OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY -E.N.T-SURGERY- PAGE 2
OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY - E.N.T-SURGERY MCQs
1. What is a Mozart’s Ear ?
(A) Abnormally protruding ear with a prominent helix large chocha. (B) Deformed ear with prominent antihelix.
(C) When helix and antihelix are fused together. (D) Pinna is displaced from its normal position.
Ans: C
2. A newborn with Microtia with Agenesis of Ext Canal. Corrective surgery is usually Performed.
(A) It should be corrected immediately (B) 5-7 years (C) Puberty (D) Adulthood
Ans: B
3. Select the site of origin of Endolymph.
(A) Secreted by Stria Vasularis (B) Ultrafiltrate of Blood (C) From CSF (D) Endolymphatic sac
Ans: A
4. Positive Fistula test may be seen in all except
(A) Dead ear (B) Chronic Otitis Media with Cholesteatoma (C) congenital syphilis (D) Meniere’s disease
Ans: A
5. Site of Origin of otoacoustic emission.
(A) Cochlear Nerve (B) Inner hair cells of cochlea (C) Outer hair cells of cochlea (D) Auditory cortex
Ans: C
6. Auditory screening is required in which of the following ?
(A) Neonate with Kernicterus (B) Premature babies (C) Post Meningitis (D) All of the above
Ans: D
7. All of the following cause Conductive Loss except
(A) Tympanosclerosis (B) Chronis otitis Media (C) Wax (D) Meniere’s Disease
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is not true about Malignant Otitis Externa ?
(A) Can cause skull base osteomyelitis (B) It is malignancy of External canal
(C) Gallium and Technetium is used to assess prognosis (D) Grannulation tissue found in deep bony canal
Ans: B
9. Which of the following is not true about Eustechian tube ?
(A) 3.6 cm long (B) Lateral 2/3 is cartilaginous (C) opens during swallowing (D) Tensor palati helps to open it
Ans: B
10. A small child with earache following cold and was diagnosed suffering from Acute Otitis Media. Child was put on Amoxycillin. After a sleepless night examination of Ear revealed red bulging drum. The treatment of choice is
(A) Add systemic steroid (B) Change the antibiotic (C) Myringotomy (D) Cortical mastoidectomy
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is not true about ear cholesteatoma ?
(A) scanty foul discharge (B) Otalgia is absent (C) Usually a central perforation (D) Ossicular involvement
Ans: C
(A) Abnormally protruding ear with a prominent helix large chocha. (B) Deformed ear with prominent antihelix.
(C) When helix and antihelix are fused together. (D) Pinna is displaced from its normal position.
Ans: C
2. A newborn with Microtia with Agenesis of Ext Canal. Corrective surgery is usually Performed.
(A) It should be corrected immediately (B) 5-7 years (C) Puberty (D) Adulthood
Ans: B
3. Select the site of origin of Endolymph.
(A) Secreted by Stria Vasularis (B) Ultrafiltrate of Blood (C) From CSF (D) Endolymphatic sac
Ans: A
4. Positive Fistula test may be seen in all except
(A) Dead ear (B) Chronic Otitis Media with Cholesteatoma (C) congenital syphilis (D) Meniere’s disease
Ans: A
5. Site of Origin of otoacoustic emission.
(A) Cochlear Nerve (B) Inner hair cells of cochlea (C) Outer hair cells of cochlea (D) Auditory cortex
Ans: C
6. Auditory screening is required in which of the following ?
(A) Neonate with Kernicterus (B) Premature babies (C) Post Meningitis (D) All of the above
Ans: D
7. All of the following cause Conductive Loss except
(A) Tympanosclerosis (B) Chronis otitis Media (C) Wax (D) Meniere’s Disease
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is not true about Malignant Otitis Externa ?
(A) Can cause skull base osteomyelitis (B) It is malignancy of External canal
(C) Gallium and Technetium is used to assess prognosis (D) Grannulation tissue found in deep bony canal
Ans: B
9. Which of the following is not true about Eustechian tube ?
(A) 3.6 cm long (B) Lateral 2/3 is cartilaginous (C) opens during swallowing (D) Tensor palati helps to open it
Ans: B
10. A small child with earache following cold and was diagnosed suffering from Acute Otitis Media. Child was put on Amoxycillin. After a sleepless night examination of Ear revealed red bulging drum. The treatment of choice is
(A) Add systemic steroid (B) Change the antibiotic (C) Myringotomy (D) Cortical mastoidectomy
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is not true about ear cholesteatoma ?
(A) scanty foul discharge (B) Otalgia is absent (C) Usually a central perforation (D) Ossicular involvement
Ans: C
12. Epley’s maneuver is performed to
(A) To reposition canalolith (B) To reduce labyrinthine fracture
(C) To treat BPPV (D) To correct Perilymph fistula.
Ans: A
13. Meniere’s Disease is characterised by except
(A) Fluctuating hearing loss (B) Vertigo and Tinnitus are common symptoms
(C) Usually unilateral (D) Conductive hearing loss.
Ans: D
14. Which of the following is not true for Glomus Tumour ?
(A) lt is a Paraganglioma arising from Non chromaffin cells (B) Known to metastasise
(C) Pulsatile tinnitus and conductive hearing loss are symptoms (D) Seen only in men
Ans: D
15. Which of these investigations is contraindicated in Glomus Tumour ?
(A) MR angiography (B) Contrast Enhanced CTscan (C) 24 hours VMA estimation (D) Biopsy
Ans: D
16. This is not true for facial nerve
(A) VII th cranial nerve (B) Mixed nerve predominantly motor
(C) Nerve of the second branchial arch (D) Supplies Levator palpebrae superiorris
Ans: D
17. Schirmer’s test is done to assess
(A) Amount of salivation (B) Hearing acuity (C) Nystagmus (D) Assess lacrimation.
Ans: D
18. What is the best management option for a 5 years old child with recurrent nasal catarrah with nasal obstruction mouth breathing and hearing loss (conductive)
(A) Tonsillectomy (B) Grommet insertion
(C) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion (D) Antibiotics with steroids.
Ans: C
19. Extra cranial complications of CSOM are
(A) Petrositis (B) Facial nerve palsy (C) Bezold’s abscess (D) All of the above
Ans: D
20. Which of this is not part of Radical Mastoidectomy ?
(A) Removal of middle ear mucousa TM remnants (B) removal of ossicles (C) Cochlea Removed (D) Closure of Eustachian tube
Ans: C
21. What Focal length objective lens of Microscope is commonly used for ear surgery ?
(A) 400 mm (B) 600 mm (C) 200 mm (D) 300 mm
Ans: C
22. Which of the following is a treatment of choice for Glue Ear
(A) Myringotomy (B) Autoinflation (C) Myringotomy with grommet insertion (D) Antibiotics with Antihistaminics.
Ans: C
23. What is a Battle sign ?
(A) It is seen in CSOM (B) seen in Mastoid trauma with fracture of Temporal bones
(C) fracture of Nasal bones (D) A complication of FESS
Ans: B
24. Cauliflower ear is seen in
(A) Hypertrophic scar (B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Chronic Perichondritis in Boxers (D) Basal cell carcinoma
Ans: C
25. In Carhart’s notch dip is seen at
(A) 2000 Hz in both air and bone conduction (B) 1000 Hz in air conduction
(C) 2000 Hz in Bone conduction curve (D) 2000 Hz in air conduction curve
Ans: C
26. Commonest site of Otosclerosis is
(A) Round window (B) Oval window (C) Incudostapedial joint (D) Labyrinth
Ans: B
27. Which of these are not Ototoxic drugs ?
(A) Loop Diuretics (B) Antimalarials (Quinine) (C) Salicylates (D) Macrolides
Ans: D
28. What do you mean by BPPV ?
(A) Blood pressure positive volume (B) Benign Paroxysmal Positional vertigo
(C) Basal posture Positive volume (D) Blood picture Prime variant
Ans: B
29. Following are etiological factors for chronic Rhinosinusitis
(A) Septal spur (B) Concha bullosa (C) Pneumatised Uncinate process (D) All of the above
Ans: D
30. What is the significance of Fossa of Rosenmuller ?
(A) It is the commonest site for carcinoma of Nasopharynx (B) Carcinoma can spread from here through Foramen lacerum into cranium
(C) One of the sites to take biopsy in case of Occult Primary (D) All of the above
Ans: D
31. Which of the following open into Middle meatus ?
(A) Nasolacrimal duct (B) Sphenoid sinus (C) Posterior Ethmoidal cells (D) Frontal cells
Ans: D
32. Which of the following is not true for Maxillary sinus ?
(A) It is also known as Antrum of Rughmore (B) It has an average capacity of 15 ml
(C) Posterior most opening in the middle meatus is maxillary ostium (D) It has an ostium near its floor
Ans: A
33. Which of these is the commonest site for Oroantral fistula ?
(A) Between 7 and 8 upper teeth (B) First molar teeth in upper jaw
(C) Last molar of the lower jaw (D) Canine fossa
Ans: B
34. The bony facial canal is known as
(A) Moebius canal (B) Fallopian canal (C) Eustachian canal (D) Canal of Santorini.
Ans: B
35. Pes Anserinus is seen
(A) Over the promontory (B) In parotid gland due branching pattern of Facial nerve
(C) At Stylomastoid foramina (D) At cerebellopontine angle.
Ans: B
36. Facial Nerve is supplied by
(A) Grater palatine artery (B) Sphenopalatine artery
(C) Ascending pharynageal artery (D) Stylomastoid branch of posterior auricular artery
Ans: D
37. In cochlear implants electrodes are placed in
(A) Promontry (B) Oval window (C) Round window (D) Cochlea
Ans: D
38. Bilateral choanal Atresia presents
(A) At birth with respiratory distress with cyanosis (B) At age of Two years
(C) At puberty (D) With difficulty in feeding and nasal discharge
Ans: A
39. What are the contraindications for adenoidectomy ?
(A) Puberty (B) Submucous cleft palate (C) Haemophilia (D) Mouth breathing
Ans: B
40. Characteristic of Kartagener syndrome
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Ultrastructurai abnormality of cilia (C) Absence of cilia (D) Abnormal mucous production
Ans: B
41. A 2 years old child is brought with Compressible swelling at the root of the nose, most likely diagnosis is
(A) Frontal mucocele (B) Lacrimal sac cyst (C) Nasal glioma (D) Meningo-encephalocele
Ans: D
42. Part of Upper lip and inferior part of Nose are Dangerous area of face because
(A) Veins from this area drain into cavernous sinus eventually (B) These veins are valveless
(C) Contraction of muscles and sparse deep fascia in this area may displace clots retrograde (D) All of the above are true
Ans: D
43. Which of these x ray will show a good view of Maxillary sinus and the sphenoid ?
(A) X ray PNS (water’s view with mouth open) (B) X ray Caldwell view
(C) X ray lateral view (D) Submento vertical view
Ans: A
44. A 42 years old Diabetic female presents with facial pain, fever, and left nasal obstruction and discharge. She had similar complaints 2 months ago which responded to antibiotics. Nasal endoscopy revealed mucopurulant discharge in middle meatus. Investigation of choice is (A) X ray PNS (B) MRI face (C) CT scan of PNS (D) Antral puncture
Ans: C
45. Fungal sinusitis is diagnosed radiologically when you see
(A) Ground glass appearance (B) Soap bubble appearance (C) Double density sign (D) Tear drop sign
Ans: C
46. A young biker sustained a fracture of condyle of the mandible in an RTA best radiological investigation is
(A) Occipitomental view (B) Occipitofrontal view (C) submentovertical view (D) OPG
Ans: D
47. Parosmia is
(A) decreased sense of smell (B) Absolute loss of smell (C) Perception of bad smell (D) Perversion of smell
Ans: D
48. What is Torsade de Pointes ?
(A) Sedation induced by antihistamines (B) Dryness of mouth seen due to antihistamines
(C) Ventricular tachycardia with prolongation of QT interval (D) Rebound phenomenon
Ans: C
49. Following are preferred approaches to do Maxillary sinoscopy.
(A) Canine fossa (B) Inferior Meatal approach (C) Tranorbital approach (D) trans palatal approach
Ans: B
50. This is the commonest malignancy of Maxillary sinus
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Transitional cell carcinoma (D) Adenocystic carcinoma
Ans: A
(A) To reposition canalolith (B) To reduce labyrinthine fracture
(C) To treat BPPV (D) To correct Perilymph fistula.
Ans: A
13. Meniere’s Disease is characterised by except
(A) Fluctuating hearing loss (B) Vertigo and Tinnitus are common symptoms
(C) Usually unilateral (D) Conductive hearing loss.
Ans: D
14. Which of the following is not true for Glomus Tumour ?
(A) lt is a Paraganglioma arising from Non chromaffin cells (B) Known to metastasise
(C) Pulsatile tinnitus and conductive hearing loss are symptoms (D) Seen only in men
Ans: D
15. Which of these investigations is contraindicated in Glomus Tumour ?
(A) MR angiography (B) Contrast Enhanced CTscan (C) 24 hours VMA estimation (D) Biopsy
Ans: D
16. This is not true for facial nerve
(A) VII th cranial nerve (B) Mixed nerve predominantly motor
(C) Nerve of the second branchial arch (D) Supplies Levator palpebrae superiorris
Ans: D
17. Schirmer’s test is done to assess
(A) Amount of salivation (B) Hearing acuity (C) Nystagmus (D) Assess lacrimation.
Ans: D
18. What is the best management option for a 5 years old child with recurrent nasal catarrah with nasal obstruction mouth breathing and hearing loss (conductive)
(A) Tonsillectomy (B) Grommet insertion
(C) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion (D) Antibiotics with steroids.
Ans: C
19. Extra cranial complications of CSOM are
(A) Petrositis (B) Facial nerve palsy (C) Bezold’s abscess (D) All of the above
Ans: D
20. Which of this is not part of Radical Mastoidectomy ?
(A) Removal of middle ear mucousa TM remnants (B) removal of ossicles (C) Cochlea Removed (D) Closure of Eustachian tube
Ans: C
21. What Focal length objective lens of Microscope is commonly used for ear surgery ?
(A) 400 mm (B) 600 mm (C) 200 mm (D) 300 mm
Ans: C
22. Which of the following is a treatment of choice for Glue Ear
(A) Myringotomy (B) Autoinflation (C) Myringotomy with grommet insertion (D) Antibiotics with Antihistaminics.
Ans: C
23. What is a Battle sign ?
(A) It is seen in CSOM (B) seen in Mastoid trauma with fracture of Temporal bones
(C) fracture of Nasal bones (D) A complication of FESS
Ans: B
24. Cauliflower ear is seen in
(A) Hypertrophic scar (B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Chronic Perichondritis in Boxers (D) Basal cell carcinoma
Ans: C
25. In Carhart’s notch dip is seen at
(A) 2000 Hz in both air and bone conduction (B) 1000 Hz in air conduction
(C) 2000 Hz in Bone conduction curve (D) 2000 Hz in air conduction curve
Ans: C
26. Commonest site of Otosclerosis is
(A) Round window (B) Oval window (C) Incudostapedial joint (D) Labyrinth
Ans: B
27. Which of these are not Ototoxic drugs ?
(A) Loop Diuretics (B) Antimalarials (Quinine) (C) Salicylates (D) Macrolides
Ans: D
28. What do you mean by BPPV ?
(A) Blood pressure positive volume (B) Benign Paroxysmal Positional vertigo
(C) Basal posture Positive volume (D) Blood picture Prime variant
Ans: B
29. Following are etiological factors for chronic Rhinosinusitis
(A) Septal spur (B) Concha bullosa (C) Pneumatised Uncinate process (D) All of the above
Ans: D
30. What is the significance of Fossa of Rosenmuller ?
(A) It is the commonest site for carcinoma of Nasopharynx (B) Carcinoma can spread from here through Foramen lacerum into cranium
(C) One of the sites to take biopsy in case of Occult Primary (D) All of the above
Ans: D
31. Which of the following open into Middle meatus ?
(A) Nasolacrimal duct (B) Sphenoid sinus (C) Posterior Ethmoidal cells (D) Frontal cells
Ans: D
32. Which of the following is not true for Maxillary sinus ?
(A) It is also known as Antrum of Rughmore (B) It has an average capacity of 15 ml
(C) Posterior most opening in the middle meatus is maxillary ostium (D) It has an ostium near its floor
Ans: A
33. Which of these is the commonest site for Oroantral fistula ?
(A) Between 7 and 8 upper teeth (B) First molar teeth in upper jaw
(C) Last molar of the lower jaw (D) Canine fossa
Ans: B
34. The bony facial canal is known as
(A) Moebius canal (B) Fallopian canal (C) Eustachian canal (D) Canal of Santorini.
Ans: B
35. Pes Anserinus is seen
(A) Over the promontory (B) In parotid gland due branching pattern of Facial nerve
(C) At Stylomastoid foramina (D) At cerebellopontine angle.
Ans: B
36. Facial Nerve is supplied by
(A) Grater palatine artery (B) Sphenopalatine artery
(C) Ascending pharynageal artery (D) Stylomastoid branch of posterior auricular artery
Ans: D
37. In cochlear implants electrodes are placed in
(A) Promontry (B) Oval window (C) Round window (D) Cochlea
Ans: D
38. Bilateral choanal Atresia presents
(A) At birth with respiratory distress with cyanosis (B) At age of Two years
(C) At puberty (D) With difficulty in feeding and nasal discharge
Ans: A
39. What are the contraindications for adenoidectomy ?
(A) Puberty (B) Submucous cleft palate (C) Haemophilia (D) Mouth breathing
Ans: B
40. Characteristic of Kartagener syndrome
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Ultrastructurai abnormality of cilia (C) Absence of cilia (D) Abnormal mucous production
Ans: B
41. A 2 years old child is brought with Compressible swelling at the root of the nose, most likely diagnosis is
(A) Frontal mucocele (B) Lacrimal sac cyst (C) Nasal glioma (D) Meningo-encephalocele
Ans: D
42. Part of Upper lip and inferior part of Nose are Dangerous area of face because
(A) Veins from this area drain into cavernous sinus eventually (B) These veins are valveless
(C) Contraction of muscles and sparse deep fascia in this area may displace clots retrograde (D) All of the above are true
Ans: D
43. Which of these x ray will show a good view of Maxillary sinus and the sphenoid ?
(A) X ray PNS (water’s view with mouth open) (B) X ray Caldwell view
(C) X ray lateral view (D) Submento vertical view
Ans: A
44. A 42 years old Diabetic female presents with facial pain, fever, and left nasal obstruction and discharge. She had similar complaints 2 months ago which responded to antibiotics. Nasal endoscopy revealed mucopurulant discharge in middle meatus. Investigation of choice is (A) X ray PNS (B) MRI face (C) CT scan of PNS (D) Antral puncture
Ans: C
45. Fungal sinusitis is diagnosed radiologically when you see
(A) Ground glass appearance (B) Soap bubble appearance (C) Double density sign (D) Tear drop sign
Ans: C
46. A young biker sustained a fracture of condyle of the mandible in an RTA best radiological investigation is
(A) Occipitomental view (B) Occipitofrontal view (C) submentovertical view (D) OPG
Ans: D
47. Parosmia is
(A) decreased sense of smell (B) Absolute loss of smell (C) Perception of bad smell (D) Perversion of smell
Ans: D
48. What is Torsade de Pointes ?
(A) Sedation induced by antihistamines (B) Dryness of mouth seen due to antihistamines
(C) Ventricular tachycardia with prolongation of QT interval (D) Rebound phenomenon
Ans: C
49. Following are preferred approaches to do Maxillary sinoscopy.
(A) Canine fossa (B) Inferior Meatal approach (C) Tranorbital approach (D) trans palatal approach
Ans: B
50. This is the commonest malignancy of Maxillary sinus
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Transitional cell carcinoma (D) Adenocystic carcinoma
Ans: A
51. Inverted Papilloma is also known as
(A) Transitional cell papilloma (B) Ringertz cell tumour (C) Schneiderian papilloma (D) All of the above
Ans: D
52. Haller cells are situated
(A) Near floor of the orbit (B) At the orbital apex (C) Near Frontonasal duct (D) Anterior most ethmoid cells
Ans: A
53. Following are the types of Pneumatization seen in Sphenoid
(A) Conchal (B) Presellar (C) Sellar (D) all of the above
Ans: D
54. Which is the most favourable type of Sphenoid for an endoscopic Pituitary surgeon ?
(A) Sellar (B) conchal (C) Sclerosed (D) Presellar
Ans: D
55. Main cause of Nasal obstruction in Atrophic Rhinitis is
(A) Crusting (B) DNS (C) Secretions (D) Loss of sensations
Ans: D
56. On microscopy you see Russel bodies and Mikulicz cells
(A) Rhinophyma (B) Rhinomyiasis (C) Rhinoscleroma (D) Rhinitis sicca
Ans: C
57. A young boy of 14 presenting with nasal obstruction 2 months, epistaxis repeated how do you proceed ?
(A) Nasal Endoscopy (B) CT scan with contrast
(C) Nasopharyngeal and oropharyngeal palpation (D) All of the above
Ans: D
58. On nasal endoscopy of an adult who presented with epistaxis you see Mulberry red grannular mass attached to inferior turbinate what is your probable diagnosis ?
(A) Rhinosporidiosis (B) Angiofibroma (C) Bleeding polypus of Septum (D) Rhinolith
Ans: A
59. What are the major side effects of Amphotericin B ?
(A) Deafness (B) Nephrotoxic (C) Vertigo (D) Rigours
Ans: B
60. Pott’s puffy tumour is due to
(A) Maxillary sinusitis (B) Ethmoid sinusitis
(C) Osteomyelitis of Frontal bone due to Empyema (D) A complication of FESS
Ans: C
61. This drug acts as Mast cell stabilizer
(A) Terfenadine (B) Azelastine (C) Disodium choromoglycate (D) Fexofenadine
Ans: C
62. Second generation newer Antihistamines in Allergic Rhinitis
(A) Pheniramine Maleate (B) Fexofenadine (C) Chlorpheniramine maleate (D) Diphenhydramine
Ans: B
63. Atrophic Rhinitis is characterised by following except
(A) Ozoena (B) Blissful anosmia (C) Extensive crusting (D) sneezing episodes
Ans: D
64. Myiasis is caused by
(A) Genus Chrysomia (B) GenusTsetse (C) Rat flea (D) Aedes
Ans: A
65. Following are surgeries done in case of Atrophic Rhinitis
(A) Young’s Operation (B) Modified Young’s operation (C) Lautenslager operation (D) All of the above
Ans: D
66. Kero’s classification is applied to assess
(A) Sphenoid size (B) Depth of olfactory pit (C) Length of Frontonasal duct (D) None of the above
Ans: B
67. Microdebrider helps in nasal surgery by its function of
(A) Bipolar coagulation and suction (B) Surgical excision in small bits with suction Irrigation
(C) Harmonic scalpel (D) Coblation
Ans: B
68. Mucormycosis what is not true about
(A) Angioinvasion (B) Easily Curable (C) Immunocompromise (D) May lead to blindness
Ans: B
69. Sialendoscopy is done in cases of
(A) Frontal sinusitis (B) Orbital fat prolapsed (C) Rhinolith (D) Salivary calculus
Ans: D
70. Cottle’s test is positive in
(A) Valve area obstruction (B) Nasal polyposis (C) Sinusitis (D) Rhinolith
Ans: A
71. Saddle nose deformity is seen all except
(A) Syphilis (B) Leprosy (C) Post SMR (D) Rhinoscleroma
Ans: D
72. Septal perforation is seen in all except one
(A) Wegener’s granulomatosis (B) Henson’s disease (C) Nickel Chromium workers (D) Wood workers
Ans: D
73. All of the following can cause headache in DNS except
(A) Secondary sinusitis (B) Sluder’s neuralgia (C) Contact areas (D) Adenoid Enlargement
Ans: D
74. Commonest site for CSF leak is
(A) Lateral lamina of Sphenoid (B) Lateral lamella of Cribriform plate (C) Sella Tursica (D) Orbital apex
Ans: B
75. This is the test to confirm site of leak in case of CSF rhinorrhea
(A) High resolution CT scan (B) MRI (C) Nasal endoscopy (D) X ray PNS
Ans: A
76. Halo sign is seen on
(A) CT evaluation for CSF leak (B) Handkerchief test (C) MRI (D) OPG
Ans: B
77. CSF rhinorrhoea is best diagnosed by
(A) Sugar estimation in nasal discharge (B) Thyroglobulin (C) Beta 2 transferrin (D) None of the above
Ans: C
78. Angiofibroma usually originates from
(A) Nasal septum (B) Inferior turbinate
(C) near posterior attachment of middle turbinate at sphenopalatine foramen (D) Sphenoid ostia
Ans: C
79. Holman Miller sign is
(A) Widening of Anterior nares (B) Anterior bowing of Posterior wall of Maxilla due to tumour in PP fossa
(C) septal perforation (D) It is seen on Digital subtraction angiography
Ans: B
80. Which of the following is not true for JNA ?
(A) Surgery is the treatment of choice (B) Seen in middle aged females
(C) Holman miller’s sign is positive (D) CT scan with contrast is diagnostic.
Ans: B
81. Which of the following is not true for Ca Nasophx ?
(A) Predisposing cause is EBV (B) Commonest site is Fossa of Rosenmuller
(C) Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice (D) Commonest type is Adenocarcinoma
Ans: D
82. Which is the approach of choice for Hypophysis ?
(A) Trancranial (B) Transmaxillary (C) Transsphenoidal endoscopic (D) Transseptal sublabial
Ans: C
83. Rethi Goodman’s incision is used for
(A) External septorhinoplasty (B) Lateral Rhinotomy (C) Caldwel luc operation (D) Septoplasty
Ans: A
84. Parotid duct is known as
(A) Wharton’s duct (B) Stenson’s duct (C) Naso lacrimal duct (D) Silvian Duct
Ans: B
85. Commonest cause of Epistaxis is bleeding from
(A) Little’s area (B) Woodruffs plexus (C) Browne’s area (D) Broca’s area
Ans: A
86. BIPP pack contains
(A) Barium indigo paraffin paste (B) Bismuth Iodoform paraffin paste (C) Bismuth Iodine petroleum jelly (D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. Pig snout deformity is seen in
(A) Class one fracture of Nasal bones (B) Class 3 of Nasal bone fractures
(C) Jarjavay fractures (D) None of the above
Ans: B
88. Tear drop sign is
(A) Herniation of orbital contents into maxilla (B) It is seen in orbital blow out fracture
(C) It is seen in frontal impact over face (D) All of the above is true
Ans: D
89. Fractures of Zygoma are sometimes called Tripod Fractures Clinical features include all except
(A) Diplopia (B) Orbital ecchymosis (C) Trismus (D) CSF rhinorrhoea
Ans: D
90. DISE done to evaluate Obstructive sleep apnoea is
(A) Distress index sleep evaluation (B) Drug induced sleep Endoscopy (C) Dyspnoea index sleep evaluation (D) None of the above
Ans: B
91. OSAS can lead to
(A) Right side heart failure (B) Day time sleepiness (C) Associated with hypertension (D) All of the above
Ans: D
92. Which of these are not true for Antro choanal polyp ?
(A) Presents anteriorly and is bilateral in origin (B) Is caused by sepsis (C) Seen in young boys (D) Arising from Maxillary antrum
Ans: A
93. Sampter’s triad includes except
(A) Nasal polyps (B) Aspirin hyper sensitivity (C) Bronchial Asthma (D) Bronchiectasis
Ans: D
94. What is the treatment of choice in adult antrochoanal polyp ?
(A) Antibiotics (B) Caldwel Luc Operation (C) Simple polypectomy (D) FESS
Ans: D
95. What is the importance of Inverted Papilloma ?
(A) It is a premalignant condition (B) It is Locally aggressive (C) Malignant transformation is known (D) All of the above
Ans: D
96. What is Wood worker’s carcinoma ?
(A) Squamous Cell Ca (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Transitional cell carcinoma (D) Inverted Papilloma
Ans: B
97. What is Ohngren’s line ?
(A) Imaginary line passing from Umbo (B) Imaginary line joining Medial canthus to angle of Mandible
(C) Imaginary line from lateral canthus to angle of mandible (D) None of the above
Ans: B
98. Inverted Papilloma : Following is not true
(A) Usually bilateral (B) Arises from lateral wall (C) Benign tumour (D) Recurrence is known.
Ans: A
99. Following are early symptoms of Maxillary carcinoma except
(A) Bleeding from nose (B) Loose tooth (C) Cheek numbness (D) Supraclavicular Lymph node
Ans: D
100. What is Grisel’s Syndrome ?
(A) Fracture cervical spine (B) Atlantoaxial subluxation due to exposure of anterior ligament of spine
(C) Trismus (D) Cranial nerve palsy
Ans: B
(A) Transitional cell papilloma (B) Ringertz cell tumour (C) Schneiderian papilloma (D) All of the above
Ans: D
52. Haller cells are situated
(A) Near floor of the orbit (B) At the orbital apex (C) Near Frontonasal duct (D) Anterior most ethmoid cells
Ans: A
53. Following are the types of Pneumatization seen in Sphenoid
(A) Conchal (B) Presellar (C) Sellar (D) all of the above
Ans: D
54. Which is the most favourable type of Sphenoid for an endoscopic Pituitary surgeon ?
(A) Sellar (B) conchal (C) Sclerosed (D) Presellar
Ans: D
55. Main cause of Nasal obstruction in Atrophic Rhinitis is
(A) Crusting (B) DNS (C) Secretions (D) Loss of sensations
Ans: D
56. On microscopy you see Russel bodies and Mikulicz cells
(A) Rhinophyma (B) Rhinomyiasis (C) Rhinoscleroma (D) Rhinitis sicca
Ans: C
57. A young boy of 14 presenting with nasal obstruction 2 months, epistaxis repeated how do you proceed ?
(A) Nasal Endoscopy (B) CT scan with contrast
(C) Nasopharyngeal and oropharyngeal palpation (D) All of the above
Ans: D
58. On nasal endoscopy of an adult who presented with epistaxis you see Mulberry red grannular mass attached to inferior turbinate what is your probable diagnosis ?
(A) Rhinosporidiosis (B) Angiofibroma (C) Bleeding polypus of Septum (D) Rhinolith
Ans: A
59. What are the major side effects of Amphotericin B ?
(A) Deafness (B) Nephrotoxic (C) Vertigo (D) Rigours
Ans: B
60. Pott’s puffy tumour is due to
(A) Maxillary sinusitis (B) Ethmoid sinusitis
(C) Osteomyelitis of Frontal bone due to Empyema (D) A complication of FESS
Ans: C
61. This drug acts as Mast cell stabilizer
(A) Terfenadine (B) Azelastine (C) Disodium choromoglycate (D) Fexofenadine
Ans: C
62. Second generation newer Antihistamines in Allergic Rhinitis
(A) Pheniramine Maleate (B) Fexofenadine (C) Chlorpheniramine maleate (D) Diphenhydramine
Ans: B
63. Atrophic Rhinitis is characterised by following except
(A) Ozoena (B) Blissful anosmia (C) Extensive crusting (D) sneezing episodes
Ans: D
64. Myiasis is caused by
(A) Genus Chrysomia (B) GenusTsetse (C) Rat flea (D) Aedes
Ans: A
65. Following are surgeries done in case of Atrophic Rhinitis
(A) Young’s Operation (B) Modified Young’s operation (C) Lautenslager operation (D) All of the above
Ans: D
66. Kero’s classification is applied to assess
(A) Sphenoid size (B) Depth of olfactory pit (C) Length of Frontonasal duct (D) None of the above
Ans: B
67. Microdebrider helps in nasal surgery by its function of
(A) Bipolar coagulation and suction (B) Surgical excision in small bits with suction Irrigation
(C) Harmonic scalpel (D) Coblation
Ans: B
68. Mucormycosis what is not true about
(A) Angioinvasion (B) Easily Curable (C) Immunocompromise (D) May lead to blindness
Ans: B
69. Sialendoscopy is done in cases of
(A) Frontal sinusitis (B) Orbital fat prolapsed (C) Rhinolith (D) Salivary calculus
Ans: D
70. Cottle’s test is positive in
(A) Valve area obstruction (B) Nasal polyposis (C) Sinusitis (D) Rhinolith
Ans: A
71. Saddle nose deformity is seen all except
(A) Syphilis (B) Leprosy (C) Post SMR (D) Rhinoscleroma
Ans: D
72. Septal perforation is seen in all except one
(A) Wegener’s granulomatosis (B) Henson’s disease (C) Nickel Chromium workers (D) Wood workers
Ans: D
73. All of the following can cause headache in DNS except
(A) Secondary sinusitis (B) Sluder’s neuralgia (C) Contact areas (D) Adenoid Enlargement
Ans: D
74. Commonest site for CSF leak is
(A) Lateral lamina of Sphenoid (B) Lateral lamella of Cribriform plate (C) Sella Tursica (D) Orbital apex
Ans: B
75. This is the test to confirm site of leak in case of CSF rhinorrhea
(A) High resolution CT scan (B) MRI (C) Nasal endoscopy (D) X ray PNS
Ans: A
76. Halo sign is seen on
(A) CT evaluation for CSF leak (B) Handkerchief test (C) MRI (D) OPG
Ans: B
77. CSF rhinorrhoea is best diagnosed by
(A) Sugar estimation in nasal discharge (B) Thyroglobulin (C) Beta 2 transferrin (D) None of the above
Ans: C
78. Angiofibroma usually originates from
(A) Nasal septum (B) Inferior turbinate
(C) near posterior attachment of middle turbinate at sphenopalatine foramen (D) Sphenoid ostia
Ans: C
79. Holman Miller sign is
(A) Widening of Anterior nares (B) Anterior bowing of Posterior wall of Maxilla due to tumour in PP fossa
(C) septal perforation (D) It is seen on Digital subtraction angiography
Ans: B
80. Which of the following is not true for JNA ?
(A) Surgery is the treatment of choice (B) Seen in middle aged females
(C) Holman miller’s sign is positive (D) CT scan with contrast is diagnostic.
Ans: B
81. Which of the following is not true for Ca Nasophx ?
(A) Predisposing cause is EBV (B) Commonest site is Fossa of Rosenmuller
(C) Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice (D) Commonest type is Adenocarcinoma
Ans: D
82. Which is the approach of choice for Hypophysis ?
(A) Trancranial (B) Transmaxillary (C) Transsphenoidal endoscopic (D) Transseptal sublabial
Ans: C
83. Rethi Goodman’s incision is used for
(A) External septorhinoplasty (B) Lateral Rhinotomy (C) Caldwel luc operation (D) Septoplasty
Ans: A
84. Parotid duct is known as
(A) Wharton’s duct (B) Stenson’s duct (C) Naso lacrimal duct (D) Silvian Duct
Ans: B
85. Commonest cause of Epistaxis is bleeding from
(A) Little’s area (B) Woodruffs plexus (C) Browne’s area (D) Broca’s area
Ans: A
86. BIPP pack contains
(A) Barium indigo paraffin paste (B) Bismuth Iodoform paraffin paste (C) Bismuth Iodine petroleum jelly (D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. Pig snout deformity is seen in
(A) Class one fracture of Nasal bones (B) Class 3 of Nasal bone fractures
(C) Jarjavay fractures (D) None of the above
Ans: B
88. Tear drop sign is
(A) Herniation of orbital contents into maxilla (B) It is seen in orbital blow out fracture
(C) It is seen in frontal impact over face (D) All of the above is true
Ans: D
89. Fractures of Zygoma are sometimes called Tripod Fractures Clinical features include all except
(A) Diplopia (B) Orbital ecchymosis (C) Trismus (D) CSF rhinorrhoea
Ans: D
90. DISE done to evaluate Obstructive sleep apnoea is
(A) Distress index sleep evaluation (B) Drug induced sleep Endoscopy (C) Dyspnoea index sleep evaluation (D) None of the above
Ans: B
91. OSAS can lead to
(A) Right side heart failure (B) Day time sleepiness (C) Associated with hypertension (D) All of the above
Ans: D
92. Which of these are not true for Antro choanal polyp ?
(A) Presents anteriorly and is bilateral in origin (B) Is caused by sepsis (C) Seen in young boys (D) Arising from Maxillary antrum
Ans: A
93. Sampter’s triad includes except
(A) Nasal polyps (B) Aspirin hyper sensitivity (C) Bronchial Asthma (D) Bronchiectasis
Ans: D
94. What is the treatment of choice in adult antrochoanal polyp ?
(A) Antibiotics (B) Caldwel Luc Operation (C) Simple polypectomy (D) FESS
Ans: D
95. What is the importance of Inverted Papilloma ?
(A) It is a premalignant condition (B) It is Locally aggressive (C) Malignant transformation is known (D) All of the above
Ans: D
96. What is Wood worker’s carcinoma ?
(A) Squamous Cell Ca (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Transitional cell carcinoma (D) Inverted Papilloma
Ans: B
97. What is Ohngren’s line ?
(A) Imaginary line passing from Umbo (B) Imaginary line joining Medial canthus to angle of Mandible
(C) Imaginary line from lateral canthus to angle of mandible (D) None of the above
Ans: B
98. Inverted Papilloma : Following is not true
(A) Usually bilateral (B) Arises from lateral wall (C) Benign tumour (D) Recurrence is known.
Ans: A
99. Following are early symptoms of Maxillary carcinoma except
(A) Bleeding from nose (B) Loose tooth (C) Cheek numbness (D) Supraclavicular Lymph node
Ans: D
100. What is Grisel’s Syndrome ?
(A) Fracture cervical spine (B) Atlantoaxial subluxation due to exposure of anterior ligament of spine
(C) Trismus (D) Cranial nerve palsy
Ans: B
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