ORAL MEDICINE AND RADIOLOGY- PAGE 1
1:-All are ethical principles except
A:-Beneficance B:-Veracity C:-Bogus diploma D:-Non maleficience
Ans: C
2:-Consumer Protection Act came into force on
A:-`14^(th)` April 1986 B:-`14^(th)` May 1948
C:-`15^(th)` April 1987 D:-`15^(th)` May 1949
Ans: C
3:-Snowball sample is an example for which sampling method ?
A:-Quota sampling B:-Purposive sampling C:-Convenience sampling D:-Systematic sampling
Ans: B
4:-Predominent immunoglobulin in saliva
A:-IG A B:-IG M C:-IG D D:-IG G
Ans: A
5:-Safety tolerated dose of fluoride
A:-8-16 mg/kg B:-8-16 gm/kg C:-32-64 mg/kg D:-32-64 gm/kg
Ans: A
6:-Principal cell type in gingival epithelium is
A:-Fibroblast B:-Melanocyte C:-Keratinocyte D:-Merkel cell
Ans: C
7:-Which among the following is not a reconstructive periodontal surgical procedure ?
A:-Guided Tissue Regeneration
B:-Placement of Alloplast bone substitute
C:-LANAP
D:-Osteoplasty
Ans: D
8:-Ostell device is used to assess
A:-Tooth mobility B:-Bony pattern at implant surgical site C:-Mobility of implants D:-Periodontal Disease activity
Ans: C
9:-Which among the following bacteria form star shaped colonies ?
A:-P Gingivalis B:-Aggrigatibactor actinomycetum comitans C:-T Denticola D:-Actinomyces Viscosus
Ans: B
10:-Periostat is
A:-20 mg Tetracycline B:-20 mg Doxycycline C:-25 mg minocycline D:-25 mg metronidazole
Ans: B
11:-Direction of application of first force in dental extraction using forceps is
A:-Buccal B:-Lingual C:-Apical D:-Rotational
Ans: C
12:-Which of the following muscles has dual innervations ?
A:-Masseter B:-Myolohyoid C:-Omohyoid D:-Digastric
Ans: D
13:-2% local anesthetic solution is
A:-0.2 mg/ml B:-2 mg/ml C:-20 mg/ml D:-200 mg/ml
Ans: C
14:-Which of the clotting factors is not dependent on Vitamin K for synthesis ?
A:-Factor II B:-Factor V C:-Factor VII D:-Factor IX
Ans: B
15:-Most common site of mandibular fracture is
A:-Condylar process B:-Coronoid process C:-Symphysis D:-Parasymphysis
Ans: A
16:-'Combination Syndrome' coined by
A:-Heartwell B:-Misch C:-Kelly D:-Stewart
Ans: C
17:-Choice of finish line for PJC
A:-Feather edge B:-Shoulder C:-Chanfer D:-Bevel
Ans: B
18:-Instrument for post space creation
A:-Peeso reamer B:-Excavator C:-Spatula D:-File
Ans: A
19:-Componer is
A:-Polyacid modified composite rein B:-GIC C:-Gutta percha D:-Impression compound
Ans: A
20:-Density of poly (methyl methacry late)
A:-1.19 g/`cm^(3)` `` B:-1.25 g/`cm^(3)` C:-2.2 g/`cm^(3)` D:-3.2 g/`cm^(3)`
Ans: A
A:-Beneficance B:-Veracity C:-Bogus diploma D:-Non maleficience
Ans: C
2:-Consumer Protection Act came into force on
A:-`14^(th)` April 1986 B:-`14^(th)` May 1948
C:-`15^(th)` April 1987 D:-`15^(th)` May 1949
Ans: C
3:-Snowball sample is an example for which sampling method ?
A:-Quota sampling B:-Purposive sampling C:-Convenience sampling D:-Systematic sampling
Ans: B
4:-Predominent immunoglobulin in saliva
A:-IG A B:-IG M C:-IG D D:-IG G
Ans: A
5:-Safety tolerated dose of fluoride
A:-8-16 mg/kg B:-8-16 gm/kg C:-32-64 mg/kg D:-32-64 gm/kg
Ans: A
6:-Principal cell type in gingival epithelium is
A:-Fibroblast B:-Melanocyte C:-Keratinocyte D:-Merkel cell
Ans: C
7:-Which among the following is not a reconstructive periodontal surgical procedure ?
A:-Guided Tissue Regeneration
B:-Placement of Alloplast bone substitute
C:-LANAP
D:-Osteoplasty
Ans: D
8:-Ostell device is used to assess
A:-Tooth mobility B:-Bony pattern at implant surgical site C:-Mobility of implants D:-Periodontal Disease activity
Ans: C
9:-Which among the following bacteria form star shaped colonies ?
A:-P Gingivalis B:-Aggrigatibactor actinomycetum comitans C:-T Denticola D:-Actinomyces Viscosus
Ans: B
10:-Periostat is
A:-20 mg Tetracycline B:-20 mg Doxycycline C:-25 mg minocycline D:-25 mg metronidazole
Ans: B
11:-Direction of application of first force in dental extraction using forceps is
A:-Buccal B:-Lingual C:-Apical D:-Rotational
Ans: C
12:-Which of the following muscles has dual innervations ?
A:-Masseter B:-Myolohyoid C:-Omohyoid D:-Digastric
Ans: D
13:-2% local anesthetic solution is
A:-0.2 mg/ml B:-2 mg/ml C:-20 mg/ml D:-200 mg/ml
Ans: C
14:-Which of the clotting factors is not dependent on Vitamin K for synthesis ?
A:-Factor II B:-Factor V C:-Factor VII D:-Factor IX
Ans: B
15:-Most common site of mandibular fracture is
A:-Condylar process B:-Coronoid process C:-Symphysis D:-Parasymphysis
Ans: A
16:-'Combination Syndrome' coined by
A:-Heartwell B:-Misch C:-Kelly D:-Stewart
Ans: C
17:-Choice of finish line for PJC
A:-Feather edge B:-Shoulder C:-Chanfer D:-Bevel
Ans: B
18:-Instrument for post space creation
A:-Peeso reamer B:-Excavator C:-Spatula D:-File
Ans: A
19:-Componer is
A:-Polyacid modified composite rein B:-GIC C:-Gutta percha D:-Impression compound
Ans: A
20:-Density of poly (methyl methacry late)
A:-1.19 g/`cm^(3)` `` B:-1.25 g/`cm^(3)` C:-2.2 g/`cm^(3)` D:-3.2 g/`cm^(3)`
Ans: A
21:-Inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which nerve ?
A:-Mandibular nerve B:-Maxillary nerve C:-Ophthalmic nerve D:-Infra orbital nerve
Ans: A
22:-Which bone does not take part in the formation of nasal septum ?
A:-Ethmoid bone B:-Nasal bone C:-Sphenoid bone D:-Lacrimal bone
Ans: D
23:-Transverse facial artery is a branch of
A:-Superficial peroneal artery B:-Facial artery C:-Superficial temporal artery D:-External carotid artery
Ans: C
24:-Name the nucleus lodged beneath the facial colliculus.
A:-Vestibular Nucleus B:-Facial Nucleus C:-Hypoglossal Nucleus D:-Abducent Nucleus
Ans: D
25:-External Jugular vein drains into which of the following vein ?
A:-Facial vein B:-Brachiocephalic vein C:-Subclavian D:-Internal Jugular vein
Ans: C
26:-Name the calmodulin - dependant kinase which phosphorelates myosin to bring about the contraction of smooth muscle ? A:-Calcineurin B:-Calbindin C:-Myosin light chain kinase D:-Protein kinase C
Ans: C
27:-One of the following is a ligant gated channel.
A:-Aquaporins B:-Acetyl choline receptor C:-Sodium channel D:-Potassium channel
Ans: B
28:-Connexons at gap junctions are channels made up of protein connexins which permit substances to pass
A:-Between cells B:-From ECF to ICF
C:-Through water channels D:-From cytoplasm to ECF
Ans: A
29:-The resting membrane potential of a nerve axon is
A:-+ 70 mv B:-- 90 mv C:-- 70 mv D:-- 60 mv
Ans: C
30:-The `Na^(+)` and `K^(+)` transport takes places through ___________ in the `Na^(+)` `K^(+)` AT Pase anchored in the cytoskeleton. A:-Antiport B:-Beta subunit C:-Epithelial `Na^(+)` channel D:-Alpha subunit
Ans: D
31:-Which is true regarding apotosis ?
A:-Occurs in normal as well as diseased organs B:-Involves enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation
C:-Initiated by tissue ischemia D:-Is associated with inflammation
Ans: A
32:-Which of the following is not an inhibitor of coagulation ?
A:-Protein C B:-Protein S C:-F IX D:-Antithrombin C
Ans: C
33:-Special stain used for demonstration of Amyloid
A:-Von kossa B:-Reticulin C:-Congo Red D:-Giemsa
Ans: C
34:-An example of type IV hyper sensitivity reaction
A:-Anaphylaxis B:-Tuberculin reaction C:-Arthus reaction D:-Acute serum sickness
Ans: B
35:-Tumor with parenchymal cells representing more than one germ cell layer is called
A:-Hamartoma B:-Choristoma C:-Adenoma D:-Teratoma
Ans: D
36:-Zero order kinetics shown by
A:-Carbamazepine B:-Metoprolol C:-Phenytoin D:-Metoclopramide
Ans: C
37:-Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes ?
A:-Ketoconazole B:-Rifampicin C:-Phenytoin D:-Phenobarbitone
Ans: A
38:-Which of the following drug is a prodrug ?
A:-Levodopa B:-Lignocaine C:-Salbutamol D:-Imimpramine
Ans: A
39:-Example for a drug producing Tachyphylaxis
A:-Sertraline B:-Ephedrine C:-Amlodipine D:-Clozapine
Ans: B
40:-Chloramphenicol produces aplastic anaemia which is not related to dose; is an example for
A:-Drug allergy B:-Intolerance C:-Hypersensitivity D:-Idiosyncrasy
Ans: D
41:-Normal serum bilirubin level is
A:-1-2 mg% B:-0.1-0.7 mg% C:-0.2-0.8 mg% D:-0.4-1.2 mg%
Ans: C
42:-Which of the following is an essential amino acid ?
A:-Methionine B:-Cysteine C:-Tyrosine D:-Aspartic acid
Ans: A
43:-Which of the following vitamin has antioxidant property ?
A:-Vitamin D B:-Vitamin K C:-Vitamin E D:-Niacin
Ans: C
44:-Rotheras test is done to detect the presence of which compound is urine ?
A:-Glucose B:-Ketone bodies C:-Fructose D:-Uric acid
Ans: B
45:-Phenylketonuria is due to the deficiency of which enzyme ?
A:-Aldolase B:-Transaminase C:-Tyrosinase D:-Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Ans: D
46:-Which of the following are sterilized in an autoclave ?
A:-Surgical instruments B:-Dressings C:-Culture media D:-All of the above
Ans: D
47:-Vincent's angina is caused by
A:-Streptococcus pyogenes B:-Leptotrichia buccalis C:-Treponema pallidum D:-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ans: B
48:-Contact dermatitis is an example of
A:-Type I hypersensitivity B:-Type II hypersensitivity C:-Type III hypersensitivity D:-Type IV hypersensitivity
Ans: D
49:-Which of the following is a non suppurative complication of Streptococcus pyogenes ?
A:-Quinsy B:-Otitis media C:-Ludwig's angina D:-Acute glomerulonephritis
Ans: D
50:-All of the following regarding candida infection is true except
A:-Shows true hyphae on examination with potassium hydroxide
B:-Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, use of broad spectrum antibiotics
C:-Germ tube test is positive for Candida albicans
D:-Amphotericin B is used in disseminated candidosis
Ans: A
A:-Mandibular nerve B:-Maxillary nerve C:-Ophthalmic nerve D:-Infra orbital nerve
Ans: A
22:-Which bone does not take part in the formation of nasal septum ?
A:-Ethmoid bone B:-Nasal bone C:-Sphenoid bone D:-Lacrimal bone
Ans: D
23:-Transverse facial artery is a branch of
A:-Superficial peroneal artery B:-Facial artery C:-Superficial temporal artery D:-External carotid artery
Ans: C
24:-Name the nucleus lodged beneath the facial colliculus.
A:-Vestibular Nucleus B:-Facial Nucleus C:-Hypoglossal Nucleus D:-Abducent Nucleus
Ans: D
25:-External Jugular vein drains into which of the following vein ?
A:-Facial vein B:-Brachiocephalic vein C:-Subclavian D:-Internal Jugular vein
Ans: C
26:-Name the calmodulin - dependant kinase which phosphorelates myosin to bring about the contraction of smooth muscle ? A:-Calcineurin B:-Calbindin C:-Myosin light chain kinase D:-Protein kinase C
Ans: C
27:-One of the following is a ligant gated channel.
A:-Aquaporins B:-Acetyl choline receptor C:-Sodium channel D:-Potassium channel
Ans: B
28:-Connexons at gap junctions are channels made up of protein connexins which permit substances to pass
A:-Between cells B:-From ECF to ICF
C:-Through water channels D:-From cytoplasm to ECF
Ans: A
29:-The resting membrane potential of a nerve axon is
A:-+ 70 mv B:-- 90 mv C:-- 70 mv D:-- 60 mv
Ans: C
30:-The `Na^(+)` and `K^(+)` transport takes places through ___________ in the `Na^(+)` `K^(+)` AT Pase anchored in the cytoskeleton. A:-Antiport B:-Beta subunit C:-Epithelial `Na^(+)` channel D:-Alpha subunit
Ans: D
31:-Which is true regarding apotosis ?
A:-Occurs in normal as well as diseased organs B:-Involves enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation
C:-Initiated by tissue ischemia D:-Is associated with inflammation
Ans: A
32:-Which of the following is not an inhibitor of coagulation ?
A:-Protein C B:-Protein S C:-F IX D:-Antithrombin C
Ans: C
33:-Special stain used for demonstration of Amyloid
A:-Von kossa B:-Reticulin C:-Congo Red D:-Giemsa
Ans: C
34:-An example of type IV hyper sensitivity reaction
A:-Anaphylaxis B:-Tuberculin reaction C:-Arthus reaction D:-Acute serum sickness
Ans: B
35:-Tumor with parenchymal cells representing more than one germ cell layer is called
A:-Hamartoma B:-Choristoma C:-Adenoma D:-Teratoma
Ans: D
36:-Zero order kinetics shown by
A:-Carbamazepine B:-Metoprolol C:-Phenytoin D:-Metoclopramide
Ans: C
37:-Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes ?
A:-Ketoconazole B:-Rifampicin C:-Phenytoin D:-Phenobarbitone
Ans: A
38:-Which of the following drug is a prodrug ?
A:-Levodopa B:-Lignocaine C:-Salbutamol D:-Imimpramine
Ans: A
39:-Example for a drug producing Tachyphylaxis
A:-Sertraline B:-Ephedrine C:-Amlodipine D:-Clozapine
Ans: B
40:-Chloramphenicol produces aplastic anaemia which is not related to dose; is an example for
A:-Drug allergy B:-Intolerance C:-Hypersensitivity D:-Idiosyncrasy
Ans: D
41:-Normal serum bilirubin level is
A:-1-2 mg% B:-0.1-0.7 mg% C:-0.2-0.8 mg% D:-0.4-1.2 mg%
Ans: C
42:-Which of the following is an essential amino acid ?
A:-Methionine B:-Cysteine C:-Tyrosine D:-Aspartic acid
Ans: A
43:-Which of the following vitamin has antioxidant property ?
A:-Vitamin D B:-Vitamin K C:-Vitamin E D:-Niacin
Ans: C
44:-Rotheras test is done to detect the presence of which compound is urine ?
A:-Glucose B:-Ketone bodies C:-Fructose D:-Uric acid
Ans: B
45:-Phenylketonuria is due to the deficiency of which enzyme ?
A:-Aldolase B:-Transaminase C:-Tyrosinase D:-Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Ans: D
46:-Which of the following are sterilized in an autoclave ?
A:-Surgical instruments B:-Dressings C:-Culture media D:-All of the above
Ans: D
47:-Vincent's angina is caused by
A:-Streptococcus pyogenes B:-Leptotrichia buccalis C:-Treponema pallidum D:-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ans: B
48:-Contact dermatitis is an example of
A:-Type I hypersensitivity B:-Type II hypersensitivity C:-Type III hypersensitivity D:-Type IV hypersensitivity
Ans: D
49:-Which of the following is a non suppurative complication of Streptococcus pyogenes ?
A:-Quinsy B:-Otitis media C:-Ludwig's angina D:-Acute glomerulonephritis
Ans: D
50:-All of the following regarding candida infection is true except
A:-Shows true hyphae on examination with potassium hydroxide
B:-Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, use of broad spectrum antibiotics
C:-Germ tube test is positive for Candida albicans
D:-Amphotericin B is used in disseminated candidosis
Ans: A
51:-Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
A:-Sound coalescence of development lobes results in grooves and faulty coalescence results in fissures
B:-The dentino enamel junction is a hypomineralized zone of about 10 µm thick
C:-Enamel spindles are odontoblastic processes which cross the DEJ into enamel
D:-Gnarled enamel is not subject to cleavage as is regular enamel
Ans: B
52:-The average diameter of dentinal tubules at DEJ
A:-0.5 to 0.9 µm B:-2 to 3 µm
C:-10 to 14 µm D:-0.005 to 0.01 µm
Ans: A
53:-S.I. unit of dose equivalent
A:-Rad B:-Sievert
C:-Rem D:-Gray
Ans: B
54:-The average pulp space volume in permanent adult human teeth is
A:-0.024 ml B:-1.2 ml
C:-0.0012 ml D:-2.4 ml
Ans: A
55:-Reparative dentin formation rate
A:-4 to 8 µm/day B:-1.5 µm/day
C:-0.05 µm/day D:-0.4 µm/day
Ans: B
56:-Porosity of silica containing investments is more in all of the following conditions except
A:-Heterogeneous size and shape of refractory silica particles B:-Greater refractory silica percentage in the investment
C:-Higher water : powder ratio of the original investment mix D:-Greater mold wall thickness
Ans: A
57:-The thickness of gold foil is
A:-0.01 to 0.07 mm B:-0.001 to 0.007 mm
C:-1 to 4 mm D:-5 to 75 µm
Ans: B
58:-Which of the following is not true regarding retention of posts ?
A:-Threaded posts are 6 to 8 times more retentive than smooth posts
B:-Parallel sided posts are 2-3 times more retentive than tapered ones
C:-Diameter of posts between 0.06 to 0.65" drastically increases retention
D:-Greater the ratio between crown and root portion, the greater will be the retention
Ans: D
59:-Statements regarding creep in dental amalgam are all true except
A:-Increase with mercury excess B:-Less the creep, better marginal integrity
C:-Can occur at mouth temperature D:-Pronounced below equicohesive temperature
Ans: D
60:-Generalizations regarding organisms isolated from root canal are all of the following except
A:-Mixed infections are more common than single organism isolates
B:-Pulpal isolates are similar to oral flora, with gram positive cocci predominating
C:-Organisms associated with flare ups differ from asymptomatic canal isolates
D:-Approximately 25% of isolated orgranisms are anaerobes
Ans: C
61:-Only ectodermal component of tooth germ.
A:-Dental follicle B:-Dental papilla
C:-Dental sac D:-Enamel organ
Ans: D
62:-Formalin is a A
:-Fixative B:-Stain
C:-Antiseptic D:-Irrigant
Ans: A
63:-The physiologic wearing away of enamel is
A:-Abrasion B:-Erosion
C:-Attrition D:-Dental caries
Ans: C
64:-Actinomycosis is a
A:-Fungal infection B:-Bacterial infection
C:-Viral infection D:-Parasitic infection
Ans: B
65:-Stafne cyst is
A:-Developmental anomaly B:-Inflammatory cyst
C:-Retension cyst D:-Extravasation cyst
Ans: A
66:-Speech problem most commonly associated with irregular maxillary incisors are the difficulty in pronouncing
A:-/f/, /v/ B:-/t/, /d/
C:-/s/, /z/ D:-th, sh
Ans: B
67:-Condition termed X-occlusion is commonly associated with
A:-Angles class II div I malocclusion
B:-Class III in south pacific islanders
C:-Skeletal class II malocclusion
D:-Buccal crossbites in Australian aborigines
Ans: D
68:-Term Duchenne smile refers to
A:-Enjoyment smile B:-Social smile
C:-Posed smile D:-Static smile
Ans: A
69:-Philosophy of fixed appliance ideally indicated for patients with moderate to severe periodontal problem is
A:-Multi-banded therapy B:-Pre adjusted edgewise with elastomeric rings
C:-Self ligating systems D:-Lingula orthodontic appliances
Ans: C
70:-Surgical procedure that can be performed very early in life with larger range of movement is
A:-Orthognathic surgery B:-Distraction osteogenesis
C:-Bioprogressive therapy D:-Wilkodontics
Ans: B
71:-Which of the following methods of pulp vitality is an objective test
A:-Electric pulp test B:-Heat test
C:-Cold test D:-Pulse oximetry
Ans: D
72:-Making the child observe when dentist works on a cooperative child is
A:-Modeling B:-Reinforcement
C:-Aversive conditioning D:-HOME
Ans: A
73:-Radiograph of the cervical vertebrae can be used to assess
A:-Sexual age B:-Skeletal age
C:-Chronological age D:-Mental age
Ans: B
74:-Critical pH of saliva at which the hydroxyapatite of enamel starts to get dissolved is
A:-6 B:-6.5 C:-5.5 D:-4
Ans: C
75:-Twin block appliance is used primarily in the treatment of
A:-Mandibular deficiency B:-Mandibular excess
C:-Maxillary deficiency D:-Maxillary excess
Ans: A
76:-Topical antifungal agent used in Oral Candidiasis
A:-Acyclovir B:-Clotrimazole C:-Nevirapine D:-Ketoconazole
Ans: B
77:-Natal teeth associated with
A:-Clouston syndrome B:-Goltz-Gorlin syndrome
C:-Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D:-Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
Ans: C
78:-Mulitple separate radiolucencies of jaws seen in the radiographic appearance
A:-Cemetoblastoma B:-Fibrous Dysplasia C:-Osteitis Deformans D:-Multiple Myeloma
Ans: D
79:-X-rays were discovered by Roentgen in
A:-`8^(th)` November 1895 B:-`8^(th)` November 1896 C:-`8^(th)` November 1897 D:-`8^(th)` November 1898
Ans: A
80. Which of the following statement is correct about facial nerve palsy
(A) In Infranuclear lesions, entire face of opposite side gets paralyzed
(B) In Supranuclear lesions, lower part of the face of opposite side gets paralyzed
(C) In Supranuclear lesions, frontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles gets affected
(D) In Infranuclear lesions articulation of labials remain unaffected
Ans: B
81. Nerve supply to parotid gland includes
(A) Parasympathetic nerves which are vasomotor
(B) Sympathetic nerves which are secretomotor
(C) Post ganglionic parasympathetic nerves reaching the gland through glossopharyngeal nerve
(D) Sympathetic innervation derived from plexus around external carotid artery
Ans: D
82. Which of the following nerve is responsible for taste sensation
(A) Glossopharyngeal (B) Chorda tympani (C) Lingual nerve (D) Vagus nerve
Ans: B
83. A lesion of hypoglossal nerve will produce deviation of tongue to
(A) Opposite side (B) Backward (C) Same side (D) No deviation
Ans: C
84. Facial artery can be best palpated at
(A) Antero inferior angle of masseter muscle (B) Greater Cornua of hyoid bone
(C) Deep to posterior belly of digastric muscle (D) Groove of posterior border of submandibular salivary gland
Ans: A
85. The nerve supply to Temporomandibular joint by
(A) Chorda tympani (B) Temporal branch of facial nerve
(C) Massetric nerve (D) Zygomaticotemporal nerve
Ans: C
86. Which muscle of the soft palate elevates and pulls soft palate posteriorly, and helps to close the nasopharynx
(A) Tensor Veli Palatini (B) Musculus Uvulae
(C) Levator Veli Palatini (D) Palatopharyngeus
Ans: C
87. Injury to which of the following anatomical landmark may cause loss of secretion from all three salivary glands
(A) Spine of sphenoid (B) Pterygoid plates
(C) Mastoid process (D) Inferior orbital fissure
Ans: A
88. Ossification of mandible starts in which of the following regions
(A) Condyle (B) Coronoid (C) Mental foramen (D) Symphysis menti
Ans: C
89. Intrinsic and Extrinsic muscles of tongue are derived from
(A) 1st pharyngeal arch (B) 1st, 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arch
(C) Neural crest cells (D) Occipital myotomes
Ans: D
90. First structure to become evident during development of face is
(A) Lateral nasal prominences (B) Olfactory placode
(C) Primary palate (D) Fronto- nasal process
Ans: B
91. Muscles of mastication are derived from myoblasts of which pharyngeal arch
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fifth
Ans: A
92. Hunter–Schreger bands are present in
(A) Enamel (B) Dentin (C) Cementum (D) Periodontal ligament
Ans: A
93. Which of the following statement is true about cementum?
(A) Cementum is more resistant to resorption than bone (B) Bone is more resistant to resorption than cementum
(C) Cementum is highly vascularized tissue (D)Sharpey’s fiber are extended part of cementum
Ans: A
94. White sponge nevus is characterized by mutation of gene for which type of keratin
(A) Keratin 11 (B) Keratin 14 (C) Keratin 13 (D) Keratin 16
Ans: C
95. Dilated odontome is a which type of developmental anomaly
(A) Dens invaginatus (B) Dens evaginatus (C) Taurodontism (D) Talon’s cusp
Ans: A
96. Metronidazole is most active against which type of bacteria
(A) Obligate aerobic (B) Obligate anaerobic (C) Facultative anaerobic (D) Strict aerobes
Ans: B
97. The main effect shown by antiviral drugs in management of recurrent herpes labialis is
(A) Prevents the lesion form reoccurring (B) Reduces healing time
(C) Helps in pain relief (D) Reduces prodromal symptoms
Ans: B
98. Which of the following groups of periodontal fibers are most numerous?
(A) Oblique (B) Alveolar crest (C) Apical (D) Horizontal
Ans: A
99. Which of the following statement is true regarding saliva
(A) Different salivary glands has similar composition (B) Has ionic calcium level less than the plasma
(C) Has iodide level more than the plasma (D) Has a pH between 5 and 6
Ans: C
100. A raised level of calcium in blood (Hypercalcaemia)
(A) May occur when parathyroid level decreases (B) May occur when plasma protein level falls
(C) May occur in chronic liver failure (D) Predisposes to renal stone formation
Ans: D
A:-Sound coalescence of development lobes results in grooves and faulty coalescence results in fissures
B:-The dentino enamel junction is a hypomineralized zone of about 10 µm thick
C:-Enamel spindles are odontoblastic processes which cross the DEJ into enamel
D:-Gnarled enamel is not subject to cleavage as is regular enamel
Ans: B
52:-The average diameter of dentinal tubules at DEJ
A:-0.5 to 0.9 µm B:-2 to 3 µm
C:-10 to 14 µm D:-0.005 to 0.01 µm
Ans: A
53:-S.I. unit of dose equivalent
A:-Rad B:-Sievert
C:-Rem D:-Gray
Ans: B
54:-The average pulp space volume in permanent adult human teeth is
A:-0.024 ml B:-1.2 ml
C:-0.0012 ml D:-2.4 ml
Ans: A
55:-Reparative dentin formation rate
A:-4 to 8 µm/day B:-1.5 µm/day
C:-0.05 µm/day D:-0.4 µm/day
Ans: B
56:-Porosity of silica containing investments is more in all of the following conditions except
A:-Heterogeneous size and shape of refractory silica particles B:-Greater refractory silica percentage in the investment
C:-Higher water : powder ratio of the original investment mix D:-Greater mold wall thickness
Ans: A
57:-The thickness of gold foil is
A:-0.01 to 0.07 mm B:-0.001 to 0.007 mm
C:-1 to 4 mm D:-5 to 75 µm
Ans: B
58:-Which of the following is not true regarding retention of posts ?
A:-Threaded posts are 6 to 8 times more retentive than smooth posts
B:-Parallel sided posts are 2-3 times more retentive than tapered ones
C:-Diameter of posts between 0.06 to 0.65" drastically increases retention
D:-Greater the ratio between crown and root portion, the greater will be the retention
Ans: D
59:-Statements regarding creep in dental amalgam are all true except
A:-Increase with mercury excess B:-Less the creep, better marginal integrity
C:-Can occur at mouth temperature D:-Pronounced below equicohesive temperature
Ans: D
60:-Generalizations regarding organisms isolated from root canal are all of the following except
A:-Mixed infections are more common than single organism isolates
B:-Pulpal isolates are similar to oral flora, with gram positive cocci predominating
C:-Organisms associated with flare ups differ from asymptomatic canal isolates
D:-Approximately 25% of isolated orgranisms are anaerobes
Ans: C
61:-Only ectodermal component of tooth germ.
A:-Dental follicle B:-Dental papilla
C:-Dental sac D:-Enamel organ
Ans: D
62:-Formalin is a A
:-Fixative B:-Stain
C:-Antiseptic D:-Irrigant
Ans: A
63:-The physiologic wearing away of enamel is
A:-Abrasion B:-Erosion
C:-Attrition D:-Dental caries
Ans: C
64:-Actinomycosis is a
A:-Fungal infection B:-Bacterial infection
C:-Viral infection D:-Parasitic infection
Ans: B
65:-Stafne cyst is
A:-Developmental anomaly B:-Inflammatory cyst
C:-Retension cyst D:-Extravasation cyst
Ans: A
66:-Speech problem most commonly associated with irregular maxillary incisors are the difficulty in pronouncing
A:-/f/, /v/ B:-/t/, /d/
C:-/s/, /z/ D:-th, sh
Ans: B
67:-Condition termed X-occlusion is commonly associated with
A:-Angles class II div I malocclusion
B:-Class III in south pacific islanders
C:-Skeletal class II malocclusion
D:-Buccal crossbites in Australian aborigines
Ans: D
68:-Term Duchenne smile refers to
A:-Enjoyment smile B:-Social smile
C:-Posed smile D:-Static smile
Ans: A
69:-Philosophy of fixed appliance ideally indicated for patients with moderate to severe periodontal problem is
A:-Multi-banded therapy B:-Pre adjusted edgewise with elastomeric rings
C:-Self ligating systems D:-Lingula orthodontic appliances
Ans: C
70:-Surgical procedure that can be performed very early in life with larger range of movement is
A:-Orthognathic surgery B:-Distraction osteogenesis
C:-Bioprogressive therapy D:-Wilkodontics
Ans: B
71:-Which of the following methods of pulp vitality is an objective test
A:-Electric pulp test B:-Heat test
C:-Cold test D:-Pulse oximetry
Ans: D
72:-Making the child observe when dentist works on a cooperative child is
A:-Modeling B:-Reinforcement
C:-Aversive conditioning D:-HOME
Ans: A
73:-Radiograph of the cervical vertebrae can be used to assess
A:-Sexual age B:-Skeletal age
C:-Chronological age D:-Mental age
Ans: B
74:-Critical pH of saliva at which the hydroxyapatite of enamel starts to get dissolved is
A:-6 B:-6.5 C:-5.5 D:-4
Ans: C
75:-Twin block appliance is used primarily in the treatment of
A:-Mandibular deficiency B:-Mandibular excess
C:-Maxillary deficiency D:-Maxillary excess
Ans: A
76:-Topical antifungal agent used in Oral Candidiasis
A:-Acyclovir B:-Clotrimazole C:-Nevirapine D:-Ketoconazole
Ans: B
77:-Natal teeth associated with
A:-Clouston syndrome B:-Goltz-Gorlin syndrome
C:-Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D:-Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
Ans: C
78:-Mulitple separate radiolucencies of jaws seen in the radiographic appearance
A:-Cemetoblastoma B:-Fibrous Dysplasia C:-Osteitis Deformans D:-Multiple Myeloma
Ans: D
79:-X-rays were discovered by Roentgen in
A:-`8^(th)` November 1895 B:-`8^(th)` November 1896 C:-`8^(th)` November 1897 D:-`8^(th)` November 1898
Ans: A
80. Which of the following statement is correct about facial nerve palsy
(A) In Infranuclear lesions, entire face of opposite side gets paralyzed
(B) In Supranuclear lesions, lower part of the face of opposite side gets paralyzed
(C) In Supranuclear lesions, frontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles gets affected
(D) In Infranuclear lesions articulation of labials remain unaffected
Ans: B
81. Nerve supply to parotid gland includes
(A) Parasympathetic nerves which are vasomotor
(B) Sympathetic nerves which are secretomotor
(C) Post ganglionic parasympathetic nerves reaching the gland through glossopharyngeal nerve
(D) Sympathetic innervation derived from plexus around external carotid artery
Ans: D
82. Which of the following nerve is responsible for taste sensation
(A) Glossopharyngeal (B) Chorda tympani (C) Lingual nerve (D) Vagus nerve
Ans: B
83. A lesion of hypoglossal nerve will produce deviation of tongue to
(A) Opposite side (B) Backward (C) Same side (D) No deviation
Ans: C
84. Facial artery can be best palpated at
(A) Antero inferior angle of masseter muscle (B) Greater Cornua of hyoid bone
(C) Deep to posterior belly of digastric muscle (D) Groove of posterior border of submandibular salivary gland
Ans: A
85. The nerve supply to Temporomandibular joint by
(A) Chorda tympani (B) Temporal branch of facial nerve
(C) Massetric nerve (D) Zygomaticotemporal nerve
Ans: C
86. Which muscle of the soft palate elevates and pulls soft palate posteriorly, and helps to close the nasopharynx
(A) Tensor Veli Palatini (B) Musculus Uvulae
(C) Levator Veli Palatini (D) Palatopharyngeus
Ans: C
87. Injury to which of the following anatomical landmark may cause loss of secretion from all three salivary glands
(A) Spine of sphenoid (B) Pterygoid plates
(C) Mastoid process (D) Inferior orbital fissure
Ans: A
88. Ossification of mandible starts in which of the following regions
(A) Condyle (B) Coronoid (C) Mental foramen (D) Symphysis menti
Ans: C
89. Intrinsic and Extrinsic muscles of tongue are derived from
(A) 1st pharyngeal arch (B) 1st, 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arch
(C) Neural crest cells (D) Occipital myotomes
Ans: D
90. First structure to become evident during development of face is
(A) Lateral nasal prominences (B) Olfactory placode
(C) Primary palate (D) Fronto- nasal process
Ans: B
91. Muscles of mastication are derived from myoblasts of which pharyngeal arch
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fifth
Ans: A
92. Hunter–Schreger bands are present in
(A) Enamel (B) Dentin (C) Cementum (D) Periodontal ligament
Ans: A
93. Which of the following statement is true about cementum?
(A) Cementum is more resistant to resorption than bone (B) Bone is more resistant to resorption than cementum
(C) Cementum is highly vascularized tissue (D)Sharpey’s fiber are extended part of cementum
Ans: A
94. White sponge nevus is characterized by mutation of gene for which type of keratin
(A) Keratin 11 (B) Keratin 14 (C) Keratin 13 (D) Keratin 16
Ans: C
95. Dilated odontome is a which type of developmental anomaly
(A) Dens invaginatus (B) Dens evaginatus (C) Taurodontism (D) Talon’s cusp
Ans: A
96. Metronidazole is most active against which type of bacteria
(A) Obligate aerobic (B) Obligate anaerobic (C) Facultative anaerobic (D) Strict aerobes
Ans: B
97. The main effect shown by antiviral drugs in management of recurrent herpes labialis is
(A) Prevents the lesion form reoccurring (B) Reduces healing time
(C) Helps in pain relief (D) Reduces prodromal symptoms
Ans: B
98. Which of the following groups of periodontal fibers are most numerous?
(A) Oblique (B) Alveolar crest (C) Apical (D) Horizontal
Ans: A
99. Which of the following statement is true regarding saliva
(A) Different salivary glands has similar composition (B) Has ionic calcium level less than the plasma
(C) Has iodide level more than the plasma (D) Has a pH between 5 and 6
Ans: C
100. A raised level of calcium in blood (Hypercalcaemia)
(A) May occur when parathyroid level decreases (B) May occur when plasma protein level falls
(C) May occur in chronic liver failure (D) Predisposes to renal stone formation
Ans: D
Related Pages
- General Medicine
- Medicine- Page 1
- Medicine- Page 2
- Medicine- Page 3
- Medicine- Page 4
- Medicine- Page 5
- Medicine- Page 6
- Medicine- Page 7
- Medicine- Page 8
- Medicine- Page 9
- Medicine- Page 10
- Medicine- Page 11
- Anaesthesiology
- Clinical Psychology
- Community Medicine
- Community Medicine- Page 1
- CSR Technician- Medicine
- Dental
- Dental- Page 1
- Dental- Page 2
- Dental- Page 3
- Dermatology and Venerology
- Dialysis
- ECG Technician
- ENT
- General Surgery
- Genito Urinary Surgery
- Human Anatomy
- Human Anatomy- Page 1
- Infectious Diseases
- Nursing
- Nursing -Page 1
- Nursing -Page 2
- Nursing -Page 3
- Nursing -Page 4
- Nursing -Page 5
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Obstetrics and Gynaecology- Page 1
- Opthalmology
- Orthopaedics
- Orthopaedics- Page 1
- Oto-Rhino-Laryngology (ENT)
- Paediatrics
- Paediatrics- Page 1
- Pathology
- Pathology-Page 1
- Radiodiagnosis
- Radiotheraphy
- Radiotheraphy- Page 1
- Radiotheraphy- Page 2
- Radiotheraphy- Page 3
- Radiotheraphy- Page 4
- Rehabilitation Technician
- Social Medicine and Community Health
- Speech Pathology
- Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- Surgical Gasteroenterology
- Toxicology
- Transfusion Medicine (Bloodbank)
- Tuberculosis and Respiratory Medicine