CIVIL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- GEOGRAPHY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- COMMERCE AND ACCOUNTING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ECONOMICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- HISTORY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- LAW
      • UPSC EXAM- FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQs)
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MANAGEMENT
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MATHEMATICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- MEDICAL SCIENCE
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PHILOSOPHY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PHYSICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PSYCHOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- SOCIOLOGY
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- STATISTICS
      • UPSC EXAM SYLLABUS- ZOOLOGY
    • THE COMBINED GEOSCIENTIST AND GEOLOGIST EXAMINATION SYLLABUS
    • COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICES EXAMINATION SYLLABUS
    • JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
    • OPTIONAL SUBJECTS OF UPSC EXAM TOPPERS
    • UPSC- EXAM CENTRES
    • UPSC EXAM TIMETABLE/ PATTERN
    • UPSC EXAM BEGINNERS TIPS
    • COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION- SSC
    • OVERVIEW OF GATE EXAM
    • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE >
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- AGRICULTURE
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- BOTANY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- CHEMISTRY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
      • GEN. STUDIES- INDIA PAGE 5
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- CIVIL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- FORESTRY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- GEOLOGY
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- MATHEMATICS
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- PHYSICS
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- STATISTICS
      • UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE- SYLLABUS- ZOOLOGY
  • SITEMAP
  • OPTIONAL
    • ACCOUNTANCY
    • AGRICULTURE
    • ANIMAL HUSBANDARY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
    • ANTHROPOLOGY
    • GEOLOGY
    • LAW
    • MANAGEMENT
    • MATHEMATICS
    • PHILOSOPHY
    • POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
    • PSYCHOLOGY
    • PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
    • SOCIOLOGY
  • GENERAL MEDICINE
  • ENGINEERING
  • EARN MONEY ONLINE
  • COMPUTER
  • OVERVIEW OF UGC NET
    • ADULT EDUCATION
    • ARAB CULTURE AND ISLAMIC STUDIES
    • ARCHAEOLOGY
    • COMPARATIVE LITERATURE
    • COMPARATIVE STUDY OF RELIGIONS
    • CRIMINOLOGY
    • DANCE
    • DEFENCE AND STRATEGIC STUDIES
    • DRAMA
    • FOLK LITERATURE
    • HUMAN RIGHTS AND DUTIES
    • INDIAN CULTURE
    • INTERNATIONAL AND AREA STUDIES
    • LINGUISTICS
    • MUSEOLOGY AND CONSERVATION
    • PERFORMING ARTS- DANCE/DRAMA/THEATRE
    • POPULATION STUDIES
    • TRIBAL AND REGIONAL LANGUAGE
    • VISUAL ARTS
    • WOMEN STUDIES
  • GEN SUBJECTS
    • ARITHMETIC AND MENTAL ABILITY
    • BOTANY
    • BIOLOGY
    • ECONOMICS
    • GENERAL ENGLISH
    • PHYSICS
    • GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
    • INDIAN HISTORY
    • INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
    • ZOOLOGY
  • GEN. STUDIES
  • GENERAL ARTICLES
  • OTHER SUBJECTS
    • AYURVEDA
    • BUSINESS
    • COOPERATION
    • DAIRY SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
    • FISHERIES SCIENCE
    • FORENSIC MEDICINE
    • FORENSIC SCIENCE
    • FORESTRY
    • GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
    • HOMEOPATHY
    • HOME SCIENCE
    • LABOUR WELFARE
    • LIBRARY SCIENCE
    • MASS COMMUNICATION AND JOURNALISM
    • NUTRITION
    • OFFICE SECRETARYSHIP
    • PERCUSSION
    • SERICULTURE
    • SIDDHA
    • TAILORING
    • TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE
    • TOURISM ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT
    • TYPEWRITING
    • UNANI
  • STATES/ UT
  • LANGUAGES
  • SUCCESS STORIES
  • BRILLIANCE TUITION CENTRE
    • COMPLETED MATH WORKSHEETS
  • TEAM MEMBERS
  • MEMBERSHIP
  • SHOP ONLINE
  • GROUP STUDY
  • TERMS OF USE
  • PRIVACY POLICY
  • COMMENTS PAGE
  • ABOUT US
  • CONTACT US