OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY -E.N.T-SURGERY
OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY - E.N.T-SURGERY MCQs
1. Incisura terminals is between
(A) Tragus and crux of helix
(B) Ear lobule and antihelix
(C) Antihelix and external auditory meatus
(D) Tragus and ear lobule
Ans: A
2. Pars flaccida of the tympanic membrance is also called.
(A) Reissner’s membrane (B) Shrapnel’s membrane
(C) Basilar membrane (D) Secondary tympanic membrane
Ans: B
3. Which structure prevents spread of infection form middle ear to brain.
(A) Tegmenlympani (B) Cribriform plate
(C) Fundus tympani (D) Petrous apex
Ans: A
4. Austin’s classification for ossicular chain defects depends on
(A) Malleus head and stapes footplate
(B) Malleus hazndle and stapes suprastructure
(C) Malleushead and stapes suprastructure
(D) Malleus head and steps head
Ans: B
5. Movement of stapes causes vibration in
(A) Scala media (B) Scalalympani
(C) Scala vestibule (D) Semicircular canal
Ans: C
6. CSF is similar to
(A) Endolymph (B) Perilymph
(C) Cortilymph (D) Urine
Ans: B
7. When does the rudimentary cochles develop in the fetus?
(A) First week (B) 4th to 8th week (C) 8th to 12th week (D) 16 to 20th week
Ans: B
8. During ear examination, cough occurs due to stimulation of
(A) Vagus (B) Trigeminal
(C) Hypoglossal (D) Trochlear
Ans: A
9. Pitch discrimination is best between?
(A) 0 – 100 Hz (B) 100 – 1000 Hz
(C) 1000 – 4000 Hz (D) 20 – 2000 Hz
Ans: B
10. Surface area of tympanic membrane.
(A) 53 mm2 (B) 70 mm2 (C) 80 mm2 (D) 90 mm2
Ans: D
11. Primary receptor cells of hearing.
(A) Supporting cell (B) Tectorial membrane
(C) Tunnel of corti (D) Hair cell
Ans: D
12. Higher auditory centers determine.
(A) Sound frequency (B) Loudness
(C) Speech discrimination (D) Sound localization
Ans: D
13. Which of the following is responsible for localization of sound?
(A) Cochlear nerve (B) Cochlea
(C) Superior olivary nucleus (D) Cochlear nuclei
Ans: C
14. Horizontal acceleration with forward movement in the sagittal plane is detected by.
(A) Macula of Utricle (B) Macula of Saccule
(C) Lateral semicircular canal (D) Posterior semicircular canal
Ans: A
15. Sense of gravity is detected by
(A) Horizontal semicircular canal (B) Lateral semicircular canal
(C) Superior semicircular canal (D) Utricle and saccule
Ans: D
16. Horizontal semicircular canal responds to
(A) Horizontal acceleration (B) Rotational acceleration
(C) Gravity (D) Antero posterior acceleration
Ans: B
17. Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination.
(A) 128 Hz (B) 256 Hz
(C) 512 Hz (D) 1025 Hz
Ans: C
18. Maximum frequency of tuning fork used in ENT
(A) 512 Hz (B) 254 Hz
(C) 1024 Hz (D) 2048 Hz
Ans: C
19. In sesorineural hearing loss, weber’s test is lateralized to
(A) Normal ear (B) Defective ear
(C) Not lateralized (D) May alternate
Ans: A
20. Red line in pure tone audiometry is for
(A) Bone conduction (B) Air conduction
(C) Right ear (D) Left ear
Ans: C
21. Impedance audiometry is for pathology of
(A) External ear (B) Middle ear
(C) Mastoid air cell (D) Inner ear
Ans: B
22. Schwartz operation is done in
(A) CSOM (B) Serous otitis media
(C) Otosclerosis (D) Acute mastoiditis
Ans: D
23. Stapedial reflex is mediated by
(A) V and VII nerve (B) V and VIII nerves
(C) VII and VI nerves (D) VII and VIII nerves
Ans: D
24. In infant most sensitive audiometric screening is
(A) Electrocochleorgraphy (B) BERA
(C) Cortical evoked response (D) Tympanometry
Ans: B
25. According to the WHO definition of hearing loss, what is the value of classify as profound hearing loss?
(A) 61-71 dB (B) >81dB
(C) >91 dB (D) >101 Db
Ans: B
26. When the patient fails to understand normal speech, but can understand shouted or amplified speech the hearing loss, as termed.
(A) Mild hearing loss (B) Moderate hearing loss
(C) Severe hearing loss (D) Profound hearing loss
Ans: C
27. Following is an ototoxic drug.
(A) Tetracycline (B) Vincristine
(C) Ampicillin (D) Pencillin
Ans: C
28. Commonest cause of hearing loss in children is
(A) CSOM (B) ASOM
(C) Acostic-neuroma (D) Chronic secretoryotitis media
Ans: D
29. Commonest cause of deafness is –
(A) Trauma (B) Wax
(C) Acute mastoiditis (D) Meniere’s disease
Ans: B
30. In noise induced hearing loss, audiogram shows a typical notch at
(A) 1000 Hz (B) 2000m Hz
(C) 3000 Hz (D) 4000 Hz
Ans: D
31. Acoustic dip occurs at
(A) 2000 Hz (B) 4000 Hz
(C) 500 Hz (D) 1500 Hz
Ans: B
32. Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the following can impair hearing permanently.
(A) 40 decibels (B) 85 decibels
(C) 100 decibels (D) 140 decibels
Ans: C
33. Auditory fatigue is seen at
(A) 90 dB, 4000Hz (B) 110 dB, 4000Hz
(C) 130 dB, 4000Hz (D) 150 dB, 4000Hz
Ans: A
34. Which one of the following test is used to detect malingering.
(A) Stenger’s test (B) Buinge’s test
(C) Weber’s test (D) Rinne’s test
Ans: A
35. Lomard’s test is used to diagnosis
(A) Conductive hearing loss (B) Sensorineural hearing loss
(C) Mixed hearing loss (D) Non organic hearing loss
Ans: D
36. After rupture of tympanic membrane the hearing loss is
(A) 10-40 dB (B) 5-15 dB
(C) 20 dB (D) 300 Db
Ans: A
37. Maximum hearing loss is caused by
(A) Ossicularchazin damage (B) Tympanic membrane perforation
(C) Obliteration of oval window (D) Blockade of ear canal
Ans: C
38. Ototoxic drugs generally affect the hearing of what frequencies of sound
(A) 500 - 1000 Hz (B) 2000 - 3000 Hz
(C) 3000 - 4000 Hz (D) 4000 - 5000 Hz
Ans: D
39. Defective function of which of the following causes hyperacusis. (A) VIII nerve (B) 7th nerve
(C) Stapedius muscles (D) Any of the above
Ans: D
40. Dix Hallpikemonouvre is used to assess –
(A) Differentiate peripheral and central lesions of vestibular system.
(B) Differentiate cochlear and retro cochlear deafness
(C) Assess neonatal hearing loss
(D) Assess patency of Eustachian tube
Ans: A
41. Most common site of perilymph fistula
(A) Round window (B) Oval window
(C) Otic capsule (D) Attic
Ans: B
42. At what angle is hallpike thermal caloric test done –
(A) 15° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60°
Ans: B
43. Cold caloric test stimulates –
(A) Cochlea (B) Lateral semi circular canal
(C) Posterior semicircular canal (D) All of the above
Ans: B
44. Stimulation of posterior semicircular canal produces.
(A) Horizontal nystagmus (B) Vertical nystagmus
(C) Rotatory nystagmus (D) None of the above
Ans: B
45. Positive head impulse test is suggestive of –
(A) Injury to vestibular nuclei (B) Injury to peripheral vestibular nerve
(C) Lesion in the brain stem. (D) Injury to Occulomotor nerve
Ans: B
46. Positional vertigo is
(A) Lateral (B) Superior
(C) Inferior (D) Posterior
Ans: D
47. Vestibular Evoked Myogenic Potential (VEMP) detects lesions of
(A) Cochlear Nerve (B) Superior Vestibular Nerve
(C) Inferior Vestibular Nerve (D) Inflammatory Myopathy
Ans: C
48. Vertigo of vestibular origin, all except
(A) Meniener’s disease (B) BPV
(C) Vertebro-basilar insufficiency (D) Vestibular neuronitis
Ans: B
49. What will happen when semicircular canal of one side is destroyed?
(A) Increased nausea and vomiting (B) Spinning of world around sensation
(C) Increased tendency to fall (D) None of the above
Ans: B
50. External otitis is also known as
(A) Glue ear (B) Malignant otitis externa
(C) Telephonist’s car (D) Acute suppurative otitis media (ASOM)
Ans: C
(A) Tragus and crux of helix
(B) Ear lobule and antihelix
(C) Antihelix and external auditory meatus
(D) Tragus and ear lobule
Ans: A
2. Pars flaccida of the tympanic membrance is also called.
(A) Reissner’s membrane (B) Shrapnel’s membrane
(C) Basilar membrane (D) Secondary tympanic membrane
Ans: B
3. Which structure prevents spread of infection form middle ear to brain.
(A) Tegmenlympani (B) Cribriform plate
(C) Fundus tympani (D) Petrous apex
Ans: A
4. Austin’s classification for ossicular chain defects depends on
(A) Malleus head and stapes footplate
(B) Malleus hazndle and stapes suprastructure
(C) Malleushead and stapes suprastructure
(D) Malleus head and steps head
Ans: B
5. Movement of stapes causes vibration in
(A) Scala media (B) Scalalympani
(C) Scala vestibule (D) Semicircular canal
Ans: C
6. CSF is similar to
(A) Endolymph (B) Perilymph
(C) Cortilymph (D) Urine
Ans: B
7. When does the rudimentary cochles develop in the fetus?
(A) First week (B) 4th to 8th week (C) 8th to 12th week (D) 16 to 20th week
Ans: B
8. During ear examination, cough occurs due to stimulation of
(A) Vagus (B) Trigeminal
(C) Hypoglossal (D) Trochlear
Ans: A
9. Pitch discrimination is best between?
(A) 0 – 100 Hz (B) 100 – 1000 Hz
(C) 1000 – 4000 Hz (D) 20 – 2000 Hz
Ans: B
10. Surface area of tympanic membrane.
(A) 53 mm2 (B) 70 mm2 (C) 80 mm2 (D) 90 mm2
Ans: D
11. Primary receptor cells of hearing.
(A) Supporting cell (B) Tectorial membrane
(C) Tunnel of corti (D) Hair cell
Ans: D
12. Higher auditory centers determine.
(A) Sound frequency (B) Loudness
(C) Speech discrimination (D) Sound localization
Ans: D
13. Which of the following is responsible for localization of sound?
(A) Cochlear nerve (B) Cochlea
(C) Superior olivary nucleus (D) Cochlear nuclei
Ans: C
14. Horizontal acceleration with forward movement in the sagittal plane is detected by.
(A) Macula of Utricle (B) Macula of Saccule
(C) Lateral semicircular canal (D) Posterior semicircular canal
Ans: A
15. Sense of gravity is detected by
(A) Horizontal semicircular canal (B) Lateral semicircular canal
(C) Superior semicircular canal (D) Utricle and saccule
Ans: D
16. Horizontal semicircular canal responds to
(A) Horizontal acceleration (B) Rotational acceleration
(C) Gravity (D) Antero posterior acceleration
Ans: B
17. Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination.
(A) 128 Hz (B) 256 Hz
(C) 512 Hz (D) 1025 Hz
Ans: C
18. Maximum frequency of tuning fork used in ENT
(A) 512 Hz (B) 254 Hz
(C) 1024 Hz (D) 2048 Hz
Ans: C
19. In sesorineural hearing loss, weber’s test is lateralized to
(A) Normal ear (B) Defective ear
(C) Not lateralized (D) May alternate
Ans: A
20. Red line in pure tone audiometry is for
(A) Bone conduction (B) Air conduction
(C) Right ear (D) Left ear
Ans: C
21. Impedance audiometry is for pathology of
(A) External ear (B) Middle ear
(C) Mastoid air cell (D) Inner ear
Ans: B
22. Schwartz operation is done in
(A) CSOM (B) Serous otitis media
(C) Otosclerosis (D) Acute mastoiditis
Ans: D
23. Stapedial reflex is mediated by
(A) V and VII nerve (B) V and VIII nerves
(C) VII and VI nerves (D) VII and VIII nerves
Ans: D
24. In infant most sensitive audiometric screening is
(A) Electrocochleorgraphy (B) BERA
(C) Cortical evoked response (D) Tympanometry
Ans: B
25. According to the WHO definition of hearing loss, what is the value of classify as profound hearing loss?
(A) 61-71 dB (B) >81dB
(C) >91 dB (D) >101 Db
Ans: B
26. When the patient fails to understand normal speech, but can understand shouted or amplified speech the hearing loss, as termed.
(A) Mild hearing loss (B) Moderate hearing loss
(C) Severe hearing loss (D) Profound hearing loss
Ans: C
27. Following is an ototoxic drug.
(A) Tetracycline (B) Vincristine
(C) Ampicillin (D) Pencillin
Ans: C
28. Commonest cause of hearing loss in children is
(A) CSOM (B) ASOM
(C) Acostic-neuroma (D) Chronic secretoryotitis media
Ans: D
29. Commonest cause of deafness is –
(A) Trauma (B) Wax
(C) Acute mastoiditis (D) Meniere’s disease
Ans: B
30. In noise induced hearing loss, audiogram shows a typical notch at
(A) 1000 Hz (B) 2000m Hz
(C) 3000 Hz (D) 4000 Hz
Ans: D
31. Acoustic dip occurs at
(A) 2000 Hz (B) 4000 Hz
(C) 500 Hz (D) 1500 Hz
Ans: B
32. Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the following can impair hearing permanently.
(A) 40 decibels (B) 85 decibels
(C) 100 decibels (D) 140 decibels
Ans: C
33. Auditory fatigue is seen at
(A) 90 dB, 4000Hz (B) 110 dB, 4000Hz
(C) 130 dB, 4000Hz (D) 150 dB, 4000Hz
Ans: A
34. Which one of the following test is used to detect malingering.
(A) Stenger’s test (B) Buinge’s test
(C) Weber’s test (D) Rinne’s test
Ans: A
35. Lomard’s test is used to diagnosis
(A) Conductive hearing loss (B) Sensorineural hearing loss
(C) Mixed hearing loss (D) Non organic hearing loss
Ans: D
36. After rupture of tympanic membrane the hearing loss is
(A) 10-40 dB (B) 5-15 dB
(C) 20 dB (D) 300 Db
Ans: A
37. Maximum hearing loss is caused by
(A) Ossicularchazin damage (B) Tympanic membrane perforation
(C) Obliteration of oval window (D) Blockade of ear canal
Ans: C
38. Ototoxic drugs generally affect the hearing of what frequencies of sound
(A) 500 - 1000 Hz (B) 2000 - 3000 Hz
(C) 3000 - 4000 Hz (D) 4000 - 5000 Hz
Ans: D
39. Defective function of which of the following causes hyperacusis. (A) VIII nerve (B) 7th nerve
(C) Stapedius muscles (D) Any of the above
Ans: D
40. Dix Hallpikemonouvre is used to assess –
(A) Differentiate peripheral and central lesions of vestibular system.
(B) Differentiate cochlear and retro cochlear deafness
(C) Assess neonatal hearing loss
(D) Assess patency of Eustachian tube
Ans: A
41. Most common site of perilymph fistula
(A) Round window (B) Oval window
(C) Otic capsule (D) Attic
Ans: B
42. At what angle is hallpike thermal caloric test done –
(A) 15° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60°
Ans: B
43. Cold caloric test stimulates –
(A) Cochlea (B) Lateral semi circular canal
(C) Posterior semicircular canal (D) All of the above
Ans: B
44. Stimulation of posterior semicircular canal produces.
(A) Horizontal nystagmus (B) Vertical nystagmus
(C) Rotatory nystagmus (D) None of the above
Ans: B
45. Positive head impulse test is suggestive of –
(A) Injury to vestibular nuclei (B) Injury to peripheral vestibular nerve
(C) Lesion in the brain stem. (D) Injury to Occulomotor nerve
Ans: B
46. Positional vertigo is
(A) Lateral (B) Superior
(C) Inferior (D) Posterior
Ans: D
47. Vestibular Evoked Myogenic Potential (VEMP) detects lesions of
(A) Cochlear Nerve (B) Superior Vestibular Nerve
(C) Inferior Vestibular Nerve (D) Inflammatory Myopathy
Ans: C
48. Vertigo of vestibular origin, all except
(A) Meniener’s disease (B) BPV
(C) Vertebro-basilar insufficiency (D) Vestibular neuronitis
Ans: B
49. What will happen when semicircular canal of one side is destroyed?
(A) Increased nausea and vomiting (B) Spinning of world around sensation
(C) Increased tendency to fall (D) None of the above
Ans: B
50. External otitis is also known as
(A) Glue ear (B) Malignant otitis externa
(C) Telephonist’s car (D) Acute suppurative otitis media (ASOM)
Ans: C
51. Most common cause of otitis externa is
(A) Fungal infection (B) Bacterial infection
(C) Seborrheic disease (D) Herpes Zoster.
Ans: B
52. Bullous myringitis is caused by
(A) Pseudomonas (B) Mycoplasma
(C) Pneumococcus (D) Candida
Ans: B
53. An old diabetic male presented with rapidly spreading infection of the external auditory canal with involvement of the bone and presence of granulation tissue. The drug of choice for this condition is –
(A) Ciprofloxacin (B) Penicillin
(C) Second generation cephalosporin (D) Aminoglycosides
Ans: B
54. Fungus causing otomycosis most commonlyis
(A) Aspergillusfumigatus (B) Candida
(C) Mucor (D) Penicillin
Ans: B
55. A new born presents; with bilateral microtia and external auditory canal atresia. Corrective surgery is usually performed at
(A) < 1 year of age (B) 5-7 years of age
(C) Puberty (D) Adulthood
Ans: B
56. Exostosis due to repetitive exposure to cold water is common in which part of the temporal bone?–
(A) Squamous part (B) Tympanic part
(C) Pireous part (D) Mastoid part
Ans: B
57. Commonest cause of Eustachian tube diseases ––
(A) Adenoids (B) Sinusitis
(C) Otitis media (D) Pharyngitis
Ans: A
58. All are tests to check Eustachian tube patency except ––
(A) Valsalva maneuver (B) Fistula’s test
(C) Frenzel’s maneuver (D) Tonybee’s maneuver
Ans: B
59. Eustachian tube function is best assessed by ––
(A) Politzer test (B) VEMP
(C) Rhino-manometry (D) Tympanometry
Ans: D
60. At what atmosphere pressure gradient baro-traumatic otitis media occurs.–
(A) 80 mm of Hg (B) 90 mn of Hg
(C) 100 mm of Hg (D) 120 mm of Hg
Ans: B
61. Blue ear drum is seen in –
(A) Serous otitis media (B) CSOM
(C) Perforation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
62. Areas of spontaneous healed of tympanic membrane are called –
(A) Dimeric (B) Pontiac
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: A
63. Commonest cause of acute otitis media is children is
(A) H. influenza (B) Strepto-pneumoniae
(C) Staph aureus (D) Pseudomonas
Ans: B
64. Light house sign is seen in ASOM in which stage-–
(A) Stage of suppuration (B) Stage of hyperemia
(C) Stage of resolution (D) Stage of pre suppuration
Ans: C
65. Secretory otitis media is diagnosed by –
(A) Impedance audiometry (B) Pure tone audiometry
(C) X-ray (D) Otoscopy
Ans: A
66. A year old child presents with bilateral hearing difficulty. Impedance audiometry shows type B Curve. There is bilateral conductive hearing deficit. There is no sign of infection. Next Step is.–
(A) Wait and watch (B) Grommet
(C) Myringotomy and aspiration (D) Canal wall down procedure
Ans: A
67. Treatment of choice for glue ear is –
(A) Myringotomy with cold knife
(B) Myringotomy with diode laser
(C) Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion
(D) Conservative treatment with analgesics and antibiotics
Ans: C
68. Cause of U/L secretory otitis media in an adult is ––
(A) CSOM (B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(C) Mastoiditis (D) Foreign body of external ear
Ans: B
69. Glue ear ––
(A) Is painful (B) Is painless
(C) Radical mastoidectomy is required (D) NaF is useful
Ans: B
70. Most common organism cultured in CSOM is ––
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans: D
71. Cholesteatoma commonly associated with ––
(A) Attico-antral (B) Tubo-tympanic
(C) Tympano-sclerosis (D) Foreign body in ear
Ans: A
72. Perforation of tympanic membrane with destruction of tympanic annulus is called.–
(A) Attic (B) Marginal
(C) Subtotal (D) Total
Ans: B
73. Which perforation of the tympanic membrane is most commonly seen with tubotympanic CSIOM?–
(A) Central (B) Anterosuperior
(C) Posterosuperior (D) Posteroinferior
Ans: A
74. Treatment of choice in central safe perforation is ––
(A) Modified mastoidectomy (B) Tympanoplasty
(C) Myringoplasty (D) Conservative management.
Ans: D
75. Postero-superior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to –
(A) SNHL (B) Secondary cholesteatoma
(C) Tympano-sclerosis (D) Primary cholesteatoma
Ans: D
76. Which of the following structures is not at immediate risk of erosion by cholesteatoma –
(A) Long process of incus (B) Fallopian canal containing facial nerve
(C) Horizontal / lateral semicircular canal (D) Base plate of stapes
Ans: D
77. The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to
(A) Sensori-neural hearing loss (B) Secondary cholesteatoma
(C) Tympano sclerosis (D) Tertiary cholesteatoma
Ans: A
78. Best view for nasal bone –
(A) Lateral (B) Towne’s
(C) Cald-well (D) Submentovertical
Ans: A
79. Otospongiosis is inherited as –
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant (D) X-linked recessive
Ans: A
80. In otosclerosis, tinnitus is due to
(A) Cochlear otosclerosis (B) Increased vascularity in lesion
(C) Conductive deafness (D) All of the above
Ans: A
81. Carhart’s notch in audiometery is seen in –
(A) Ossicular discontinuity (B) Haemotympanum
(C) Otomycosis (D) Otosclerosis
Ans: D
82. Which of the following sis not a typical feature of menieres disease?
(A) Sensorineural deafness (B) Pulsatile tinnitus
(C) Vertigo (D) Fluctuating deafness
Ans: B
83. What is true about meniere’s disease
(A) Semont’s maneuver is used for treatment.
(B) Electro-cochleography is the gold standard for diagnosis
(C) Surgery is the main stay of treatment
(D) V shaped audiogram is seen
Ans: B
84. Lacrimation is affected when facial nerve injury is at
(A) Geniculate ganglion (B) In semicircular canal
(C) At sphenopalatine ganglia (D) None of the above
Ans: A
85. A patient presents with hyperacusis, loss of lacrimation and loss of taste sensation in the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue. Oedema extends up to which level of facial nerve.
(A) Vertical part
(B) Vertical part proximal tonerve to stapedius
(C) Vertical part and beyond nerve to stapedius
(D) Proximal to geniculate ganglion.
Ans: D
86. Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at –
(A) Chorda tympani (B) Cerebellopontine angle
(C) Tympanic canal (D) Geniculate ganglion
Ans: D
87. Intratemporal lesion of chorda tympani nerve result in –
(A) loss of taste sensations from papilla of tongue
(B) Loss of taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue
(C) Loss of taste sensations from posterior 1/3rd of tongue
(D) Loss of secreto-motor fibers to the submandibular salivary gland.
Ans: D
88. Facial nerve palsy at steromastoid canal can cause
(A) Loss of corneal reflex at side of lesion
(B) Loss of taste sensation anterior 2/3 of ipsilateral tongue
(C) Loss of lacrimation at side of lesion
(D) Hyperacusis
Ans: A
89. Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid foramen –
(A) Deviation of angle of mouth towards opposite side
(B) Loss of taste sensation in anterior 21/3 of tongue
(C) Loss of sensation over right check
(D) Deviation of tongue towards opposite side
Ans: A
90. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle.–
(A) Tensor tympani (B) Levatorpalatii
(C) Tensor velipalatii (D) Stapedius
Ans: D
91. All of the following are seen in bell’s palsy except –
(A) Ipsilateral facial palsy (B) Ipsilateral-loss of taste sensation
(C) Hyperacusis (D) Ipsilateral ptosis
Ans: D
92. In Ramsay Hunt syndrome, most commonly involved nerve is--
(A) V (B) VII
(C) VIII (D) IX
Ans: B
93. Crocodile tears is due to--
(A) Cross innervation of facial nerve fibers
(B) Cross innervation of trigeminal nerve fibers
(C) Improper regeneration of trigeminal nerve
(D) Improper regeneration of facial nerve.
Ans: D
94. Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is positive in –
(A) CSOM (B) Petrositis
(C) Coalescent otitis media (D) Coalescent mastoiditis
Ans: D
95. Young male presents with ear discharge since three years; recently patient developed swelling in neck below and behind the angle of mandible, torticollis; on examination external auditory canal was filled with granulation tissue. What is the diagnosis?
(A) Luc’s abscess (B) Citelli’s abscess
(C) Bezold’s abscess (D) Infected branchial cyst
Ans: C
96. Pulsatile otorrhoea seen in –
(A) Glomus tumor
(B) CSF otorrhea
(C) Acute suppurative otitis media(ASOM)
(D) Fistula
Ans: C
97. False about gradenigo’s syndrome.
(A) Retro bulbar pain (B) Otitis media
(C) Facial palsy (D) Petrositis
Ans: C
98. X-ray findings in chronic otitis media ––
(A) Honeycombing of mastoid
(B) Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid
(C) Clear cut distinct bony partition between cells
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
99. Most common complication of acute otitis media in children.
(A) Deafness (B) Mastoiditis
(C) Cholesteatoma (D) Facial nerve palsy
Ans: B
100. Commonest complication of CSOM is –
(A) Subperiosteal abscess (B) Mastoiditis
(C) Brain abscess (D) Meningitis
Ans: C
(A) Fungal infection (B) Bacterial infection
(C) Seborrheic disease (D) Herpes Zoster.
Ans: B
52. Bullous myringitis is caused by
(A) Pseudomonas (B) Mycoplasma
(C) Pneumococcus (D) Candida
Ans: B
53. An old diabetic male presented with rapidly spreading infection of the external auditory canal with involvement of the bone and presence of granulation tissue. The drug of choice for this condition is –
(A) Ciprofloxacin (B) Penicillin
(C) Second generation cephalosporin (D) Aminoglycosides
Ans: B
54. Fungus causing otomycosis most commonlyis
(A) Aspergillusfumigatus (B) Candida
(C) Mucor (D) Penicillin
Ans: B
55. A new born presents; with bilateral microtia and external auditory canal atresia. Corrective surgery is usually performed at
(A) < 1 year of age (B) 5-7 years of age
(C) Puberty (D) Adulthood
Ans: B
56. Exostosis due to repetitive exposure to cold water is common in which part of the temporal bone?–
(A) Squamous part (B) Tympanic part
(C) Pireous part (D) Mastoid part
Ans: B
57. Commonest cause of Eustachian tube diseases ––
(A) Adenoids (B) Sinusitis
(C) Otitis media (D) Pharyngitis
Ans: A
58. All are tests to check Eustachian tube patency except ––
(A) Valsalva maneuver (B) Fistula’s test
(C) Frenzel’s maneuver (D) Tonybee’s maneuver
Ans: B
59. Eustachian tube function is best assessed by ––
(A) Politzer test (B) VEMP
(C) Rhino-manometry (D) Tympanometry
Ans: D
60. At what atmosphere pressure gradient baro-traumatic otitis media occurs.–
(A) 80 mm of Hg (B) 90 mn of Hg
(C) 100 mm of Hg (D) 120 mm of Hg
Ans: B
61. Blue ear drum is seen in –
(A) Serous otitis media (B) CSOM
(C) Perforation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
62. Areas of spontaneous healed of tympanic membrane are called –
(A) Dimeric (B) Pontiac
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: A
63. Commonest cause of acute otitis media is children is
(A) H. influenza (B) Strepto-pneumoniae
(C) Staph aureus (D) Pseudomonas
Ans: B
64. Light house sign is seen in ASOM in which stage-–
(A) Stage of suppuration (B) Stage of hyperemia
(C) Stage of resolution (D) Stage of pre suppuration
Ans: C
65. Secretory otitis media is diagnosed by –
(A) Impedance audiometry (B) Pure tone audiometry
(C) X-ray (D) Otoscopy
Ans: A
66. A year old child presents with bilateral hearing difficulty. Impedance audiometry shows type B Curve. There is bilateral conductive hearing deficit. There is no sign of infection. Next Step is.–
(A) Wait and watch (B) Grommet
(C) Myringotomy and aspiration (D) Canal wall down procedure
Ans: A
67. Treatment of choice for glue ear is –
(A) Myringotomy with cold knife
(B) Myringotomy with diode laser
(C) Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion
(D) Conservative treatment with analgesics and antibiotics
Ans: C
68. Cause of U/L secretory otitis media in an adult is ––
(A) CSOM (B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(C) Mastoiditis (D) Foreign body of external ear
Ans: B
69. Glue ear ––
(A) Is painful (B) Is painless
(C) Radical mastoidectomy is required (D) NaF is useful
Ans: B
70. Most common organism cultured in CSOM is ––
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans: D
71. Cholesteatoma commonly associated with ––
(A) Attico-antral (B) Tubo-tympanic
(C) Tympano-sclerosis (D) Foreign body in ear
Ans: A
72. Perforation of tympanic membrane with destruction of tympanic annulus is called.–
(A) Attic (B) Marginal
(C) Subtotal (D) Total
Ans: B
73. Which perforation of the tympanic membrane is most commonly seen with tubotympanic CSIOM?–
(A) Central (B) Anterosuperior
(C) Posterosuperior (D) Posteroinferior
Ans: A
74. Treatment of choice in central safe perforation is ––
(A) Modified mastoidectomy (B) Tympanoplasty
(C) Myringoplasty (D) Conservative management.
Ans: D
75. Postero-superior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to –
(A) SNHL (B) Secondary cholesteatoma
(C) Tympano-sclerosis (D) Primary cholesteatoma
Ans: D
76. Which of the following structures is not at immediate risk of erosion by cholesteatoma –
(A) Long process of incus (B) Fallopian canal containing facial nerve
(C) Horizontal / lateral semicircular canal (D) Base plate of stapes
Ans: D
77. The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to
(A) Sensori-neural hearing loss (B) Secondary cholesteatoma
(C) Tympano sclerosis (D) Tertiary cholesteatoma
Ans: A
78. Best view for nasal bone –
(A) Lateral (B) Towne’s
(C) Cald-well (D) Submentovertical
Ans: A
79. Otospongiosis is inherited as –
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant (D) X-linked recessive
Ans: A
80. In otosclerosis, tinnitus is due to
(A) Cochlear otosclerosis (B) Increased vascularity in lesion
(C) Conductive deafness (D) All of the above
Ans: A
81. Carhart’s notch in audiometery is seen in –
(A) Ossicular discontinuity (B) Haemotympanum
(C) Otomycosis (D) Otosclerosis
Ans: D
82. Which of the following sis not a typical feature of menieres disease?
(A) Sensorineural deafness (B) Pulsatile tinnitus
(C) Vertigo (D) Fluctuating deafness
Ans: B
83. What is true about meniere’s disease
(A) Semont’s maneuver is used for treatment.
(B) Electro-cochleography is the gold standard for diagnosis
(C) Surgery is the main stay of treatment
(D) V shaped audiogram is seen
Ans: B
84. Lacrimation is affected when facial nerve injury is at
(A) Geniculate ganglion (B) In semicircular canal
(C) At sphenopalatine ganglia (D) None of the above
Ans: A
85. A patient presents with hyperacusis, loss of lacrimation and loss of taste sensation in the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue. Oedema extends up to which level of facial nerve.
(A) Vertical part
(B) Vertical part proximal tonerve to stapedius
(C) Vertical part and beyond nerve to stapedius
(D) Proximal to geniculate ganglion.
Ans: D
86. Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at –
(A) Chorda tympani (B) Cerebellopontine angle
(C) Tympanic canal (D) Geniculate ganglion
Ans: D
87. Intratemporal lesion of chorda tympani nerve result in –
(A) loss of taste sensations from papilla of tongue
(B) Loss of taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue
(C) Loss of taste sensations from posterior 1/3rd of tongue
(D) Loss of secreto-motor fibers to the submandibular salivary gland.
Ans: D
88. Facial nerve palsy at steromastoid canal can cause
(A) Loss of corneal reflex at side of lesion
(B) Loss of taste sensation anterior 2/3 of ipsilateral tongue
(C) Loss of lacrimation at side of lesion
(D) Hyperacusis
Ans: A
89. Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid foramen –
(A) Deviation of angle of mouth towards opposite side
(B) Loss of taste sensation in anterior 21/3 of tongue
(C) Loss of sensation over right check
(D) Deviation of tongue towards opposite side
Ans: A
90. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle.–
(A) Tensor tympani (B) Levatorpalatii
(C) Tensor velipalatii (D) Stapedius
Ans: D
91. All of the following are seen in bell’s palsy except –
(A) Ipsilateral facial palsy (B) Ipsilateral-loss of taste sensation
(C) Hyperacusis (D) Ipsilateral ptosis
Ans: D
92. In Ramsay Hunt syndrome, most commonly involved nerve is--
(A) V (B) VII
(C) VIII (D) IX
Ans: B
93. Crocodile tears is due to--
(A) Cross innervation of facial nerve fibers
(B) Cross innervation of trigeminal nerve fibers
(C) Improper regeneration of trigeminal nerve
(D) Improper regeneration of facial nerve.
Ans: D
94. Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is positive in –
(A) CSOM (B) Petrositis
(C) Coalescent otitis media (D) Coalescent mastoiditis
Ans: D
95. Young male presents with ear discharge since three years; recently patient developed swelling in neck below and behind the angle of mandible, torticollis; on examination external auditory canal was filled with granulation tissue. What is the diagnosis?
(A) Luc’s abscess (B) Citelli’s abscess
(C) Bezold’s abscess (D) Infected branchial cyst
Ans: C
96. Pulsatile otorrhoea seen in –
(A) Glomus tumor
(B) CSF otorrhea
(C) Acute suppurative otitis media(ASOM)
(D) Fistula
Ans: C
97. False about gradenigo’s syndrome.
(A) Retro bulbar pain (B) Otitis media
(C) Facial palsy (D) Petrositis
Ans: C
98. X-ray findings in chronic otitis media ––
(A) Honeycombing of mastoid
(B) Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid
(C) Clear cut distinct bony partition between cells
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
99. Most common complication of acute otitis media in children.
(A) Deafness (B) Mastoiditis
(C) Cholesteatoma (D) Facial nerve palsy
Ans: B
100. Commonest complication of CSOM is –
(A) Subperiosteal abscess (B) Mastoiditis
(C) Brain abscess (D) Meningitis
Ans: C
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