ORTHOPAEDICS- PAGE 2
ORTHOPAEDICS MCQs
1:-A person with posterior interosseous nerve palsy
A) Will be able to actively dorsiflex his wrist in neutral position
B) On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into radial deviation
C) On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into ulnar deviation
D) Can willingly dorsiflex the wrist in radial or ulnar deviation
Ans: B
2:-Using Hertel's criteria the humeral head has a bad prognosis when the
A) fracture is not involving the anatomical neck
B) metaphyseal spike is 9 mm
C) medial hinge is displaced 3 mm
D) all of the above
Ans: C
3:-Vickers ligament is seen in almost all operated cases of
A) Radial club hand
B) Keinbock's disease
C) Ulnar club hand
D) Madelung deformity
Ans: D
4:-The muscle that is acting when there is a positive Froment's sign is
A) Adductor pollicis
B) First dorsal interosseous
C) First palmar interosseous
D) Flexor pollicis longus
Ans: D
5:-Bubbles and strips appearance in the X-ray is seen in
A) simple bone cyst
B) monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C) aneurysmal bone cyst
D) rickets
Ans: B
6:-Except for the pattern of inheritance homocystinuria closely mimics
A) Alkaptonuria
B) Larsen's syndrome
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Goldenhar's syndrome
Ans: C
7:-Ludloff sign is positive in avulsion of
A) greater trochanter
B) anterior inferior iliac spine
C) anterior superior iliac spine
D) lesser trochanter
Ans: D
8:-The length of the arm segment during a clinical examination is measured from
A) tip of acromion to lateral epicondyle
B) lateral border of acromion to lateral epicondyle
C) angle of acromion to lateral epicondyle
D) anterior border of acromion to lateral epicondyle
Ans: C
9:-Radiocarpal subluxation is a salient feature of which of these fractures ?
A) Smith fracture
B) Barton's fracture
C) Chauffer fracture
D) Colles fracture
Ans: B
10:-Which of the following joints are together called Chopart's joint ?
A) talocalcaneal and calcaneocuboid
B) talonavicular and talocalcaneal
C) talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
D) talonavicular and tibiotalar
Ans: C
11:-Muscle of the posterior compartment of leg most prone for Volkmans ischaemic contracture is
A) flexor hallucis longus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) soleus
Ans: A
12:-In a long standing case of compound palmar ganglion one can get all the following except
A) ulnar nerve symptoms
B) loss of flexion of interphalangeal joints of fingers
C) carpal tunnel syndrome
D) melon seed bodies
Ans: A
13:-While fixing a subtrochanteric fracture with a DCS the entry point of the guide wire for the DCS screw should be
A) At the midpoint of the anteroposterior thickness of the greater trochanter
B) At the junction of the anterior one third and posterior two thirds of the greater trochanter
C) At the junction of the anterior one fourth and posterior three fourths of the greater trochanter
D) Junction of the anterior two third and posterior one third of the greater trochanter
Ans: B
14:-Subchondral compression of the bone at the angle between the tibial plafond and the base of the medial malleolus is seen in medial malleolar fractures involved in
A) abduction injury
B) pronation external rotation injury
C) adduction injury
D) supination external rotation injury
Ans: C
15:-Cole's method is used to fix
A) tendon to tendon
B) tendon to bone
C) tendon to muscle
D) tendon to fascia
Ans: B
16:-While exposing the proximal fourth of radius through the Henry's approach the supinator can be safely
A) incised medially and retracted laterallyB) incised laterally and retracted medially
C) incised in the middle and retracted to either side
D) pushed up superiorly from its inferior border
Ans: A
17:-Functional position of the wrist is
A) ten degree palmar flexion
B) twenty degree palmar flexion
C) neutral position
D) twenty degree dorsiflexion
Ans: D
18:-To expose the radial nerve in a posterior approach to the humerus one has to dissect
A) through the lateral head of triceps
B) between the lateral and medial head of triceps
C) through the medial head of triceps
D) between the long and lateral head of triceps
Ans: D
19:-Pulvertaft technique is used for suturing a tendon of
A) Small diameter to one of large diameter
B) Large diameter to one of large diameter
C) Small diameter to one of small diameter
D) None of the above
Ans: A
20:-In Axer osteotomy to get containment of the anterolateral segment we should do
A) an inter trochanteric osteotomy with adduction and internal rotation of the distal fragment
B) a sub trochanteric osteotomy with abduction and internal rotation of the distal fragment
C) an intertrochanteric osteotomty with abduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
D) a subtrochanteric osteotomy with adduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
Ans: D
21:-Milch type 1 fracture is Salter Harris
A) type 2
B) type 1
C) type 4
D) type 3
Ans: C
22:-Regarding excision of carpal bones
i. lunate may be excised by itself.
ii. when triquetrum is excised both lunate and scaphoid are also excised.
iii. when scaphoid is excised both triquetrum and lunate are also excised.
iv. excising pisiform is unnecessary.
A) statements ii and iii alone are correct
B) statements i and iv alone are correct
C) statements i and iii alone are correct
D) all the statements are correct
Ans: D
23:-In Enneking's staging, Stage 2B is
A) high grade extracompartmental
B) low grade extracompartmental
C) low grade intracompartmental
D) high grade intracompartmental
Ans: A
24:-If the MESS ischaemia score is doubled, then the time of ischaemia is more than
A) 2 hoursB) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
Ans: C
25:-Multiple enchondromatosis when associated with haemangiomas of the overlying soft tissues is called
A) Albright syndrome
B) Maffucci's syndrome
C) Edward syndrome
D) Crouzon's disease
Ans: B
26:-Heuter schede approach is used for draining the
A) hip joint
B) elbow joint
C) shoulder joint
D) ankle joint
Ans: A
27:-Fallen fragment sign is pathognomonic of
A) aneurysmal bone cyst
B) flbrous dysplasia
C) unicameral bone cyst
D) enchondroma
Ans: C
28:-Clutton's joint is classically,
A) symptomatic unilateral arthritis
B) asymptomatic symmetrical arthritis
C) asymptomatic symmetrical synovitis
D) asymptomatic unilateral synovitis
Ans: C
29:-Which of the following is intertrochanteric medial displacement osteotomy ?
A) Schanz Osteotomy
B) Mc Murray's Osteotomy
C) Sugioka Osteotomy
D) Chiari Osteotomy
Ans: B
30:-Squaring of the patella and widening of the intercondylar notch are classically seen in
A) Psoriatic arthritis
B) Gouty arthritis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Haemophilic arthritis
Ans: D
31:-Cozen's test is positive in
A) Golfer's elbow
B) Tennis elbow
C) Students elbow
D) Little league elbow
Ans: B
32:-Regarding atraumatic shoulder instability which of the following is false
A) rehabilitation is the primary treatment modality
B) multidirectional
C) unilateral
D) Bankart's lesion is not seen
Ans: C
33:-Radial dysplasia is associated with
A) Halt-Oram syndrome
B) TAR syndrome
C) Brachio carpalis muscle
D) All of the above
Ans: D
34:-Siffert-Katz sign is primarily due to
A) Anteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
B) Posteromedial defect in the medial femoral condyle
C) Posteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
D) Anteromedial defect in the medial femoral condyle
Ans: C
35:-Which is a cancellous insert graft ?
A) Phemister graft
B) Nicoll graft
C) Gill massive sliding graft
D) None of these
Ans: B
36:-Fairbank's triangle is typically described in
A) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
B) Congenital coxa vara
C) Perthe's disease
D) Tuberculosis of the hip
Ans: B
37:-In which of the following the hip is dislocated in stage 1 of the test
A) Barlow's test
B) Ortolani's test
C) Both of these
D) None of these
Ans: A
38:-When tibialis anterior and posterior are weak and the peronei are strong in the orthosis we should give ?
A) outside iron and inner T strap
B) inside iron and outer T strap
C) posterior iron and anterior T strap
D) anterior iron and posterior T strap
Ans: A
39:-Gallows traction without posterior gutter splint can be given upto the age of _____ years.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Ans: B
40:-In congenital pseudarthrosis tibia march fracture is seen in Boyd type
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
Ans: A
41:-Chicken wire calcification is seen in
A) Osteoblastoma
B) Chondroblastoma
C) Chondromyxoid fibroma
D) Parosteal osteosarcoma
Ans: B
42:-In compression arthrodesis of the ankle, the relation of the distal pin to the transverse axis of the body of talus should be
A) through the axis
B) anterior to the axis
C) posterior to the axis
D) any position will do
Ans: B
43:-The amputation in which the calcaneum is rotated and fused with the tibia is
A) Chopart's
B) Syme's
C) Lisfranc's
D) Pirogoff's
Ans: D
44:-Regarding Wallerian degeneration which of the following is false ?
A) Also called secondary degeneration
B) Fragmentation in the segment is seen
C) Axonal debris is removed by the macrophages within a month
D) Chromatolysis occurs
Ans: A
45:-When the ulnar nerve is totally divided at the wrist the interossei can act through
A) Martin-Gruber anastomosis
B) Richi-Cannieu anastomosis
C) Both of these
D) The above statement is wrong
Ans: B
46:-In Ratliff classification in type 3
A) partial head involvement
B) whole head involvement
C) involvement is from the fracture line to the epiphyseal plate
D) none of these
Ans: C
47:-Lambrinudi's triple arthrodesis was originally described for which foot deformity
A) calcaneus
B) equinovarus
C) equinus
D) calcaneovalgus
Ans: C
48:-Which muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant ?
A) Duchenne's
B) Becker's
C) Facioscapulohumeral
D) Limb girdle
Ans: C
49:-In Anderson and D'Alonzo classification highest rate of non-union is seen in
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) No difference among the three
Ans: B
50:-Soft tissue calcification in the X-ray is seen in
A) Synovial sarcoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Liposarcoma
Ans: A
A) Will be able to actively dorsiflex his wrist in neutral position
B) On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into radial deviation
C) On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into ulnar deviation
D) Can willingly dorsiflex the wrist in radial or ulnar deviation
Ans: B
2:-Using Hertel's criteria the humeral head has a bad prognosis when the
A) fracture is not involving the anatomical neck
B) metaphyseal spike is 9 mm
C) medial hinge is displaced 3 mm
D) all of the above
Ans: C
3:-Vickers ligament is seen in almost all operated cases of
A) Radial club hand
B) Keinbock's disease
C) Ulnar club hand
D) Madelung deformity
Ans: D
4:-The muscle that is acting when there is a positive Froment's sign is
A) Adductor pollicis
B) First dorsal interosseous
C) First palmar interosseous
D) Flexor pollicis longus
Ans: D
5:-Bubbles and strips appearance in the X-ray is seen in
A) simple bone cyst
B) monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C) aneurysmal bone cyst
D) rickets
Ans: B
6:-Except for the pattern of inheritance homocystinuria closely mimics
A) Alkaptonuria
B) Larsen's syndrome
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Goldenhar's syndrome
Ans: C
7:-Ludloff sign is positive in avulsion of
A) greater trochanter
B) anterior inferior iliac spine
C) anterior superior iliac spine
D) lesser trochanter
Ans: D
8:-The length of the arm segment during a clinical examination is measured from
A) tip of acromion to lateral epicondyle
B) lateral border of acromion to lateral epicondyle
C) angle of acromion to lateral epicondyle
D) anterior border of acromion to lateral epicondyle
Ans: C
9:-Radiocarpal subluxation is a salient feature of which of these fractures ?
A) Smith fracture
B) Barton's fracture
C) Chauffer fracture
D) Colles fracture
Ans: B
10:-Which of the following joints are together called Chopart's joint ?
A) talocalcaneal and calcaneocuboid
B) talonavicular and talocalcaneal
C) talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
D) talonavicular and tibiotalar
Ans: C
11:-Muscle of the posterior compartment of leg most prone for Volkmans ischaemic contracture is
A) flexor hallucis longus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) soleus
Ans: A
12:-In a long standing case of compound palmar ganglion one can get all the following except
A) ulnar nerve symptoms
B) loss of flexion of interphalangeal joints of fingers
C) carpal tunnel syndrome
D) melon seed bodies
Ans: A
13:-While fixing a subtrochanteric fracture with a DCS the entry point of the guide wire for the DCS screw should be
A) At the midpoint of the anteroposterior thickness of the greater trochanter
B) At the junction of the anterior one third and posterior two thirds of the greater trochanter
C) At the junction of the anterior one fourth and posterior three fourths of the greater trochanter
D) Junction of the anterior two third and posterior one third of the greater trochanter
Ans: B
14:-Subchondral compression of the bone at the angle between the tibial plafond and the base of the medial malleolus is seen in medial malleolar fractures involved in
A) abduction injury
B) pronation external rotation injury
C) adduction injury
D) supination external rotation injury
Ans: C
15:-Cole's method is used to fix
A) tendon to tendon
B) tendon to bone
C) tendon to muscle
D) tendon to fascia
Ans: B
16:-While exposing the proximal fourth of radius through the Henry's approach the supinator can be safely
A) incised medially and retracted laterallyB) incised laterally and retracted medially
C) incised in the middle and retracted to either side
D) pushed up superiorly from its inferior border
Ans: A
17:-Functional position of the wrist is
A) ten degree palmar flexion
B) twenty degree palmar flexion
C) neutral position
D) twenty degree dorsiflexion
Ans: D
18:-To expose the radial nerve in a posterior approach to the humerus one has to dissect
A) through the lateral head of triceps
B) between the lateral and medial head of triceps
C) through the medial head of triceps
D) between the long and lateral head of triceps
Ans: D
19:-Pulvertaft technique is used for suturing a tendon of
A) Small diameter to one of large diameter
B) Large diameter to one of large diameter
C) Small diameter to one of small diameter
D) None of the above
Ans: A
20:-In Axer osteotomy to get containment of the anterolateral segment we should do
A) an inter trochanteric osteotomy with adduction and internal rotation of the distal fragment
B) a sub trochanteric osteotomy with abduction and internal rotation of the distal fragment
C) an intertrochanteric osteotomty with abduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
D) a subtrochanteric osteotomy with adduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
Ans: D
21:-Milch type 1 fracture is Salter Harris
A) type 2
B) type 1
C) type 4
D) type 3
Ans: C
22:-Regarding excision of carpal bones
i. lunate may be excised by itself.
ii. when triquetrum is excised both lunate and scaphoid are also excised.
iii. when scaphoid is excised both triquetrum and lunate are also excised.
iv. excising pisiform is unnecessary.
A) statements ii and iii alone are correct
B) statements i and iv alone are correct
C) statements i and iii alone are correct
D) all the statements are correct
Ans: D
23:-In Enneking's staging, Stage 2B is
A) high grade extracompartmental
B) low grade extracompartmental
C) low grade intracompartmental
D) high grade intracompartmental
Ans: A
24:-If the MESS ischaemia score is doubled, then the time of ischaemia is more than
A) 2 hoursB) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
Ans: C
25:-Multiple enchondromatosis when associated with haemangiomas of the overlying soft tissues is called
A) Albright syndrome
B) Maffucci's syndrome
C) Edward syndrome
D) Crouzon's disease
Ans: B
26:-Heuter schede approach is used for draining the
A) hip joint
B) elbow joint
C) shoulder joint
D) ankle joint
Ans: A
27:-Fallen fragment sign is pathognomonic of
A) aneurysmal bone cyst
B) flbrous dysplasia
C) unicameral bone cyst
D) enchondroma
Ans: C
28:-Clutton's joint is classically,
A) symptomatic unilateral arthritis
B) asymptomatic symmetrical arthritis
C) asymptomatic symmetrical synovitis
D) asymptomatic unilateral synovitis
Ans: C
29:-Which of the following is intertrochanteric medial displacement osteotomy ?
A) Schanz Osteotomy
B) Mc Murray's Osteotomy
C) Sugioka Osteotomy
D) Chiari Osteotomy
Ans: B
30:-Squaring of the patella and widening of the intercondylar notch are classically seen in
A) Psoriatic arthritis
B) Gouty arthritis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Haemophilic arthritis
Ans: D
31:-Cozen's test is positive in
A) Golfer's elbow
B) Tennis elbow
C) Students elbow
D) Little league elbow
Ans: B
32:-Regarding atraumatic shoulder instability which of the following is false
A) rehabilitation is the primary treatment modality
B) multidirectional
C) unilateral
D) Bankart's lesion is not seen
Ans: C
33:-Radial dysplasia is associated with
A) Halt-Oram syndrome
B) TAR syndrome
C) Brachio carpalis muscle
D) All of the above
Ans: D
34:-Siffert-Katz sign is primarily due to
A) Anteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
B) Posteromedial defect in the medial femoral condyle
C) Posteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
D) Anteromedial defect in the medial femoral condyle
Ans: C
35:-Which is a cancellous insert graft ?
A) Phemister graft
B) Nicoll graft
C) Gill massive sliding graft
D) None of these
Ans: B
36:-Fairbank's triangle is typically described in
A) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
B) Congenital coxa vara
C) Perthe's disease
D) Tuberculosis of the hip
Ans: B
37:-In which of the following the hip is dislocated in stage 1 of the test
A) Barlow's test
B) Ortolani's test
C) Both of these
D) None of these
Ans: A
38:-When tibialis anterior and posterior are weak and the peronei are strong in the orthosis we should give ?
A) outside iron and inner T strap
B) inside iron and outer T strap
C) posterior iron and anterior T strap
D) anterior iron and posterior T strap
Ans: A
39:-Gallows traction without posterior gutter splint can be given upto the age of _____ years.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Ans: B
40:-In congenital pseudarthrosis tibia march fracture is seen in Boyd type
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
Ans: A
41:-Chicken wire calcification is seen in
A) Osteoblastoma
B) Chondroblastoma
C) Chondromyxoid fibroma
D) Parosteal osteosarcoma
Ans: B
42:-In compression arthrodesis of the ankle, the relation of the distal pin to the transverse axis of the body of talus should be
A) through the axis
B) anterior to the axis
C) posterior to the axis
D) any position will do
Ans: B
43:-The amputation in which the calcaneum is rotated and fused with the tibia is
A) Chopart's
B) Syme's
C) Lisfranc's
D) Pirogoff's
Ans: D
44:-Regarding Wallerian degeneration which of the following is false ?
A) Also called secondary degeneration
B) Fragmentation in the segment is seen
C) Axonal debris is removed by the macrophages within a month
D) Chromatolysis occurs
Ans: A
45:-When the ulnar nerve is totally divided at the wrist the interossei can act through
A) Martin-Gruber anastomosis
B) Richi-Cannieu anastomosis
C) Both of these
D) The above statement is wrong
Ans: B
46:-In Ratliff classification in type 3
A) partial head involvement
B) whole head involvement
C) involvement is from the fracture line to the epiphyseal plate
D) none of these
Ans: C
47:-Lambrinudi's triple arthrodesis was originally described for which foot deformity
A) calcaneus
B) equinovarus
C) equinus
D) calcaneovalgus
Ans: C
48:-Which muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant ?
A) Duchenne's
B) Becker's
C) Facioscapulohumeral
D) Limb girdle
Ans: C
49:-In Anderson and D'Alonzo classification highest rate of non-union is seen in
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) No difference among the three
Ans: B
50:-Soft tissue calcification in the X-ray is seen in
A) Synovial sarcoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Liposarcoma
Ans: A
51:-Which of the following is false with respect to villonodular synovitis ?
A) Commonly affects the knee
B) Histopathology is similar to giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath
C) Presents as repeated attacks of pain and effusion
D) Aspirated fluid is clear
Ans: D
52:-_________ is an osteotomy done at the base of the neck of femur.
A) Southwick and lmhauser
B) Dunn
C) Kramer and Barmada
D) None of these
Ans: C
53:-Coplanar test is a measure of
A) Acetabular anteversion alone
B) Femoral anteversion alone
C) Difference between femoral and acetabular anteversion
D) Sum of acetabular and femoral anteversion
Ans: D
54:-Intercostobrachial nerve is the cutaneous branch of
A) T1
B) T3
C) T2
D) T4
Ans: C
55:-Cervical sympathetic ganglion associated with ciliospinal reflex is
A) Superior
B) Middle
C) Inferior
D) None of these
Ans: A
56:-The bone commonly involved in Caffey's disease
A) metatarsal
B) Humerus
C) Mandible
D) Femur
Ans: C
57:-In a case of left sided slipped capital femoral epiphysis in the frog leg lateral view the epiphyseal-diaphyseal angle on the right side is ten degree, then the minimum angle of the same on the left side beyond which the slip is not considered mild is
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 40
Ans: D
58:-While doing a replacement in a valgus knee, the distal femoral cut is better done in
A) 5 degree valgus
B) 7 degree valgus
C) 3 degree valgus
D) none of these
Ans: C
59:-1) PCL release from femur 2) Removal of lateral osteophytes 3) Pie crusting of the ITB 4) Popliteus release 5) Posterolateral capsular release.
The correct sequential order of release for correcting valgus in a tkr is
A) 1 2 3 4 5
B) 5 4 3 2 1
C) 2 1 3 5 4
D) 2 1 5 3 4
Ans: D
60:-Motion similar to that in a cow's hip is obtained in Stulberg type
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 2
Ans: C
61:-For safely releasing the origin of peroneus longus from the fibular head, the blade should be directed
A) Upwards and posteriorly
B) Downwards and anteriorly
C) Upwards and anteriorly
D) Downwards and posteriorly
Ans: C
62:-For introducing a 4.5 mm non self tapping cortical screw the drill bit for the pilot hole should be
A) 3.5 mm
B) 3.2 mm
C) 2.7 mm
D) 4.5 mm
Ans: B
63:-During operations for the proximal femur if the anteversion guide wire is placed along the upper half of the anterior surface of the femoral neck and then if you pass the
definitive guidewire parallel to it, the resultant anteversion will
A) increase
B) decrease
C) will not change
D) may increase or decrease
Ans: A
64:-Pellagrini-Steida disease affects
A) anterior cruciate ligament
B) posterior cruciate ligament
C) medial collateral ligament
D) lateral collateral ligament
Ans: C
65:-Regarding the knee joint the popliteus muscle is functionally ____ and its tendon is ______A) unlocking and extra articular
B) locking and intra articular
C) locking and extra articular
D) unlocking and intra articular
Ans: D
66:-Which is the false statement ?
A) Step length increases with leg length
B) Cadence is greater in children
C) Step length is more than stride length
D) Walking velocity is measured in metres per second
Ans: C
67:-Holstein-Lewis lesion presents as a
A) pre reduction lesion and is managed conservatively
B) post reduction lesion and is managed conservatively
C) pre reduction lesion and is managed surgically
D) post reduction lesion and is managed surgically
Ans: D
68:-Oblique popliteal ligament of the knee is pierced by which artery ?
A) superior medial geniculate
B) superior lateral geniculate
C) middle geniculate
D) inferior geniculate
Ans: C
69:-Regarding Turrett exostosis what is true ?
A) intracortical
B) traumatic
C) does not limit joint movements
D) conservative treatment is beneficial
Ans: B
70:-While doing a release of the carpal tunnel it is cut in line with the
A) ring finger
B) middle finger
C) index finger
D) none of these
Ans: A
71:-Positive Volkmann's sign is due to contracture of
A) flexor carpi radialis
B) flexor carpi ulnaris
C) flexor digitorum profundus
D) pronator teres
Ans: C
72:-The gliding hole for a 3.5 mm cortical screw when used as a lag screw should be
A) 3.25 mm
B) 4.5 mm
C) 3.5 mm
D) 2.7 mm
Ans: C
73:-During a normal gait the muscles that are active with the first, second and third rockers are respectively
A) Tibialis anterior, triceps surae and tibialis posterior with the intrinsics
B) Triceps surae, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and tibialis anterior
C) Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and triceps surae
D) Tibialis posteror with intrinsics, tibialis anterior and triceps surae
Ans: C
74:-Sprouting granulations at the mouth of a sinus in a case of chronic osteomyelitis indicate
A) acute flare up
B) underlying cavity
C) underlying sequestrum
D) only an indication of the chronicity
Ans: C
75:-In Ober transfer
A) tibialis anterior is passed over the shin of tibia
B) tibialis anterior is passed through the interosseous membrane
C) tibialis posterior is passed through the interosseous membrane
D) tibialis posterior is passed over the shin of tibia
Ans: D
76:-Regarding Felon which is wrong ?
A) produces a collar-stud abscess
B) if untreated it will always lead to sequestration of the entire phalanx
C) is infection of the terminal pulp space
D) if neglected ends up in a desensitised withered finger tip
Ans: B
77:-Vascular type of Ehler-Danlos syndrome is
A) Type 6
B) Type 4
C) Type 5
D) Type 3
Ans: B
78:-While doing dcp for a diaphyseal transverse fracture opening of the far cortex is prevented by
A) over contouring the plate
B) under contouring the plate
C) anatomical contouring the plate
D) prebending the plate
Ans: D
A) Commonly affects the knee
B) Histopathology is similar to giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath
C) Presents as repeated attacks of pain and effusion
D) Aspirated fluid is clear
Ans: D
52:-_________ is an osteotomy done at the base of the neck of femur.
A) Southwick and lmhauser
B) Dunn
C) Kramer and Barmada
D) None of these
Ans: C
53:-Coplanar test is a measure of
A) Acetabular anteversion alone
B) Femoral anteversion alone
C) Difference between femoral and acetabular anteversion
D) Sum of acetabular and femoral anteversion
Ans: D
54:-Intercostobrachial nerve is the cutaneous branch of
A) T1
B) T3
C) T2
D) T4
Ans: C
55:-Cervical sympathetic ganglion associated with ciliospinal reflex is
A) Superior
B) Middle
C) Inferior
D) None of these
Ans: A
56:-The bone commonly involved in Caffey's disease
A) metatarsal
B) Humerus
C) Mandible
D) Femur
Ans: C
57:-In a case of left sided slipped capital femoral epiphysis in the frog leg lateral view the epiphyseal-diaphyseal angle on the right side is ten degree, then the minimum angle of the same on the left side beyond which the slip is not considered mild is
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 40
Ans: D
58:-While doing a replacement in a valgus knee, the distal femoral cut is better done in
A) 5 degree valgus
B) 7 degree valgus
C) 3 degree valgus
D) none of these
Ans: C
59:-1) PCL release from femur 2) Removal of lateral osteophytes 3) Pie crusting of the ITB 4) Popliteus release 5) Posterolateral capsular release.
The correct sequential order of release for correcting valgus in a tkr is
A) 1 2 3 4 5
B) 5 4 3 2 1
C) 2 1 3 5 4
D) 2 1 5 3 4
Ans: D
60:-Motion similar to that in a cow's hip is obtained in Stulberg type
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 2
Ans: C
61:-For safely releasing the origin of peroneus longus from the fibular head, the blade should be directed
A) Upwards and posteriorly
B) Downwards and anteriorly
C) Upwards and anteriorly
D) Downwards and posteriorly
Ans: C
62:-For introducing a 4.5 mm non self tapping cortical screw the drill bit for the pilot hole should be
A) 3.5 mm
B) 3.2 mm
C) 2.7 mm
D) 4.5 mm
Ans: B
63:-During operations for the proximal femur if the anteversion guide wire is placed along the upper half of the anterior surface of the femoral neck and then if you pass the
definitive guidewire parallel to it, the resultant anteversion will
A) increase
B) decrease
C) will not change
D) may increase or decrease
Ans: A
64:-Pellagrini-Steida disease affects
A) anterior cruciate ligament
B) posterior cruciate ligament
C) medial collateral ligament
D) lateral collateral ligament
Ans: C
65:-Regarding the knee joint the popliteus muscle is functionally ____ and its tendon is ______A) unlocking and extra articular
B) locking and intra articular
C) locking and extra articular
D) unlocking and intra articular
Ans: D
66:-Which is the false statement ?
A) Step length increases with leg length
B) Cadence is greater in children
C) Step length is more than stride length
D) Walking velocity is measured in metres per second
Ans: C
67:-Holstein-Lewis lesion presents as a
A) pre reduction lesion and is managed conservatively
B) post reduction lesion and is managed conservatively
C) pre reduction lesion and is managed surgically
D) post reduction lesion and is managed surgically
Ans: D
68:-Oblique popliteal ligament of the knee is pierced by which artery ?
A) superior medial geniculate
B) superior lateral geniculate
C) middle geniculate
D) inferior geniculate
Ans: C
69:-Regarding Turrett exostosis what is true ?
A) intracortical
B) traumatic
C) does not limit joint movements
D) conservative treatment is beneficial
Ans: B
70:-While doing a release of the carpal tunnel it is cut in line with the
A) ring finger
B) middle finger
C) index finger
D) none of these
Ans: A
71:-Positive Volkmann's sign is due to contracture of
A) flexor carpi radialis
B) flexor carpi ulnaris
C) flexor digitorum profundus
D) pronator teres
Ans: C
72:-The gliding hole for a 3.5 mm cortical screw when used as a lag screw should be
A) 3.25 mm
B) 4.5 mm
C) 3.5 mm
D) 2.7 mm
Ans: C
73:-During a normal gait the muscles that are active with the first, second and third rockers are respectively
A) Tibialis anterior, triceps surae and tibialis posterior with the intrinsics
B) Triceps surae, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and tibialis anterior
C) Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and triceps surae
D) Tibialis posteror with intrinsics, tibialis anterior and triceps surae
Ans: C
74:-Sprouting granulations at the mouth of a sinus in a case of chronic osteomyelitis indicate
A) acute flare up
B) underlying cavity
C) underlying sequestrum
D) only an indication of the chronicity
Ans: C
75:-In Ober transfer
A) tibialis anterior is passed over the shin of tibia
B) tibialis anterior is passed through the interosseous membrane
C) tibialis posterior is passed through the interosseous membrane
D) tibialis posterior is passed over the shin of tibia
Ans: D
76:-Regarding Felon which is wrong ?
A) produces a collar-stud abscess
B) if untreated it will always lead to sequestration of the entire phalanx
C) is infection of the terminal pulp space
D) if neglected ends up in a desensitised withered finger tip
Ans: B
77:-Vascular type of Ehler-Danlos syndrome is
A) Type 6
B) Type 4
C) Type 5
D) Type 3
Ans: B
78:-While doing dcp for a diaphyseal transverse fracture opening of the far cortex is prevented by
A) over contouring the plate
B) under contouring the plate
C) anatomical contouring the plate
D) prebending the plate
Ans: D
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