OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY -E.N.T-SURGERY- PAGE 2
OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY - E.N.T-SURGERY MCQs
1. Which are the current methods of choice for Tonsillectomy except ?
(A) Dissection and snare (B) LASER (C) Guillotine (D) Coblation
Ans: C
2. Secondary Haemorrhage occurs after
(A) 1 week (B) 3 days (C) 1 month (D) 14 days
Ans: A
3. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is seen only in children because
(A) Retropharyngeal nodes (Glands of Henle) regress after age of 5. (B) Space itself gets obliterated after that.
(C) Infection spreading to these glands is rare after that age. (D) All of the above
Ans: A
4. Foreign body bronchus commonly is found in right side because
(A) Right bronchus is wider and more aligned with trachea (B) Right has more secondary divisions
(C) Left bronchus is horizontal (D) Left bronchus has a valve
Ans: A
5. These are the common foreign bodies found in Bronchus except
(A) Peanut (B) Bengal gram (C) Coin (D) Small parts of toy like whistle
Ans: C
6. following are complications of Bronchoscopy
(A) Pneumothorax (B) Cardiac arrest (C) Surgical emphysema (D) Meningitis
Ans: D
7. Anaemia, Dysphagia, koilonychia are seen in
(A) Grisel’s syndrome (B) Kelly -Paterson syndrome (C) dysphagia lusoria (D) Globus Pharyngeus
Ans: B
8. Post cricoid carcinoma is
(A) Common in males (B) Common females (C) Common in childhood (D) All of the above
Ans: B
9. Apple core sign is seen on Barium swallow in
(A) Foreign body oesophagus (B) Laryngeal malignancy (C) Oesophageal malignancy (D) None of the above
Ans: C
10. Barret’s Oesophagus is
(A) Gastric lined oesophagus (B) A premalignant condition (C) Can be diagnosed on Gastroscopy (D) All of the above
Ans: D
11. Which of the following is not true for Infantile Larynx ?
(A) it is placed higher compared to adult larynx (B) Epiglottis is omega shaped
(C) both male and female child have similar Larynges (D) Glottis is narrowest part in infantile larynx
Ans: D
12. Following is not true about Laryngeal crepitus except
(A) It is Post cricoids crepitus (B) It is due to movement of Cricoid cartilage over pre vertebral fascia
(C) It is felt when cricoid cartilage fractures (D) It disappears in post cricoid malignancy
Ans: C
13. All is true about Puberphonia except
(A) Mutational Falsetto (B) Failure of the voice to thicken at puberty (C) Due to voice abuse (D) Speech therapy is indicated
Ans: C
14. Androphonia is low pitched male voice in females, can be corrected by
(A) Injection of Teflon in vocal cords (B) Speech therapy (C) Type 4 thyroplasty (D) Botulinum injection
Ans: C
15. Type 1 thyroplasty is done for
(A) Vocal cord medialization (B) Bilateral vocal cord palsy (C) Vocal cord lengthening (D) Puberphonia
Ans: A
16. All is true about Juvenile respiratory papillomatosis except
(A) Caused by Human Papilloma virus (B) Common in children born to HPV infected mothers
(C) Seedling is common after surgery (D) They never cause respiratory distress
Ans: D
17. Best treatment option for 30 years old lady with hoarseness more than 6 months, with history of voice abuse and reflux has bilateral vocal nodules on examination
(A) Voice therapy and PPI (B) Microlaryngeal excision (C) Voice rest (D) LASER cordectomy
Ans: B
18. Which is not true about Recurrent Laryngeal nerves ?
(A) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve runs a long course compared to its counterpart.
(B) Left recurrent Laryngeal nerve gets involved in disease process often.
(C) Iatrogenic damage is more common on Left side.
(D) Right recurrent laryngeal nerve runs a course more lateral in neck.
Ans: C
19. What is not true about Non Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(A) It arises from Vagus nerve directly and runs a short course to Larynx (B) It is a Very common abnormality.
(C) It Is usually seen on right side. (D) There is no such entity.
Ans: B
20. Vernet’s syndrome means
(A) Paralysis of 9, 10 and 11 cranial nerve (B) Paralysis of 10 and 11 cranial nerve
(C) Paralysis of 9, 10, 11, 12 cranial nerves (D) Hornet’s syndrome
Ans: A
21. In unilateral vocal cord palsy following are treatment options except
(A) Injection Laryngoplasty (B) Medialization Thyroplasty (C) Adduction of Arytenoid surgery (D) Botox injection
Ans: D
22. A patient who presented with stridor was found to have nasal regurgitation and hypernasality Probable diagnosis is
(A) Unilateral abductor palsy (B) Bilateral combined palsy (C) Bilateral abductor palsy (D) None of the above
Ans: D
23. LMA means following to Anaesthetist
(A) Long maintained airway (B) Least medial airway (C) Laryngeal mask airway (D) None of the above
Ans: C
24. Elective high tracheostomy is done in cases of
(A) Laryngeal tumour (B) In case of laryngeal trauma (C) Thyroid malignancy (D) None of the above
Ans: A
25. Why tracheostomy is preferred over intubation in prolonged ventilation ?
(A) Prolonged ventilation with tube can lead to tracheal subglottic stenosis (B) Tracheostomy reduces the rate of sepsis
(C) Oral and oropharyngeal hygiene can be maintained (D) All of the above
Ans: D
26. Biggest drawback of cuffed tube is
(A) Cost of the tube (B) It can cause stenosis of trachea (C) Cuff can rupture (D) Tidal volumes are not generated properly
Ans: B
27. Following are metallic tubes
(A) Chevalier Jackson silver tube, Fuller’s tube (B) Endotracheal tubes (C) Ryle’sTube (D) Tube with adjustable flange
Ans: A
28. Percutaneous Tracheostomy is preferred because
(A) It can be done bedside (B) Reduces the overall cost (C) Sepsis rate is low (D) All of the above
Ans: D
29. Following is technique of PCT
(A) Santorini’s technique (B) Sistrunk’s technique (C) Grigg’s technique (D) Golhar’s technique
Ans: C
30. Following a tracheostomy 3 weeks after patient has a massive haemorrhage from stoma
(A) Possibility of Ant jugular vein damage (B) Tracheo arterial fistula (C) Thyroid isthmus erosion (D) None of the above
Ans: B
31. What are the best options for Ca In situ Vocal cords ?
(A) Radiotherapy (B) partial laryngectomy (C) LASER excision (D) Total laryngectomy
Ans: C
32. Which of the following is not true for Ca Larynx ?
(A) Glottic ca is most common and has the best prognosis (B) Lymphatic spread is least in Glottic carcinoma
(C) T1 tumour is best treated by Radiotherapy (D) It has very poor 5 year survival rate.
Ans: D
33. Which of these signs indicate a metastatic node in neck except
(A) Nodes less than 1cm in size (B) Oval shaped nodes (C) Central necrosis (D) Extracapsular spread
Ans: A
34. Modified Neck dissection Type 3 is when
(A) spinal accessory nerve and internal jugular vein are preserved (B) spinal accessory nerve is preserved
(C) spinal accessory nerve internal jugular vein and sternocleidomastoid all are preserved (D) None of the above
Ans: C
35. Coffin’s corner is situated in
(A) In nasopharynx (B) In laryngeal vestibule (C) Area behind the third lower molar tooth (D) Floor mouth
Ans: C
36. What is not part of Waldeyer’s ring ?
(A) Adenoids (B) Tonsils (C) Filiform papillae (D) Lingual Tonsils
Ans: C
37. Following are the Contents of Riolan’s Bouquet
(A) Muscles Styloglossus,Stylohyoid stylopharynges and ligaments Stylohyoid and Stylomandibular
(B) Vessels Carotid both Internal and External
(C) Vagus nerve
(D) Glossopharyngeal nerve.
Ans: A
38. Jacobson’s nerve is branch of
(A) Vagus nerve (B) Glossopharyngeal nerve (C) Hypoglossal nerve (D) None of the above
Ans: B
39. Which of The following is not part of Hypopharynx ?
(A) Post cricoid region (B) Aryepiglottic folds (C) Pyriform fossa (D) Vallecula
Ans: D
40. Sistrunk’s operation is done for
(A) Branchial cyst (B) Thyroglossal cyst (C) Rathke’s pouch (D) Cystic hygroma
Ans: B
41. A newborn of 36 weeks gestation presents with inspiratory stridor, more so in supine position settles down on lateral position and on flexible Laryngoscopy shows an Omega shaped Epiglottis the likely diagnosis
(A) Laryngeal Cleft (B) Cyst (C) Laryngomalacia (D) Laryngeal web
Ans: C
42. Among the premalignant lesions of Oral cavity the commonest in Gujarat is
(A) Submucous Fibrosis (B) Leucoplakia (C) Erythroplakia (D) Actinic cheilosis
Ans: A
43. Of the following conditions highest malignant potential is seen in
(A) Leucoplakia (B) Dysplasia (C) Erythroplakia (D) Submucous fibrosis
Ans: C
44. Andy Gump deformity is seen after
(A) Segmental mandibulectomy (B) Middle third mandible resection (C) Retromolar excision (D) Maxillectomy.
Ans: B
45. Following structures are removed in Classical Radical neck dissection.
(A) Sternocleidomastoid muscle (B) Internal jugular vein (C) Spinal Accessory nerve (D) All of the above.
Ans: D
46. Greyish white membrane over tonsil with massive cervical lymphadenopathy probable diagnosis
(A) Oral pemphigus (B) Diphtheria (C) Aphthus ulcerations (D) Membranous tonsillitis
Ans: B
47. Palatal Myoclonus is seen in
(A) Epilepsy (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Cerebral infarction (D) Guillain Barre syndrome
Ans: B
48. What is Tonsil tummy ?
(A) Large tonsils in size (B) Tonsillitis with abdominal pain due to swallowed exudates.
(C) Tonillitis with Jugulodigastric lymphadenitis (D) Adenoid faces
Ans: B
49. Interval tonsillectomy is done after
(A) 3 months (B) 6 weeks (C) 1 year (D) 12 weeks
Ans: B
50. Absolute indications for Tonsillectomy except
(A) Obstructive symptoms (B) Malignancy (C) Lymphoma suspected (D) Rheumatic carrier state
Ans: D
(A) Dissection and snare (B) LASER (C) Guillotine (D) Coblation
Ans: C
2. Secondary Haemorrhage occurs after
(A) 1 week (B) 3 days (C) 1 month (D) 14 days
Ans: A
3. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is seen only in children because
(A) Retropharyngeal nodes (Glands of Henle) regress after age of 5. (B) Space itself gets obliterated after that.
(C) Infection spreading to these glands is rare after that age. (D) All of the above
Ans: A
4. Foreign body bronchus commonly is found in right side because
(A) Right bronchus is wider and more aligned with trachea (B) Right has more secondary divisions
(C) Left bronchus is horizontal (D) Left bronchus has a valve
Ans: A
5. These are the common foreign bodies found in Bronchus except
(A) Peanut (B) Bengal gram (C) Coin (D) Small parts of toy like whistle
Ans: C
6. following are complications of Bronchoscopy
(A) Pneumothorax (B) Cardiac arrest (C) Surgical emphysema (D) Meningitis
Ans: D
7. Anaemia, Dysphagia, koilonychia are seen in
(A) Grisel’s syndrome (B) Kelly -Paterson syndrome (C) dysphagia lusoria (D) Globus Pharyngeus
Ans: B
8. Post cricoid carcinoma is
(A) Common in males (B) Common females (C) Common in childhood (D) All of the above
Ans: B
9. Apple core sign is seen on Barium swallow in
(A) Foreign body oesophagus (B) Laryngeal malignancy (C) Oesophageal malignancy (D) None of the above
Ans: C
10. Barret’s Oesophagus is
(A) Gastric lined oesophagus (B) A premalignant condition (C) Can be diagnosed on Gastroscopy (D) All of the above
Ans: D
11. Which of the following is not true for Infantile Larynx ?
(A) it is placed higher compared to adult larynx (B) Epiglottis is omega shaped
(C) both male and female child have similar Larynges (D) Glottis is narrowest part in infantile larynx
Ans: D
12. Following is not true about Laryngeal crepitus except
(A) It is Post cricoids crepitus (B) It is due to movement of Cricoid cartilage over pre vertebral fascia
(C) It is felt when cricoid cartilage fractures (D) It disappears in post cricoid malignancy
Ans: C
13. All is true about Puberphonia except
(A) Mutational Falsetto (B) Failure of the voice to thicken at puberty (C) Due to voice abuse (D) Speech therapy is indicated
Ans: C
14. Androphonia is low pitched male voice in females, can be corrected by
(A) Injection of Teflon in vocal cords (B) Speech therapy (C) Type 4 thyroplasty (D) Botulinum injection
Ans: C
15. Type 1 thyroplasty is done for
(A) Vocal cord medialization (B) Bilateral vocal cord palsy (C) Vocal cord lengthening (D) Puberphonia
Ans: A
16. All is true about Juvenile respiratory papillomatosis except
(A) Caused by Human Papilloma virus (B) Common in children born to HPV infected mothers
(C) Seedling is common after surgery (D) They never cause respiratory distress
Ans: D
17. Best treatment option for 30 years old lady with hoarseness more than 6 months, with history of voice abuse and reflux has bilateral vocal nodules on examination
(A) Voice therapy and PPI (B) Microlaryngeal excision (C) Voice rest (D) LASER cordectomy
Ans: B
18. Which is not true about Recurrent Laryngeal nerves ?
(A) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve runs a long course compared to its counterpart.
(B) Left recurrent Laryngeal nerve gets involved in disease process often.
(C) Iatrogenic damage is more common on Left side.
(D) Right recurrent laryngeal nerve runs a course more lateral in neck.
Ans: C
19. What is not true about Non Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(A) It arises from Vagus nerve directly and runs a short course to Larynx (B) It is a Very common abnormality.
(C) It Is usually seen on right side. (D) There is no such entity.
Ans: B
20. Vernet’s syndrome means
(A) Paralysis of 9, 10 and 11 cranial nerve (B) Paralysis of 10 and 11 cranial nerve
(C) Paralysis of 9, 10, 11, 12 cranial nerves (D) Hornet’s syndrome
Ans: A
21. In unilateral vocal cord palsy following are treatment options except
(A) Injection Laryngoplasty (B) Medialization Thyroplasty (C) Adduction of Arytenoid surgery (D) Botox injection
Ans: D
22. A patient who presented with stridor was found to have nasal regurgitation and hypernasality Probable diagnosis is
(A) Unilateral abductor palsy (B) Bilateral combined palsy (C) Bilateral abductor palsy (D) None of the above
Ans: D
23. LMA means following to Anaesthetist
(A) Long maintained airway (B) Least medial airway (C) Laryngeal mask airway (D) None of the above
Ans: C
24. Elective high tracheostomy is done in cases of
(A) Laryngeal tumour (B) In case of laryngeal trauma (C) Thyroid malignancy (D) None of the above
Ans: A
25. Why tracheostomy is preferred over intubation in prolonged ventilation ?
(A) Prolonged ventilation with tube can lead to tracheal subglottic stenosis (B) Tracheostomy reduces the rate of sepsis
(C) Oral and oropharyngeal hygiene can be maintained (D) All of the above
Ans: D
26. Biggest drawback of cuffed tube is
(A) Cost of the tube (B) It can cause stenosis of trachea (C) Cuff can rupture (D) Tidal volumes are not generated properly
Ans: B
27. Following are metallic tubes
(A) Chevalier Jackson silver tube, Fuller’s tube (B) Endotracheal tubes (C) Ryle’sTube (D) Tube with adjustable flange
Ans: A
28. Percutaneous Tracheostomy is preferred because
(A) It can be done bedside (B) Reduces the overall cost (C) Sepsis rate is low (D) All of the above
Ans: D
29. Following is technique of PCT
(A) Santorini’s technique (B) Sistrunk’s technique (C) Grigg’s technique (D) Golhar’s technique
Ans: C
30. Following a tracheostomy 3 weeks after patient has a massive haemorrhage from stoma
(A) Possibility of Ant jugular vein damage (B) Tracheo arterial fistula (C) Thyroid isthmus erosion (D) None of the above
Ans: B
31. What are the best options for Ca In situ Vocal cords ?
(A) Radiotherapy (B) partial laryngectomy (C) LASER excision (D) Total laryngectomy
Ans: C
32. Which of the following is not true for Ca Larynx ?
(A) Glottic ca is most common and has the best prognosis (B) Lymphatic spread is least in Glottic carcinoma
(C) T1 tumour is best treated by Radiotherapy (D) It has very poor 5 year survival rate.
Ans: D
33. Which of these signs indicate a metastatic node in neck except
(A) Nodes less than 1cm in size (B) Oval shaped nodes (C) Central necrosis (D) Extracapsular spread
Ans: A
34. Modified Neck dissection Type 3 is when
(A) spinal accessory nerve and internal jugular vein are preserved (B) spinal accessory nerve is preserved
(C) spinal accessory nerve internal jugular vein and sternocleidomastoid all are preserved (D) None of the above
Ans: C
35. Coffin’s corner is situated in
(A) In nasopharynx (B) In laryngeal vestibule (C) Area behind the third lower molar tooth (D) Floor mouth
Ans: C
36. What is not part of Waldeyer’s ring ?
(A) Adenoids (B) Tonsils (C) Filiform papillae (D) Lingual Tonsils
Ans: C
37. Following are the Contents of Riolan’s Bouquet
(A) Muscles Styloglossus,Stylohyoid stylopharynges and ligaments Stylohyoid and Stylomandibular
(B) Vessels Carotid both Internal and External
(C) Vagus nerve
(D) Glossopharyngeal nerve.
Ans: A
38. Jacobson’s nerve is branch of
(A) Vagus nerve (B) Glossopharyngeal nerve (C) Hypoglossal nerve (D) None of the above
Ans: B
39. Which of The following is not part of Hypopharynx ?
(A) Post cricoid region (B) Aryepiglottic folds (C) Pyriform fossa (D) Vallecula
Ans: D
40. Sistrunk’s operation is done for
(A) Branchial cyst (B) Thyroglossal cyst (C) Rathke’s pouch (D) Cystic hygroma
Ans: B
41. A newborn of 36 weeks gestation presents with inspiratory stridor, more so in supine position settles down on lateral position and on flexible Laryngoscopy shows an Omega shaped Epiglottis the likely diagnosis
(A) Laryngeal Cleft (B) Cyst (C) Laryngomalacia (D) Laryngeal web
Ans: C
42. Among the premalignant lesions of Oral cavity the commonest in Gujarat is
(A) Submucous Fibrosis (B) Leucoplakia (C) Erythroplakia (D) Actinic cheilosis
Ans: A
43. Of the following conditions highest malignant potential is seen in
(A) Leucoplakia (B) Dysplasia (C) Erythroplakia (D) Submucous fibrosis
Ans: C
44. Andy Gump deformity is seen after
(A) Segmental mandibulectomy (B) Middle third mandible resection (C) Retromolar excision (D) Maxillectomy.
Ans: B
45. Following structures are removed in Classical Radical neck dissection.
(A) Sternocleidomastoid muscle (B) Internal jugular vein (C) Spinal Accessory nerve (D) All of the above.
Ans: D
46. Greyish white membrane over tonsil with massive cervical lymphadenopathy probable diagnosis
(A) Oral pemphigus (B) Diphtheria (C) Aphthus ulcerations (D) Membranous tonsillitis
Ans: B
47. Palatal Myoclonus is seen in
(A) Epilepsy (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Cerebral infarction (D) Guillain Barre syndrome
Ans: B
48. What is Tonsil tummy ?
(A) Large tonsils in size (B) Tonsillitis with abdominal pain due to swallowed exudates.
(C) Tonillitis with Jugulodigastric lymphadenitis (D) Adenoid faces
Ans: B
49. Interval tonsillectomy is done after
(A) 3 months (B) 6 weeks (C) 1 year (D) 12 weeks
Ans: B
50. Absolute indications for Tonsillectomy except
(A) Obstructive symptoms (B) Malignancy (C) Lymphoma suspected (D) Rheumatic carrier state
Ans: D
51. Inferior salivatory nucleus supplies
(A) Parotid gland (B) Submandibular gland (C) Lacrimal gland (D) All the above
Ans: A
52. Only muscle supplied by glossopharyngeal nerve
(A) Salpingopharyngeus muscle (B) Stylopharyngeus (C) Palatoglossus (D) Palatopharyngeus
Ans: B
53. Nerve for the second arch
(A) Facial nerve (B) Glossopharngeal nerve (C) Mandibular nerve (D) Vagus nerve
Ans: A
54. Which of the following malignancy has a bimodal distribution ?
(A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (B) Carcinoma tongue (C) Carcinoma larynx (D) Parotid malignancy
Ans: A
55. The most dreaded complication after oesophagoscopy is
(A) Damage to teeth of alveolar arch (B) Oedema of Larynx (C) Oesophageal perforation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
56. The following are routine modalities to diagnose a case of Dysphagia except
(A) Ba swallow (B) Endoscopy (C) CT scan (D) Ballon dilatation
Ans: D
57. Following is an important reconstruction modality after endoscopic skull base surgery
(A) Citelli’s flap (B) Hadad’sflap (C) Forehead Flap (D) Nasolabial flap
Ans: B
58. Balloon sinuplasty did not become a very favoured procedure because
(A) Limited indications (B) Cost factor (C) Limited availability (D) All of the above
Ans: D
59. Sialendoscopy has improved the management of Salivary pathologies like
(A) Sialostasis and calculus (B) Trauma (C) Pleomorphic adenoma (D) Mumps
Ans: A
60. Intensity Modulated Radiotherapy has following advantages
(A) It delivers a high dose of radiation more precisely (B) It reduces the radiation to surrounding structures
(C) It helps to protect parotid, spinal cord and mandible. (D) All of the above
Ans: D
61. Topical Mitomicin C is used in
(A) Maxillary sinus malignancy (B) Laryngotracheal stenosis (C) Choanal Atresia (D) CSOM
Ans: B
62. Bjork flap is used in
(A) Septorhinoplasty (B) Tracheostomy (C) Skullbase surgery (D) Oroantral fistula
Ans: B
63. Empty nose syndrome is
(A) Excessive dryness and feeling of obstruction in nose
(B) It is due to overzealous destruction of turbinates by frequent cauterisations
(C) Loss of smell
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
64. Lincoln’s highway of the neck is
(A) Reinke’s space (B) It allows deep neck space infections to go to mediastinum (C) Ludwig’s angina (D) None of the above
Ans: B
65. Septal injuries are attended early
(A) It may form Haematoma and later abscess (B) Saddling of nose due to cartilage necrosis (C) Due to cosmetic concern (D) All of the above
Ans: D
66. X ray showing air shadow between soft tissue mass and posterior wall of nasopharynx is suggestive of
(A) Ethmoidal polypi (B) Antrochoanal polyp (C) Nasal myiasis (D) None of the above
Ans: B
67. Vidian Neurectomy was advocated for
(A) Allergic Rhinitis (B) atrophic Rhinitis (C) Vasomotor Rhinitis (D) None of the above
Ans: C
68. ARIA means
(A) Antibody response in Asthma (B) Antibody response in Allergic Rhinitis
(C) Allergic Rhinitis induced Asthma (D) Allergic Rhinitis and its impact on Asthma
Ans: D
69. Allergic Rhinitis is which type of Hypersensitivity ?
(A) Type 1 (B) Type 2 (C) Type 3 (D) Type 4
Ans: A
70. In allergic Rhinitis nasal mucousa is
(A) Pale and swollen (B) Atrophied (C) Pink and swollen (D) Bluish and atrophied
Ans: A
71. Lederman’s classification AJCC. Which is not true
(A) Is For Paranasal sinus tumours (B) Divides the area into 9 compartments
(C) It is used for grading Ca Larynx (D) It helps to decide the prognosis.
Ans: C
72. What is the most important cause of Oroantral fistula ?
(A) Dental extraction (B) Trauma (C) Old age (D) Malignancy
Ans: A
73. Killian’s dehiscence is seen in
(A) Superior constrictor (B) Inferior constrictor (C) None (D) Middle constrictor muscle
Ans: B
74. Midline Neck node is known as
(A) Delphian Node (B) Rosenmuller’s node (C) Node of Morgagni (D) Node of Cloquet
Ans: A
75. The classification used in Tympanometry is by
(A) Lushka (B) Rinne (C) Jerger’s (D) Carhart’s
Ans: C
76. Which tunning forks are not used to test hearing
(A) 512 hz (B) 128 hz (C) 1024 Hz (D) 256 hz
Ans: B
77. Cleft Palate will cause
(A) Rhinolalia Clausa (B) Hyponasality (C) Rhinolalia Aperta (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
78. Commonest cause of Conductive Hearing loss in community
(A) CSOM (B) Microtia (C) Wax impaction (D) Otosclerosis
Ans: C
79. Palpatory thud audible slap is heard in
(A) Bronchial foreign body (B) Tracheal foreign body (C) Laryngeal Foreign body (D) None
Ans: B
80. Following are ways of having speech after Laryngectomy
(A) Neoglottis (B) Asai Technique (C) Oesophageal speech (D) All of the above
Ans: D
81. Malignant otitis externa is
(A) Caused by P Aeruginosa (B) Can cause facial palsy (C) Also referred as Skull base osteomyelitis (D) All of the above
Ans: D
82. Post rhinoscopy mirror is known as
(A) St clair Thomson mirror (B) Macenzie’s mirror (C) Zini’s mirror (D) Head mirror
Ans: A
83. Myringotomy is indicated in all except
(A) ASOM (B) Serous otitis media (C) Glomus tumour (D) Haemotympanum
Ans: C
84. Colummela is
(A) Avian ossicle (B) Single ossicle
(C) Based on middle ear height it is described as short or long colummela (D) All of the above is true.
Ans: D
85. Steeple sign is seen in:
(A) Croup (B) Acute epiglottitis (C) Laryngomalacia (D) Quinsy
Ans: A
86. Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
(A) Caesium (B) I-131 (C) Gold (D) Iridium
Ans: D
87. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to:
(A) Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery (B) Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery
(C) Compression by aortic arch (D) Obstruction by foreign body
Ans: B
88. What is the most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland ?
(A) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (B) Acinic cell carcinoma (C) Adenoid cystic carcinoma (D) Lymphoma
Ans: A
89. The prestyloid parapharyngeal space contains all of the following except
(A) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve (B) Glossopharyngeal nerve
(C) Deep lobe of parotid (D) Medial and lateral pterygoid muscles
Ans: B
90. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
(A) May be associated with RET oncogene mutation (B) Most common thyroid malignancy associated with lymphnode metastasis
(C) Result in decrease o calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) (D) Never spread to liver or lung
Ans: A
91. A patient presents with a lateral neck mass demonstrating a ‘lyre sign’ on Carotid angiogram. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Vagal paraganglioma (B) Carotid body tumor (C) Vagal schwannoma (D) Glomus jugulare
Ans: B
92. Vandetanib used as a targeted therapy for
(A) Medullary carcinoma thyrioid (B) Papillary carcinoma thyroid
(C) Anaplastic carcinoma thyrioid (D) Follicular carcinoma thyrioid
Ans: A
93. Abbey- estlander flap is based on
(A) Labial artery (B) Facial artery (C) Lingual artery (D) Internal maxillary artery
Ans: A
94. Carcinoma tongue most commonly occur at
(A) Dorsum (B) Lateral border of anterior 2/3 (C) Lateral border of posterior 1/3 (D) Tip
Ans: B
95. Technetium 99 hot spots are seen in
(A) Warthin tumour (B) Pleomorphic adenoma (C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (D) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Ans: A
96. Orphan annie Nucleus characteristically seen in
(A) Medullary carcinoma thyroid (B) Papillary carcinoma thyroid (C) Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (D) Follicular carcinoma
Ans: B
97. Structure preserved in radical neck dissection
(A) Vagus nerve (B) Sternocledomastoid (C) Submandbular gland (D) Internal jugular vein
Ans: A
98. In which of the following head and neck, cancer lymphnode metastasis are least common
(A) Tongue (B) Hard palate (C) Buccal mucosa (D) Supra glottis
Ans: B
99. Treatment of choice for T1 Squamous cell carcinoma of glottis
(A) Radiotherapy alone (B) Radiotherapy+Chemotherapy
(C) Vertical partial laryngectomy (D) Crico hyoidoepiglotopexy
Ans: A
100. Malignancy which is prone to have skip metastasis
(A) Tongue (B) Buccal mucosa (C) Hard palate (D) Supraglottis
Ans: A
(A) Parotid gland (B) Submandibular gland (C) Lacrimal gland (D) All the above
Ans: A
52. Only muscle supplied by glossopharyngeal nerve
(A) Salpingopharyngeus muscle (B) Stylopharyngeus (C) Palatoglossus (D) Palatopharyngeus
Ans: B
53. Nerve for the second arch
(A) Facial nerve (B) Glossopharngeal nerve (C) Mandibular nerve (D) Vagus nerve
Ans: A
54. Which of the following malignancy has a bimodal distribution ?
(A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (B) Carcinoma tongue (C) Carcinoma larynx (D) Parotid malignancy
Ans: A
55. The most dreaded complication after oesophagoscopy is
(A) Damage to teeth of alveolar arch (B) Oedema of Larynx (C) Oesophageal perforation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
56. The following are routine modalities to diagnose a case of Dysphagia except
(A) Ba swallow (B) Endoscopy (C) CT scan (D) Ballon dilatation
Ans: D
57. Following is an important reconstruction modality after endoscopic skull base surgery
(A) Citelli’s flap (B) Hadad’sflap (C) Forehead Flap (D) Nasolabial flap
Ans: B
58. Balloon sinuplasty did not become a very favoured procedure because
(A) Limited indications (B) Cost factor (C) Limited availability (D) All of the above
Ans: D
59. Sialendoscopy has improved the management of Salivary pathologies like
(A) Sialostasis and calculus (B) Trauma (C) Pleomorphic adenoma (D) Mumps
Ans: A
60. Intensity Modulated Radiotherapy has following advantages
(A) It delivers a high dose of radiation more precisely (B) It reduces the radiation to surrounding structures
(C) It helps to protect parotid, spinal cord and mandible. (D) All of the above
Ans: D
61. Topical Mitomicin C is used in
(A) Maxillary sinus malignancy (B) Laryngotracheal stenosis (C) Choanal Atresia (D) CSOM
Ans: B
62. Bjork flap is used in
(A) Septorhinoplasty (B) Tracheostomy (C) Skullbase surgery (D) Oroantral fistula
Ans: B
63. Empty nose syndrome is
(A) Excessive dryness and feeling of obstruction in nose
(B) It is due to overzealous destruction of turbinates by frequent cauterisations
(C) Loss of smell
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
64. Lincoln’s highway of the neck is
(A) Reinke’s space (B) It allows deep neck space infections to go to mediastinum (C) Ludwig’s angina (D) None of the above
Ans: B
65. Septal injuries are attended early
(A) It may form Haematoma and later abscess (B) Saddling of nose due to cartilage necrosis (C) Due to cosmetic concern (D) All of the above
Ans: D
66. X ray showing air shadow between soft tissue mass and posterior wall of nasopharynx is suggestive of
(A) Ethmoidal polypi (B) Antrochoanal polyp (C) Nasal myiasis (D) None of the above
Ans: B
67. Vidian Neurectomy was advocated for
(A) Allergic Rhinitis (B) atrophic Rhinitis (C) Vasomotor Rhinitis (D) None of the above
Ans: C
68. ARIA means
(A) Antibody response in Asthma (B) Antibody response in Allergic Rhinitis
(C) Allergic Rhinitis induced Asthma (D) Allergic Rhinitis and its impact on Asthma
Ans: D
69. Allergic Rhinitis is which type of Hypersensitivity ?
(A) Type 1 (B) Type 2 (C) Type 3 (D) Type 4
Ans: A
70. In allergic Rhinitis nasal mucousa is
(A) Pale and swollen (B) Atrophied (C) Pink and swollen (D) Bluish and atrophied
Ans: A
71. Lederman’s classification AJCC. Which is not true
(A) Is For Paranasal sinus tumours (B) Divides the area into 9 compartments
(C) It is used for grading Ca Larynx (D) It helps to decide the prognosis.
Ans: C
72. What is the most important cause of Oroantral fistula ?
(A) Dental extraction (B) Trauma (C) Old age (D) Malignancy
Ans: A
73. Killian’s dehiscence is seen in
(A) Superior constrictor (B) Inferior constrictor (C) None (D) Middle constrictor muscle
Ans: B
74. Midline Neck node is known as
(A) Delphian Node (B) Rosenmuller’s node (C) Node of Morgagni (D) Node of Cloquet
Ans: A
75. The classification used in Tympanometry is by
(A) Lushka (B) Rinne (C) Jerger’s (D) Carhart’s
Ans: C
76. Which tunning forks are not used to test hearing
(A) 512 hz (B) 128 hz (C) 1024 Hz (D) 256 hz
Ans: B
77. Cleft Palate will cause
(A) Rhinolalia Clausa (B) Hyponasality (C) Rhinolalia Aperta (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
78. Commonest cause of Conductive Hearing loss in community
(A) CSOM (B) Microtia (C) Wax impaction (D) Otosclerosis
Ans: C
79. Palpatory thud audible slap is heard in
(A) Bronchial foreign body (B) Tracheal foreign body (C) Laryngeal Foreign body (D) None
Ans: B
80. Following are ways of having speech after Laryngectomy
(A) Neoglottis (B) Asai Technique (C) Oesophageal speech (D) All of the above
Ans: D
81. Malignant otitis externa is
(A) Caused by P Aeruginosa (B) Can cause facial palsy (C) Also referred as Skull base osteomyelitis (D) All of the above
Ans: D
82. Post rhinoscopy mirror is known as
(A) St clair Thomson mirror (B) Macenzie’s mirror (C) Zini’s mirror (D) Head mirror
Ans: A
83. Myringotomy is indicated in all except
(A) ASOM (B) Serous otitis media (C) Glomus tumour (D) Haemotympanum
Ans: C
84. Colummela is
(A) Avian ossicle (B) Single ossicle
(C) Based on middle ear height it is described as short or long colummela (D) All of the above is true.
Ans: D
85. Steeple sign is seen in:
(A) Croup (B) Acute epiglottitis (C) Laryngomalacia (D) Quinsy
Ans: A
86. Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
(A) Caesium (B) I-131 (C) Gold (D) Iridium
Ans: D
87. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to:
(A) Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery (B) Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery
(C) Compression by aortic arch (D) Obstruction by foreign body
Ans: B
88. What is the most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland ?
(A) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (B) Acinic cell carcinoma (C) Adenoid cystic carcinoma (D) Lymphoma
Ans: A
89. The prestyloid parapharyngeal space contains all of the following except
(A) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve (B) Glossopharyngeal nerve
(C) Deep lobe of parotid (D) Medial and lateral pterygoid muscles
Ans: B
90. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
(A) May be associated with RET oncogene mutation (B) Most common thyroid malignancy associated with lymphnode metastasis
(C) Result in decrease o calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) (D) Never spread to liver or lung
Ans: A
91. A patient presents with a lateral neck mass demonstrating a ‘lyre sign’ on Carotid angiogram. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Vagal paraganglioma (B) Carotid body tumor (C) Vagal schwannoma (D) Glomus jugulare
Ans: B
92. Vandetanib used as a targeted therapy for
(A) Medullary carcinoma thyrioid (B) Papillary carcinoma thyroid
(C) Anaplastic carcinoma thyrioid (D) Follicular carcinoma thyrioid
Ans: A
93. Abbey- estlander flap is based on
(A) Labial artery (B) Facial artery (C) Lingual artery (D) Internal maxillary artery
Ans: A
94. Carcinoma tongue most commonly occur at
(A) Dorsum (B) Lateral border of anterior 2/3 (C) Lateral border of posterior 1/3 (D) Tip
Ans: B
95. Technetium 99 hot spots are seen in
(A) Warthin tumour (B) Pleomorphic adenoma (C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (D) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Ans: A
96. Orphan annie Nucleus characteristically seen in
(A) Medullary carcinoma thyroid (B) Papillary carcinoma thyroid (C) Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (D) Follicular carcinoma
Ans: B
97. Structure preserved in radical neck dissection
(A) Vagus nerve (B) Sternocledomastoid (C) Submandbular gland (D) Internal jugular vein
Ans: A
98. In which of the following head and neck, cancer lymphnode metastasis are least common
(A) Tongue (B) Hard palate (C) Buccal mucosa (D) Supra glottis
Ans: B
99. Treatment of choice for T1 Squamous cell carcinoma of glottis
(A) Radiotherapy alone (B) Radiotherapy+Chemotherapy
(C) Vertical partial laryngectomy (D) Crico hyoidoepiglotopexy
Ans: A
100. Malignancy which is prone to have skip metastasis
(A) Tongue (B) Buccal mucosa (C) Hard palate (D) Supraglottis
Ans: A
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