PAEDIATRICS-PAGE 3
PAEDIATRICS MCQ
1. Which of following reflex not present at birth
(A) Asymmetric Tonic neck reflex (B) Moro’s reflex (C) Symmetric tonic neck Reflex (D) Crossed extensor reflex.
Ans: C
2. Greatest risk factor for Necrotizing enterocolitis
(A) IUGR (B) Prematurity (C) Smoking (D) Polycythemia
Ans: B
3. Most common cause of seizure on 1st day of life in newborn. (A) Hypoxia (B) Head injury (C) Hypoglycemia (D) Hypocalcemia.
Ans: A
4. Vitamin deficiency responsible for neonatal seizure. (A) Pyridoxin (B) Vitamin C (C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
Ans: A
5. All are the features of absence seizures except. (A) 3-Hz spike wave in EEG (B) Post ictal confusion (C) Precipitation by hyperventilation. (D) All of the above.
Ans: B
6. Drug of choice in absence seizure. (A) Carbamazepine (B) Phenytoin (C) ACTH (D) Ethosuximide
Ans: D
7. Heat exhaustion is derived as temperature range between (A) 38 – 40° C (B) 40 – 42° C (C) 36 – 38° C (D) None of the above
Ans: A
8. Late sign & symptoms of raised ICP include all except. (A) Increased BP (B) Irregular respiration (C) Headache (D) Tonic posturing
Ans: C
9. Red flag sign for acute asthama (A) Respiratory rate >40 in < 5year age (B) Expiratory + inspiratory wheeze (C) Can not speak in full sentence (D) Silent chest
Ans: D
10. Drug not used in traeatment of status epilepticus. (A) Phenytoin (B) Phenobarbitone (C) Carbamazepine (D) Valproate
Ans: C
11. In snake – bite what should not be done (A) Calm the patient (B) Tie tourniquet (C) Take victim to hospital (D) Give ASV
Ans: B
12. Iron poisoning in 4 year child Rx includes (A) Gastric Lavage (B) Blood transfusion (C) IV desferrioxamine (D) Plasmapheresis
Ans: C
13. Which of the following is not commonly seen in acute lead poisoning in children (A) Encephalopathy (B) Cerelellar ataxia (C) Status epilepticus (D) Peripheral neuropathy
Ans: D
14. Contra indication at emergency liver transplantation includes all except (A) Severe ARDS (B) Septic shock (C) AIDS (D) Coagulopathy
Ans: D
15. The term systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is define based on all except. (A) Temperature (B) Pulse rate (C) Blood pressure (D) Leucocyte count
Ans: C
16. Good prognostic factor for neuroblastoma (A) >3 years. (B) N – myc (C) 21 year (D) Chromosome 1, 16
Ans: C
17. Therapeutic hypothermia used in (A) Meconium aspiration (B) Birth asphyxia (C) Neonatal sepsis (D) Prematurity
Ans: B
18. What is not true about MR campaign? (A) Given in 9 month 15 years (B) Contain measles & rubella (C) Can cause autism (D) None of the above
Ans: C
19. Ranibizumab is given in (A) Asthama (B) ROP (C) MAS (D) Kawasaki disease
Ans: B
20. According to 2017 ILAE classification of seizures which is not A type of seizure. (A) Focal seizure (B) Automatism (C) Behavior arrest (D) Breath – holding spell
Ans: D
21. A 10 year female child with history of dyspnea on exention on Examination she has wide fixed split S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III) (VI) in left 2nd ICS her ECG shows left axis deviation most probable diagnosis (A) TAPVC (B) Tricuspid atresia (C) Osteumprimum ASD (D) VSD with pulmonary artery hypertention
Ans: C
22. A 9 month old infant presents with 2 day history of fever, cough & breathlessness following upper respiratory tractinfection O/E Tempreture was increased & RR = 80/min intercostal & subcostal Retraction & Rhonchi on oscultation. CXR reveals hyper inflated chest Diagnosis (A) Bronchial asthma (B) Foreign body aspiration (C) Bronchiolitis (D) Bacterial pneumonia
Ans: C
23. 8 year old boy had obdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 100 cms& weight is 15 Kg. Stool culture was negative for known enteropathogenssigmoidoscopy was normal. During same period, child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. MT was 5 x 5 mm. Most probable diagnosis. (A) Intestinal tuberculosis (B) Ulcerative colitis (C) Crohn’s disease (D) Strongyloidosis
Ans: C
24. 10 year old boy had serve vomiting &diarrhoea. He was brought to the Hospital because of severe oliguria. He was given iv fluids and frusemide without any diuresis on biochemical investigation urea 120mg % creatinine was 4 mg% most likely diagnosis is. (A) Acute glomerulonephritis (B) Pre. Renal azotemia (C) Acute tubular necrosis (D) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Ans: D
25. A 6 year old boy complaining of headache and ignoring to see the Objects on the sides for 4 months. On examination ICS was normal, visual charting shows significant visual defect. CT scans/o suprasellarmass with calcification most probable diagnosis is (A) Astrocytoma (B) Craniopharingioma (C) Pituitary Adenoma (D) Meningioma
Ans: B
26. A 27 days old neonate presents with features of congestive Cardiacand left veutriaular hypertrophy. Auscultation shoes a short systolic most likely diagnosis. (A) Tetralogy of fallot (B) Transposition of greater arteries (C) TAPVC (D) VSD
Ans: D
27. A child is brought to pediatric OPD with fever of 24 hours duration. History reveals 3 episodes of chest infection& passage of foul smelling stools most probable diagnosis (A) Maple syrup urine disease (B) Bilirubin conjugation defect (C) Alpha 1 – anti – trypsin deficiency (D) Cystic fibrosis
Ans: D
28. Kishan 8 year old boy presented with upper GI bleeding, on examination, found to have spleenormegaly, but no signs of hepatomegaly or ascites. On UGI endoscopy esophageal varies are found most likely diagnosis. (A) Cirrhosis of liver (B) Budd chiari syndrome (C) Non cirrhotic portal hypertention (D) Veno occlusive disease
Ans: C
29. 2 month old girl has failure to thrive,polyuria and medullarynephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Ix Blood PH – 7.48 Bicarbonate 25 meq/lit. Pottassium 2 meq/lt. sodium 126 meq/lt and chloride 88 meq/lt most likely diagnosis is (A) Distal renal tubular acidosis (B) Primary hyperaldosteronism (C) Proximal renal tubular acidosis (D) Barter syndrome
Ans: D
30. A new born presents with congestive heart failure on examination Has bulging anterior fontanellae with a bruilt on ausautation. Transfontanella USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated Lateral ventricles most likely diagnosis. (A) Medulloblastoma (B) Arachnoid cyst (C) Vein of galen malformation (D) Encephalocele
Ans: C
31. Kasabach-meritt syndrome includes all except (A) Rapidly enlarging kaposiformhemangioendothelioma (B) Thrombocytosis (C) Micro-angiopathic hemolytic anemia (D) Consumption coagulopathy
Ans: B
32. visual acuity at birth (A) 6/60 (B) 9/120 (C) 20/150 (D) 3/90
Ans: C
33. The cornea attains adult size by the age 7 (A) 2 year (B) 4 year (C) 6 year (D) 8 year
Ans: A
34. True about mobius syndrome includes all except (A) Hearing loss (B) congenital facial paresis (C) ectropion (D) hemiparesis
Ans: A
35. Megalocorea is define as a diameter of Cornea more than (A) 12 mm (B) 16 mm (C) 18 mm (D) 10 mm
Ans: A
36. Ectopialentis is seen in all except (A) marfan syndrome (B) homocystinuria (C) g6pd deficiency (D) sulfide oxidase deficiency
Ans: C
37. Subtotal retinal detachment is seen in which stage of retinopathy of prematurity (A) stage- I (B) stage- II (C) stage- III (D) stage – IV
Ans: D
38. Clinical manifestation of retinoblastoma includes all except (A) myopia (B) leukocoria (C) strabismus (D) pseudohypopion
Ans: A
39. Vertical gaze palsy is seen in (A) Brown syndrome (B) mobieus syndrome (C) dayane syndrome (D) parinaud syndrome
Ans: D
40. Not a treatment modality for rop (ratinopathy of prematurity) (A) Methyl prednisolone (B) laser ablation (C) VEGF antagonist (D) cryotherapy
Ans: A
41. Rubella causes all except: (A) Microcephaly (B) VSD (C) Conduction defect (D) All
Ans: C
42. Most common complication of Chickenpoxis : (A) Encephalitis (B) Secondary bacterial infection (C) Pneumonia (D) Otitis media
Ans: B
43. Incubation period of pertussis is: (A) <7 days (B) 7-14 days (C) 14-28 days (D) >28 days
Ans: B
44. Bull neck in Diptheria is due to (A) Retropharyngeal abscess (B) Laryngealedema (C) Cellulitis (D) Lymphadenopathy
Ans: D
45. Roseolainfantum can be caused by (A) HHV-8 (B) Parvovirus B-19 (C) Echovirus-19 (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. Most common manifestation of congenitalToxoplasmosis: (A) Hydrocephalus (B) choreoretinitis (C) Hepatosplenomegaly (D) Throbocytopenia
Ans: B
47. Not a usual feature of Ascariasis: (A) Abdominal pain (B) Urticaria (C) Anemia (D) Loffler’s syndrome
Ans: C
48. Most common manifestation of HPV in children is: (A) Single papilloma (B) Multiple papillomatosis (C) Osteoma (D) Sarcoma
Ans: B
49. Transmission of AIDS transplacentlly is……? (A) 10-20% (B) 30-40% (C) 50-60% (D) 70-80%
Ans: B
50. Fever stop & rash begins is diagnostic of : (A) Fifthdisease (B) Roseolainfantum (C) measles (D) Toxic shock syndrome
Ans: B
(A) Asymmetric Tonic neck reflex (B) Moro’s reflex (C) Symmetric tonic neck Reflex (D) Crossed extensor reflex.
Ans: C
2. Greatest risk factor for Necrotizing enterocolitis
(A) IUGR (B) Prematurity (C) Smoking (D) Polycythemia
Ans: B
3. Most common cause of seizure on 1st day of life in newborn. (A) Hypoxia (B) Head injury (C) Hypoglycemia (D) Hypocalcemia.
Ans: A
4. Vitamin deficiency responsible for neonatal seizure. (A) Pyridoxin (B) Vitamin C (C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
Ans: A
5. All are the features of absence seizures except. (A) 3-Hz spike wave in EEG (B) Post ictal confusion (C) Precipitation by hyperventilation. (D) All of the above.
Ans: B
6. Drug of choice in absence seizure. (A) Carbamazepine (B) Phenytoin (C) ACTH (D) Ethosuximide
Ans: D
7. Heat exhaustion is derived as temperature range between (A) 38 – 40° C (B) 40 – 42° C (C) 36 – 38° C (D) None of the above
Ans: A
8. Late sign & symptoms of raised ICP include all except. (A) Increased BP (B) Irregular respiration (C) Headache (D) Tonic posturing
Ans: C
9. Red flag sign for acute asthama (A) Respiratory rate >40 in < 5year age (B) Expiratory + inspiratory wheeze (C) Can not speak in full sentence (D) Silent chest
Ans: D
10. Drug not used in traeatment of status epilepticus. (A) Phenytoin (B) Phenobarbitone (C) Carbamazepine (D) Valproate
Ans: C
11. In snake – bite what should not be done (A) Calm the patient (B) Tie tourniquet (C) Take victim to hospital (D) Give ASV
Ans: B
12. Iron poisoning in 4 year child Rx includes (A) Gastric Lavage (B) Blood transfusion (C) IV desferrioxamine (D) Plasmapheresis
Ans: C
13. Which of the following is not commonly seen in acute lead poisoning in children (A) Encephalopathy (B) Cerelellar ataxia (C) Status epilepticus (D) Peripheral neuropathy
Ans: D
14. Contra indication at emergency liver transplantation includes all except (A) Severe ARDS (B) Septic shock (C) AIDS (D) Coagulopathy
Ans: D
15. The term systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is define based on all except. (A) Temperature (B) Pulse rate (C) Blood pressure (D) Leucocyte count
Ans: C
16. Good prognostic factor for neuroblastoma (A) >3 years. (B) N – myc (C) 21 year (D) Chromosome 1, 16
Ans: C
17. Therapeutic hypothermia used in (A) Meconium aspiration (B) Birth asphyxia (C) Neonatal sepsis (D) Prematurity
Ans: B
18. What is not true about MR campaign? (A) Given in 9 month 15 years (B) Contain measles & rubella (C) Can cause autism (D) None of the above
Ans: C
19. Ranibizumab is given in (A) Asthama (B) ROP (C) MAS (D) Kawasaki disease
Ans: B
20. According to 2017 ILAE classification of seizures which is not A type of seizure. (A) Focal seizure (B) Automatism (C) Behavior arrest (D) Breath – holding spell
Ans: D
21. A 10 year female child with history of dyspnea on exention on Examination she has wide fixed split S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III) (VI) in left 2nd ICS her ECG shows left axis deviation most probable diagnosis (A) TAPVC (B) Tricuspid atresia (C) Osteumprimum ASD (D) VSD with pulmonary artery hypertention
Ans: C
22. A 9 month old infant presents with 2 day history of fever, cough & breathlessness following upper respiratory tractinfection O/E Tempreture was increased & RR = 80/min intercostal & subcostal Retraction & Rhonchi on oscultation. CXR reveals hyper inflated chest Diagnosis (A) Bronchial asthma (B) Foreign body aspiration (C) Bronchiolitis (D) Bacterial pneumonia
Ans: C
23. 8 year old boy had obdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 100 cms& weight is 15 Kg. Stool culture was negative for known enteropathogenssigmoidoscopy was normal. During same period, child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. MT was 5 x 5 mm. Most probable diagnosis. (A) Intestinal tuberculosis (B) Ulcerative colitis (C) Crohn’s disease (D) Strongyloidosis
Ans: C
24. 10 year old boy had serve vomiting &diarrhoea. He was brought to the Hospital because of severe oliguria. He was given iv fluids and frusemide without any diuresis on biochemical investigation urea 120mg % creatinine was 4 mg% most likely diagnosis is. (A) Acute glomerulonephritis (B) Pre. Renal azotemia (C) Acute tubular necrosis (D) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Ans: D
25. A 6 year old boy complaining of headache and ignoring to see the Objects on the sides for 4 months. On examination ICS was normal, visual charting shows significant visual defect. CT scans/o suprasellarmass with calcification most probable diagnosis is (A) Astrocytoma (B) Craniopharingioma (C) Pituitary Adenoma (D) Meningioma
Ans: B
26. A 27 days old neonate presents with features of congestive Cardiacand left veutriaular hypertrophy. Auscultation shoes a short systolic most likely diagnosis. (A) Tetralogy of fallot (B) Transposition of greater arteries (C) TAPVC (D) VSD
Ans: D
27. A child is brought to pediatric OPD with fever of 24 hours duration. History reveals 3 episodes of chest infection& passage of foul smelling stools most probable diagnosis (A) Maple syrup urine disease (B) Bilirubin conjugation defect (C) Alpha 1 – anti – trypsin deficiency (D) Cystic fibrosis
Ans: D
28. Kishan 8 year old boy presented with upper GI bleeding, on examination, found to have spleenormegaly, but no signs of hepatomegaly or ascites. On UGI endoscopy esophageal varies are found most likely diagnosis. (A) Cirrhosis of liver (B) Budd chiari syndrome (C) Non cirrhotic portal hypertention (D) Veno occlusive disease
Ans: C
29. 2 month old girl has failure to thrive,polyuria and medullarynephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Ix Blood PH – 7.48 Bicarbonate 25 meq/lit. Pottassium 2 meq/lt. sodium 126 meq/lt and chloride 88 meq/lt most likely diagnosis is (A) Distal renal tubular acidosis (B) Primary hyperaldosteronism (C) Proximal renal tubular acidosis (D) Barter syndrome
Ans: D
30. A new born presents with congestive heart failure on examination Has bulging anterior fontanellae with a bruilt on ausautation. Transfontanella USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated Lateral ventricles most likely diagnosis. (A) Medulloblastoma (B) Arachnoid cyst (C) Vein of galen malformation (D) Encephalocele
Ans: C
31. Kasabach-meritt syndrome includes all except (A) Rapidly enlarging kaposiformhemangioendothelioma (B) Thrombocytosis (C) Micro-angiopathic hemolytic anemia (D) Consumption coagulopathy
Ans: B
32. visual acuity at birth (A) 6/60 (B) 9/120 (C) 20/150 (D) 3/90
Ans: C
33. The cornea attains adult size by the age 7 (A) 2 year (B) 4 year (C) 6 year (D) 8 year
Ans: A
34. True about mobius syndrome includes all except (A) Hearing loss (B) congenital facial paresis (C) ectropion (D) hemiparesis
Ans: A
35. Megalocorea is define as a diameter of Cornea more than (A) 12 mm (B) 16 mm (C) 18 mm (D) 10 mm
Ans: A
36. Ectopialentis is seen in all except (A) marfan syndrome (B) homocystinuria (C) g6pd deficiency (D) sulfide oxidase deficiency
Ans: C
37. Subtotal retinal detachment is seen in which stage of retinopathy of prematurity (A) stage- I (B) stage- II (C) stage- III (D) stage – IV
Ans: D
38. Clinical manifestation of retinoblastoma includes all except (A) myopia (B) leukocoria (C) strabismus (D) pseudohypopion
Ans: A
39. Vertical gaze palsy is seen in (A) Brown syndrome (B) mobieus syndrome (C) dayane syndrome (D) parinaud syndrome
Ans: D
40. Not a treatment modality for rop (ratinopathy of prematurity) (A) Methyl prednisolone (B) laser ablation (C) VEGF antagonist (D) cryotherapy
Ans: A
41. Rubella causes all except: (A) Microcephaly (B) VSD (C) Conduction defect (D) All
Ans: C
42. Most common complication of Chickenpoxis : (A) Encephalitis (B) Secondary bacterial infection (C) Pneumonia (D) Otitis media
Ans: B
43. Incubation period of pertussis is: (A) <7 days (B) 7-14 days (C) 14-28 days (D) >28 days
Ans: B
44. Bull neck in Diptheria is due to (A) Retropharyngeal abscess (B) Laryngealedema (C) Cellulitis (D) Lymphadenopathy
Ans: D
45. Roseolainfantum can be caused by (A) HHV-8 (B) Parvovirus B-19 (C) Echovirus-19 (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. Most common manifestation of congenitalToxoplasmosis: (A) Hydrocephalus (B) choreoretinitis (C) Hepatosplenomegaly (D) Throbocytopenia
Ans: B
47. Not a usual feature of Ascariasis: (A) Abdominal pain (B) Urticaria (C) Anemia (D) Loffler’s syndrome
Ans: C
48. Most common manifestation of HPV in children is: (A) Single papilloma (B) Multiple papillomatosis (C) Osteoma (D) Sarcoma
Ans: B
49. Transmission of AIDS transplacentlly is……? (A) 10-20% (B) 30-40% (C) 50-60% (D) 70-80%
Ans: B
50. Fever stop & rash begins is diagnostic of : (A) Fifthdisease (B) Roseolainfantum (C) measles (D) Toxic shock syndrome
Ans: B
51. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by (A) Hyperactivity (B) Impulse activity (C) Poor attention (D) All of the above
Ans: D
52. True about autism (A) Occurs in high economic striata (B) Normal communication (C) Starts before 2 – 3 years of age (D) More common in girls
Ans: C
53. A five year old child presents to emergency department with Burns – burn area corresponding to palm is equal to (A) 1% BSA (B) 5% BSA (C) 10% BSA (D) 20% BSA
Ans: A
54. Which of the following is not a nutrition type of indicator of Child health (A) Underweight prevalence (B) Stunting prevalence (C) Infant mortality rate (D) Exclusive breast feedin
Ans: C
55. Perinatal mortality rate includes (A) No. of still birth + No. of neonatal death upto 28 days of life (B) No. of still birth + No. of neonatal death upto 14 days (C) No. of neonatal death + No. of infant mortality rate (D) No. of still birth + No. of neonatal death upto 7 days of life
Ans: D
56. Which of the following is not indoor pollutant? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Ammonia (C) Spores (D) Pollens
Ans: D
57. Which of the following noise level cut off accepted in NICU at night (A) 35 DB (B) 45 DB (C) 55 DB (D) 65 DB
Ans: A
58. RMNCHAprogramme true all except (A) R = Reproductive health (B) M = Maternal health (C) C = Child health (D) A = Antenatal health
Ans: D
59. Which of the following disease not covered in IMNCI (A) Anemia (B) Mal nutrition (C) Asthma (D) Diarrhea
Ans: C
60. National immunization schedule includes all except (A) pentavalent (B) pneumococal (C) measles (D) IPV
Ans: B
61. In patient with H1N1 influenza infection true are all except (A) Category – A no oseltamivir (B) Category – B throat swab testing &osteltamivir (C) Category – C convulsion comes under cat – C (D) None of the above
Ans: B
62. Triple Bubble appearance in Abdominal X-ray suggestive of… (A) Duodenal Atresia (B) Jejunal atresia. (C) Pyloric stenosis (D) All of the above.
Ans: B
63. Most common cause of Acute intestinal obstruction in Neonates is… (A) Jejunal Atresia. (B) Malrotation (C) Duodenal atresia (D) Acute intussuception.
Ans: C
64. Common site of Regional enteritis is.. (A) Colon (B) Rectum (C) Distal Ileum & colon (D) Caecum
Ans: C
65. Pseudopolyps are features of.. (A) Crohn’s disease (B) Ulcerative colitis (C) Celiac sprue (D) Whipple’s disease
Ans: B
66. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with.. (A) HLA DQ2 (B) HLA DR4 (C) HLA DQ-3 (D) Blood group ‘B’
Ans: A
67. All can cause diarrhoea except. (A) Rota virus (B) Calci virus (C) Reo Virus (D) Adeno virus
Ans: C
68. Profuse watery diarrhoea in almmuno compromised child is due to. (A) Cryptococcus (B) Amoeba (C) Giardia. (D) lactose intolerance.
Ans: C
69. Colic generally disappear by age. (A) 1 year (B) 2 year (C) 4 months (D) 8 months
Ans: C
70. Most common cause of dysentry is.. (A) Shigella (B) E.histolytica (C) Salmonella (D) Campylobacter.
Ans: A
71. m/c. cause of abdominal mass inneonates. (A) neuroblastoma (B) Wilm’stumour (C) Distended bladder (D) Multicystic dysplastic kidneys.
Ans: D
72. Which is most common renalcystic disease in infants? (A) Polycystic kidney. (B) Simple renal cyst. (C) Unilateral renal dysplasia (D) Calyceal cyst.
Ans: C
73. Unilateral Renal agenesis is associated with. (A) polycystic kidney disease (B) single umbilical artery (C) Double ureter. (D) Hypogonadism.
Ans: D
74. Potter syndrome associated with all except. (A) Bilateral renal agenesis (B) Pulmonary hypoplasia. (C) Absent kidney (D) Polyhydromnios
Ans: D
75. All are features of Nephrotic syndrome except. (A) lipiduria (B) hyperlipidemia (C) Hyperalbuminemia (D) Proteinuria.
Ans: C
76. In Kwashiorkor which immunoglobulin most affected. (A) IgA (B) IgG (C) IgD (D) IgE
Ans: A
77. All are seen in Marasmus except (A) Hepatomegaly (B) Voracious appetite (C) Muscle wasting (D) Weight loss
Ans: A
78. Keshan’s disease associated with.. (A) Selenium (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Sulphur
Ans: A
79. Lactose content of breast milk/100ml is (A) 3.5 gm (B) 4.5 gm. (C) 6 gm (D) 7 gm.
Ans: D
80. Deficiency of Vit. C in infant is best estimated by.. (A) Plasma (B) Urinary excretion. (C) Buffy coat estimate (D) Adrenocortical Vit. C estimation.
Ans: C
81. NADA criteria is used for assessment of child for (A) Degree of dehydration (B) Degree of malnutrition (C) Presence of Heart disease. (D) Degree of mental retardation
Ans: C
82. Which of following best associated with congenital heart disease. (A) Less-Nyhan Syndrome (B) Rasmussen Syndrome (C) Holt-oram Syndrome (D) LEOPARD Syndrome.
Ans: C
83. Plethoric lung field is seen in which CHD (A) Epstein’s anomaly (B) Tricuspid Atresia (C) Aortic Stenosis (D) VSD
Ans: D
84. In ASD, the Aorta is.. (A) Small (B) Normal (C) Enlarged (D) Aneurysmal
Ans: A
85. M/c type of VSD (A) Membranous (B) muscular (C) Multiple (D) None
Ans: A
86. Large PDA leads to.. (A) EndocardialValvulities (B) Eissenmeinger Syndrome (C) Heart failure (D) All of the above.
Ans: D
87. Blalock and Taussing shunt is done between.. (A) Aorta to Pulmonary artery. (B) Aorta to pulmonary vein. (C) Subclavian artery to pulmonary vein. (D) Subclavian vein to pulmonary artery.
Ans: A
88. Figure of 8 Configuration on CxR is seen in (A) TAPVC (B) TGA (C) VSD (D) Ebstein’s Anomaly
Ans: A
89. Coarctation of Aorta is m/c associated with. (A) VSD (B) PDA (C) ASD (D) Bicuspid aortic valve.
Ans: D
90. Sustained severe hypertension in children is most commonly suggestive of… (A) Coarctation of Aorta (B) Glomerulonephritis (C) Renal parenchymal disease (D) Drug induced.
Ans: C
91. Which Hb appears first in fetus? (A) Hb A (B) Hb A2 (C) HbF (D) HbGowers.
Ans: D
92. All are true regarding fetal RBCs except. (A) Elevated 2, 3 DPG (B) Decrease carbonic anhydrase activity (C) Decreased life span (D) High RBC volume
Ans: A
93. Macrocytic anemia in children is produced by all except. (A) Thiamine deficiency. (B) Oroticaciduria. (C) Copper deficiency. (D) Hypo thyroidism.
Ans: C
94. Hb A2 concentration in thalassemia minor is (A) 1 (B) 1-2.5 (C) 2.5 – 3.5 (D) >3.5
Ans: D
95. In sickle cell trait, number of bands found in Hb. (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3
Ans: A
96. Most severe form of G-6PD deficiency. (A) Type-I (B) Type-II (C) Type-III (D) None
Ans: C
97. Earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6yr. old girl with iron deficiency. (A) increased reticulocyte count. (B) increased Hemoglobin. (C) increased ferritin. (D) increased serum iron.
Ans: A
98. Hemophilia A diagnostic features all except; (A) decreased factor VIII (B) increased PTT (C) increased PT (D) Normal BT
Ans: C
99. Blood volume in preterm Neonate is (A) 90 ml/kg (B) 80 ml/kg (C) 70 ml/kg (D) 60 ml/kg
Ans: A
100. Fanconi’s Anemia. (A) Constitutional Anemia. (B) Hemolytic anemia. (C) Iron deficiency anemia. (D) Autoimmune anemia.
Ans: A
Ans: D
52. True about autism (A) Occurs in high economic striata (B) Normal communication (C) Starts before 2 – 3 years of age (D) More common in girls
Ans: C
53. A five year old child presents to emergency department with Burns – burn area corresponding to palm is equal to (A) 1% BSA (B) 5% BSA (C) 10% BSA (D) 20% BSA
Ans: A
54. Which of the following is not a nutrition type of indicator of Child health (A) Underweight prevalence (B) Stunting prevalence (C) Infant mortality rate (D) Exclusive breast feedin
Ans: C
55. Perinatal mortality rate includes (A) No. of still birth + No. of neonatal death upto 28 days of life (B) No. of still birth + No. of neonatal death upto 14 days (C) No. of neonatal death + No. of infant mortality rate (D) No. of still birth + No. of neonatal death upto 7 days of life
Ans: D
56. Which of the following is not indoor pollutant? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Ammonia (C) Spores (D) Pollens
Ans: D
57. Which of the following noise level cut off accepted in NICU at night (A) 35 DB (B) 45 DB (C) 55 DB (D) 65 DB
Ans: A
58. RMNCHAprogramme true all except (A) R = Reproductive health (B) M = Maternal health (C) C = Child health (D) A = Antenatal health
Ans: D
59. Which of the following disease not covered in IMNCI (A) Anemia (B) Mal nutrition (C) Asthma (D) Diarrhea
Ans: C
60. National immunization schedule includes all except (A) pentavalent (B) pneumococal (C) measles (D) IPV
Ans: B
61. In patient with H1N1 influenza infection true are all except (A) Category – A no oseltamivir (B) Category – B throat swab testing &osteltamivir (C) Category – C convulsion comes under cat – C (D) None of the above
Ans: B
62. Triple Bubble appearance in Abdominal X-ray suggestive of… (A) Duodenal Atresia (B) Jejunal atresia. (C) Pyloric stenosis (D) All of the above.
Ans: B
63. Most common cause of Acute intestinal obstruction in Neonates is… (A) Jejunal Atresia. (B) Malrotation (C) Duodenal atresia (D) Acute intussuception.
Ans: C
64. Common site of Regional enteritis is.. (A) Colon (B) Rectum (C) Distal Ileum & colon (D) Caecum
Ans: C
65. Pseudopolyps are features of.. (A) Crohn’s disease (B) Ulcerative colitis (C) Celiac sprue (D) Whipple’s disease
Ans: B
66. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with.. (A) HLA DQ2 (B) HLA DR4 (C) HLA DQ-3 (D) Blood group ‘B’
Ans: A
67. All can cause diarrhoea except. (A) Rota virus (B) Calci virus (C) Reo Virus (D) Adeno virus
Ans: C
68. Profuse watery diarrhoea in almmuno compromised child is due to. (A) Cryptococcus (B) Amoeba (C) Giardia. (D) lactose intolerance.
Ans: C
69. Colic generally disappear by age. (A) 1 year (B) 2 year (C) 4 months (D) 8 months
Ans: C
70. Most common cause of dysentry is.. (A) Shigella (B) E.histolytica (C) Salmonella (D) Campylobacter.
Ans: A
71. m/c. cause of abdominal mass inneonates. (A) neuroblastoma (B) Wilm’stumour (C) Distended bladder (D) Multicystic dysplastic kidneys.
Ans: D
72. Which is most common renalcystic disease in infants? (A) Polycystic kidney. (B) Simple renal cyst. (C) Unilateral renal dysplasia (D) Calyceal cyst.
Ans: C
73. Unilateral Renal agenesis is associated with. (A) polycystic kidney disease (B) single umbilical artery (C) Double ureter. (D) Hypogonadism.
Ans: D
74. Potter syndrome associated with all except. (A) Bilateral renal agenesis (B) Pulmonary hypoplasia. (C) Absent kidney (D) Polyhydromnios
Ans: D
75. All are features of Nephrotic syndrome except. (A) lipiduria (B) hyperlipidemia (C) Hyperalbuminemia (D) Proteinuria.
Ans: C
76. In Kwashiorkor which immunoglobulin most affected. (A) IgA (B) IgG (C) IgD (D) IgE
Ans: A
77. All are seen in Marasmus except (A) Hepatomegaly (B) Voracious appetite (C) Muscle wasting (D) Weight loss
Ans: A
78. Keshan’s disease associated with.. (A) Selenium (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Sulphur
Ans: A
79. Lactose content of breast milk/100ml is (A) 3.5 gm (B) 4.5 gm. (C) 6 gm (D) 7 gm.
Ans: D
80. Deficiency of Vit. C in infant is best estimated by.. (A) Plasma (B) Urinary excretion. (C) Buffy coat estimate (D) Adrenocortical Vit. C estimation.
Ans: C
81. NADA criteria is used for assessment of child for (A) Degree of dehydration (B) Degree of malnutrition (C) Presence of Heart disease. (D) Degree of mental retardation
Ans: C
82. Which of following best associated with congenital heart disease. (A) Less-Nyhan Syndrome (B) Rasmussen Syndrome (C) Holt-oram Syndrome (D) LEOPARD Syndrome.
Ans: C
83. Plethoric lung field is seen in which CHD (A) Epstein’s anomaly (B) Tricuspid Atresia (C) Aortic Stenosis (D) VSD
Ans: D
84. In ASD, the Aorta is.. (A) Small (B) Normal (C) Enlarged (D) Aneurysmal
Ans: A
85. M/c type of VSD (A) Membranous (B) muscular (C) Multiple (D) None
Ans: A
86. Large PDA leads to.. (A) EndocardialValvulities (B) Eissenmeinger Syndrome (C) Heart failure (D) All of the above.
Ans: D
87. Blalock and Taussing shunt is done between.. (A) Aorta to Pulmonary artery. (B) Aorta to pulmonary vein. (C) Subclavian artery to pulmonary vein. (D) Subclavian vein to pulmonary artery.
Ans: A
88. Figure of 8 Configuration on CxR is seen in (A) TAPVC (B) TGA (C) VSD (D) Ebstein’s Anomaly
Ans: A
89. Coarctation of Aorta is m/c associated with. (A) VSD (B) PDA (C) ASD (D) Bicuspid aortic valve.
Ans: D
90. Sustained severe hypertension in children is most commonly suggestive of… (A) Coarctation of Aorta (B) Glomerulonephritis (C) Renal parenchymal disease (D) Drug induced.
Ans: C
91. Which Hb appears first in fetus? (A) Hb A (B) Hb A2 (C) HbF (D) HbGowers.
Ans: D
92. All are true regarding fetal RBCs except. (A) Elevated 2, 3 DPG (B) Decrease carbonic anhydrase activity (C) Decreased life span (D) High RBC volume
Ans: A
93. Macrocytic anemia in children is produced by all except. (A) Thiamine deficiency. (B) Oroticaciduria. (C) Copper deficiency. (D) Hypo thyroidism.
Ans: C
94. Hb A2 concentration in thalassemia minor is (A) 1 (B) 1-2.5 (C) 2.5 – 3.5 (D) >3.5
Ans: D
95. In sickle cell trait, number of bands found in Hb. (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3
Ans: A
96. Most severe form of G-6PD deficiency. (A) Type-I (B) Type-II (C) Type-III (D) None
Ans: C
97. Earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6yr. old girl with iron deficiency. (A) increased reticulocyte count. (B) increased Hemoglobin. (C) increased ferritin. (D) increased serum iron.
Ans: A
98. Hemophilia A diagnostic features all except; (A) decreased factor VIII (B) increased PTT (C) increased PT (D) Normal BT
Ans: C
99. Blood volume in preterm Neonate is (A) 90 ml/kg (B) 80 ml/kg (C) 70 ml/kg (D) 60 ml/kg
Ans: A
100. Fanconi’s Anemia. (A) Constitutional Anemia. (B) Hemolytic anemia. (C) Iron deficiency anemia. (D) Autoimmune anemia.
Ans: A
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