ORTHOPAEDIC SURGEON
ORTHOPAEDIC SURGEON MCQs
1. A twisting injury of knee in flexed position would result in injury to all except
(A) Meniscal tear (B) Capsular tear (C) Anterior cruciate ligament (D) Fibular collateral ligament
Ans: D
2. Q angle is used for (A) Knee (B) Hip (C) Elbow (D) Wrist
Ans: A
3. A patient gives a history of twisting strain and locking of the knee joint, the most likely diagnosis is
(A) Avulsion of tibial tubercle (B) Meniscal tear (C) Tearing of lateral collateral ligament (D) Tearing of anterior cruciate ligament
Ans: B
4. Gamekeeper’s thumb is
(A) Ulnar collateral ligament injury of mcp joint (B) Radial collateral ligament injury of mcp joint
(C) Radial collateral ligament of cmc joint (D) Ulnar collateral ligament of cmc joint
Ans: A
5. Jersey finger is caused by rupture of
(A) Flexor digitorum profundus (B) Extensor digiti minimi (C) Flexor digitorum superficialis (D) Extensor indicis
Ans: A
6. Test used for prolapsed intervertebral disc is
(A) Active straight leg raising test (B) Lasegue test (C) Thomas test (D) Apley’s grinding test
Ans: B
7. In spondylolisthesis, there is fracture of vertebra is
(A) Spinous process (B) Neural arch pars interarticularis (C) Transverse process (D) Body
Ans: B
8. Cervical spondylosis is most common at
(A) C1-C2 (B) C2-C3 (C) C6-C7 (D) C4-C5
Ans: C
9. Causes of painful arc syndrome in shoulder is
(A) Supraspinatus tendinitis (B) Subacromial bursitis (C) Fracture of greater tuberosity (D) All of the above
Ans: D
10. Pulley involved in trigger finger is
(A) A1 (B) A2 (C) A3 (D) A4
Ans: A
11. Radio-resistant tumors amongst the following is
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma (B) Multiple myeloma (C) Osteosarcoma (D) Lymphoma
Ans: C
12. Following nerve injury, the injured nerve regenerates at a rate of
(A) 0.001 cm/day (B) 0.1 cm/day (C) 10 mm/day (D) 0.00001 cm/day
Ans: B
13. While performing flexor tendon repair, graft is taken from
(A) Plantaris (B) Palmaris longus (C) Extensor digitorum (D) Extensor indicis
Ans: B
14. Nerve with best recovery is
(A) Ulnar (B) median (C) Sciatic (D) radial
Ans: D
15. Klumpke’s paralysis involves
(A) C1-C2 (B) C4-C5 (C) C5-C6 (D) C8-T1
Ans: D
16. Damage to median nerve produces
(A) Claw hand (B) Wringing of scapula (C) Ape thumb (D) Wrist drop
Ans: C
17. Froment’s sign is seen in
(A) Ulnar nerve palsy (B) Median nerve palsy (C) Musculocutaneous nerve palsy (D) Posterior interosseous nerve palsy
Ans: A
18. A patient with leprosy comes with clumsiness of hand. His ulnar nerve is affected. Clumsiness is due to palsy of
(A) Extensor carpi unaris (B) Abductor pollicis longus (C) Opponesns policis (D) Interossei muscle
Ans: D
19. High stepping gait is seen in
(A) CTEV (B) Common peroneal nerve palsy (C) Polio (D) Cerebral palsy
Ans: B
20. Meralgia paraesthetica is due to involvement of
(A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (B) Ilioinguinal nerve (C) Genitofemoral nerve (D) Saphenous nerve
Ans: A
21. In carpal tunnel syndrome, test used for diagnosis is
(A) Phalen’s test (B) Finkelstein test (C) Cozen test (D) Thompson test
Ans: A
22. Test for tight iliotibial band is
(A) Ober’s test (B) Osber’s test (C) Simmand’s test (D) Charnley’s test
Ans: A
23. Which of the following is the investigation of choice for perthe’s disease?
(A) MRI (B) X-ray (C) CT-Scan (D) USG
Ans: A
24. Sunray appearance in osteosarcoma is due to
(A) Periosteal reaction (B) Muscle fibre calcification (C) Blood vessel calcification (D) Bone resorption
Ans: A
25. For screening of neonatal hip instability most commonly used modality is
(A) USG (B) MRI (C) CT-Scan (D) X-ray
Ans: A
26. Multiple bone metastases are diagnosed by
(A) X-ray (B) CT-Scan (C) MRI (D) Bone scan
Ans: D
27. Total duration of antibiotics in acute osteomyelitis is
(A) 4 weeks (B) 2 weeks (C) 6 weeks (D) 8 weeks
Ans: C
28. Post-traumatic causing osteomyelitis organism is
(A) Staph. Aureus (B) Staph. Pyogenes (C) E.coli (D) Pseudomonas
Ans: A
29. The location of femoral tunnel in arthroscopic acl reconstruction in a left knee should be
(A) 12 O’clock position (B) 10 O’clock position (C) 2 O’clock position (D) 6 O’clock position
Ans: C
30. An 8-year old boy presents with a gradually progressing swelling and pain since 6 months over the upper tibia. On x-ray, there is a lytic lesion with sclerotic margins in the upper tibial metaphysis. The diagnosis is
(A) Osteogenic sarcoma (B) Osteoclastoma (C) Brodie’s abscess (D) Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans: C
31. The most common organism causing osteomyelitis in drug abusers is
(A) E. Coli (B) Pseudomonas (C) Klebseilla (D) Staph aureus
Ans: B
32. Tom smith arthritis is
(A) Tuberculous involvement of hip joint (B) Tuberculous involvement of knee joint
(C) Syphilitic involvement of hip joint (D) Septic arthritis of hip joint in infants
Ans: D
33. Most common joint involved in septic arthritis
(A) Knee (B) Hip (C) Shoulder (D) Elbow
Ans: A
34. A patient with swelling foot, pus discharge, multiple sinuses. Koh smear shows filamentous structures. Diagnosis is
(A) Osteomyelitis (B) Madura mycosis (C) Anthrax (D) Actinomycosis
Ans: B
35. Kanavel’s sign is positive in
(A) Tenosynovitis (B) Carpal tunnel syndrome (C) Trigger finger (D) Dupuytren’s contracture
Ans: A
36. The earliest radiological sign in pott’s disease is
(A) Erosion of vertebral bodies (B) Collapse and destruction of vertebra
(C) Narrowing of intervertebral disc space (D) Paraspinal soft tissue shadow
Ans: C
37. In a patient with tuberculosis of spine, the first neurological sign is
(A) Motor loss (B) Sensory loss (C) Increased deep tendon reflexes (D) Bladder involvement
Ans: C
38. Caries Sicca is seen in
(A) Hip (B) Shoulder (C) Knee (D) None of the above
Ans: B
39. In bony ankylosis, there is
(A) Painless, no movement (B) Painful complete movement (C) Painless, complete movement (D) Painful, incomplete movement
Ans: A
40. Deformity of hip joint in case of tubercular synovitis is
(A) Flexion abduction external rotation (B) Flexion adduction external rotation
(C) Flexion abduction internal rotation (D) Flexion adduction internal rotation
Ans: A
41. Wolff’s law states that
(A) If a bone is continuously subjected to a particular stress, it will adapt to become stronger to resist that loading.
(B) Only diaphysis allows longitudinal growth in childhood
(C) Any infection not showing periosteal reaction within 1 week of symptoms can be ruled out to be osteomyelitis.
(D) Angular deformities will progress till the closure of physis.
Ans: A
42. Bone resorption is inhibited by
(A) Parathyroid hormone (B) Thyroid hormone (C) Cortisol (D) Estrogen
Ans: D
43. The first centre of ossification appears at
(A) The end of 2 months of intrauterine life (B) Beginning of 3rd month (C) End of 3rd month (D) End of 4th month
Ans: A
44. A patient presents with open fracture of tibia with 1.5 cm opening in skin. Which grade it belongs to
(A) Grade 1 (B) Grade 2 (C) Grade 3a (D) Grade 3b
Ans: B
45. Mirel’s criteria is developed for the evaluation of
(A) Risk of fatigue fracture (B) Severity of osteoporosis
(C) Risk of pathological fracture aftermetastasis (D) Severity of neurological deficit
Ans: C
46. Stress fracture is treated by
(A) Closed reduction (B) Cast immobilisation (C) Closed reduction (D) Internal fixation
Ans: B
47. Most common type of supracondylar humerus fracture in children is
(A) Postero-medial (B) Postero-lateral (C) Antero-medial (D) Antero-lateral
Ans: A
48. Commonest dislocation of elbow is
(A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Both same (D) Medial
Ans: B
49. A 6 year old child presented with valgus deformity at his right elbow since 3 years that is gradually progressive. He has a history of cast application for 6 weeks after fall on outstretched hand 3 years back. The probable fracture was
(A) Lateral condyle fracture humerus
(B) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
(C) Posterior dislocation of elbow
(D) Fracture medial condyle humerus
Ans: A
50. Spina ventosa is
(A) T.b. spine (B) T.b. hip (C) T.b. hand (D) T.b. shoulder
Ans: C
(A) Meniscal tear (B) Capsular tear (C) Anterior cruciate ligament (D) Fibular collateral ligament
Ans: D
2. Q angle is used for (A) Knee (B) Hip (C) Elbow (D) Wrist
Ans: A
3. A patient gives a history of twisting strain and locking of the knee joint, the most likely diagnosis is
(A) Avulsion of tibial tubercle (B) Meniscal tear (C) Tearing of lateral collateral ligament (D) Tearing of anterior cruciate ligament
Ans: B
4. Gamekeeper’s thumb is
(A) Ulnar collateral ligament injury of mcp joint (B) Radial collateral ligament injury of mcp joint
(C) Radial collateral ligament of cmc joint (D) Ulnar collateral ligament of cmc joint
Ans: A
5. Jersey finger is caused by rupture of
(A) Flexor digitorum profundus (B) Extensor digiti minimi (C) Flexor digitorum superficialis (D) Extensor indicis
Ans: A
6. Test used for prolapsed intervertebral disc is
(A) Active straight leg raising test (B) Lasegue test (C) Thomas test (D) Apley’s grinding test
Ans: B
7. In spondylolisthesis, there is fracture of vertebra is
(A) Spinous process (B) Neural arch pars interarticularis (C) Transverse process (D) Body
Ans: B
8. Cervical spondylosis is most common at
(A) C1-C2 (B) C2-C3 (C) C6-C7 (D) C4-C5
Ans: C
9. Causes of painful arc syndrome in shoulder is
(A) Supraspinatus tendinitis (B) Subacromial bursitis (C) Fracture of greater tuberosity (D) All of the above
Ans: D
10. Pulley involved in trigger finger is
(A) A1 (B) A2 (C) A3 (D) A4
Ans: A
11. Radio-resistant tumors amongst the following is
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma (B) Multiple myeloma (C) Osteosarcoma (D) Lymphoma
Ans: C
12. Following nerve injury, the injured nerve regenerates at a rate of
(A) 0.001 cm/day (B) 0.1 cm/day (C) 10 mm/day (D) 0.00001 cm/day
Ans: B
13. While performing flexor tendon repair, graft is taken from
(A) Plantaris (B) Palmaris longus (C) Extensor digitorum (D) Extensor indicis
Ans: B
14. Nerve with best recovery is
(A) Ulnar (B) median (C) Sciatic (D) radial
Ans: D
15. Klumpke’s paralysis involves
(A) C1-C2 (B) C4-C5 (C) C5-C6 (D) C8-T1
Ans: D
16. Damage to median nerve produces
(A) Claw hand (B) Wringing of scapula (C) Ape thumb (D) Wrist drop
Ans: C
17. Froment’s sign is seen in
(A) Ulnar nerve palsy (B) Median nerve palsy (C) Musculocutaneous nerve palsy (D) Posterior interosseous nerve palsy
Ans: A
18. A patient with leprosy comes with clumsiness of hand. His ulnar nerve is affected. Clumsiness is due to palsy of
(A) Extensor carpi unaris (B) Abductor pollicis longus (C) Opponesns policis (D) Interossei muscle
Ans: D
19. High stepping gait is seen in
(A) CTEV (B) Common peroneal nerve palsy (C) Polio (D) Cerebral palsy
Ans: B
20. Meralgia paraesthetica is due to involvement of
(A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (B) Ilioinguinal nerve (C) Genitofemoral nerve (D) Saphenous nerve
Ans: A
21. In carpal tunnel syndrome, test used for diagnosis is
(A) Phalen’s test (B) Finkelstein test (C) Cozen test (D) Thompson test
Ans: A
22. Test for tight iliotibial band is
(A) Ober’s test (B) Osber’s test (C) Simmand’s test (D) Charnley’s test
Ans: A
23. Which of the following is the investigation of choice for perthe’s disease?
(A) MRI (B) X-ray (C) CT-Scan (D) USG
Ans: A
24. Sunray appearance in osteosarcoma is due to
(A) Periosteal reaction (B) Muscle fibre calcification (C) Blood vessel calcification (D) Bone resorption
Ans: A
25. For screening of neonatal hip instability most commonly used modality is
(A) USG (B) MRI (C) CT-Scan (D) X-ray
Ans: A
26. Multiple bone metastases are diagnosed by
(A) X-ray (B) CT-Scan (C) MRI (D) Bone scan
Ans: D
27. Total duration of antibiotics in acute osteomyelitis is
(A) 4 weeks (B) 2 weeks (C) 6 weeks (D) 8 weeks
Ans: C
28. Post-traumatic causing osteomyelitis organism is
(A) Staph. Aureus (B) Staph. Pyogenes (C) E.coli (D) Pseudomonas
Ans: A
29. The location of femoral tunnel in arthroscopic acl reconstruction in a left knee should be
(A) 12 O’clock position (B) 10 O’clock position (C) 2 O’clock position (D) 6 O’clock position
Ans: C
30. An 8-year old boy presents with a gradually progressing swelling and pain since 6 months over the upper tibia. On x-ray, there is a lytic lesion with sclerotic margins in the upper tibial metaphysis. The diagnosis is
(A) Osteogenic sarcoma (B) Osteoclastoma (C) Brodie’s abscess (D) Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans: C
31. The most common organism causing osteomyelitis in drug abusers is
(A) E. Coli (B) Pseudomonas (C) Klebseilla (D) Staph aureus
Ans: B
32. Tom smith arthritis is
(A) Tuberculous involvement of hip joint (B) Tuberculous involvement of knee joint
(C) Syphilitic involvement of hip joint (D) Septic arthritis of hip joint in infants
Ans: D
33. Most common joint involved in septic arthritis
(A) Knee (B) Hip (C) Shoulder (D) Elbow
Ans: A
34. A patient with swelling foot, pus discharge, multiple sinuses. Koh smear shows filamentous structures. Diagnosis is
(A) Osteomyelitis (B) Madura mycosis (C) Anthrax (D) Actinomycosis
Ans: B
35. Kanavel’s sign is positive in
(A) Tenosynovitis (B) Carpal tunnel syndrome (C) Trigger finger (D) Dupuytren’s contracture
Ans: A
36. The earliest radiological sign in pott’s disease is
(A) Erosion of vertebral bodies (B) Collapse and destruction of vertebra
(C) Narrowing of intervertebral disc space (D) Paraspinal soft tissue shadow
Ans: C
37. In a patient with tuberculosis of spine, the first neurological sign is
(A) Motor loss (B) Sensory loss (C) Increased deep tendon reflexes (D) Bladder involvement
Ans: C
38. Caries Sicca is seen in
(A) Hip (B) Shoulder (C) Knee (D) None of the above
Ans: B
39. In bony ankylosis, there is
(A) Painless, no movement (B) Painful complete movement (C) Painless, complete movement (D) Painful, incomplete movement
Ans: A
40. Deformity of hip joint in case of tubercular synovitis is
(A) Flexion abduction external rotation (B) Flexion adduction external rotation
(C) Flexion abduction internal rotation (D) Flexion adduction internal rotation
Ans: A
41. Wolff’s law states that
(A) If a bone is continuously subjected to a particular stress, it will adapt to become stronger to resist that loading.
(B) Only diaphysis allows longitudinal growth in childhood
(C) Any infection not showing periosteal reaction within 1 week of symptoms can be ruled out to be osteomyelitis.
(D) Angular deformities will progress till the closure of physis.
Ans: A
42. Bone resorption is inhibited by
(A) Parathyroid hormone (B) Thyroid hormone (C) Cortisol (D) Estrogen
Ans: D
43. The first centre of ossification appears at
(A) The end of 2 months of intrauterine life (B) Beginning of 3rd month (C) End of 3rd month (D) End of 4th month
Ans: A
44. A patient presents with open fracture of tibia with 1.5 cm opening in skin. Which grade it belongs to
(A) Grade 1 (B) Grade 2 (C) Grade 3a (D) Grade 3b
Ans: B
45. Mirel’s criteria is developed for the evaluation of
(A) Risk of fatigue fracture (B) Severity of osteoporosis
(C) Risk of pathological fracture aftermetastasis (D) Severity of neurological deficit
Ans: C
46. Stress fracture is treated by
(A) Closed reduction (B) Cast immobilisation (C) Closed reduction (D) Internal fixation
Ans: B
47. Most common type of supracondylar humerus fracture in children is
(A) Postero-medial (B) Postero-lateral (C) Antero-medial (D) Antero-lateral
Ans: A
48. Commonest dislocation of elbow is
(A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Both same (D) Medial
Ans: B
49. A 6 year old child presented with valgus deformity at his right elbow since 3 years that is gradually progressive. He has a history of cast application for 6 weeks after fall on outstretched hand 3 years back. The probable fracture was
(A) Lateral condyle fracture humerus
(B) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
(C) Posterior dislocation of elbow
(D) Fracture medial condyle humerus
Ans: A
50. Spina ventosa is
(A) T.b. spine (B) T.b. hip (C) T.b. hand (D) T.b. shoulder
Ans: C
51. In hypertrophic non-union following a fracture, the most appropriate treatment would be
(A) Stabilisation (B) Bone grafting (C) Stabilisation and bone grafting (D) None of the above
Ans: A
52. A victim of road traffic accident with shaft femur fracture, the first line of management
(A) Splint (B) Iv fluid (C) Airway maintenance (D) Breathing
Ans: C
53. What is normal orientation of humeral head
(A) Retroversion of 80 degrees (B) Retroversion of 30 degrees
(C) Anteversion of 15 degrees (D) Anteversion of 50 degrees
Ans: B
54. Hill-Sachs lesion in recurrent shoulder dislocation is due to
(A) Injury to humeral head (B) Rupture of tendon of supraspinatus
(C) Avulsion of glenoid labrum (D) None of the above
Ans: A
55. Traumatic glenohumeral instability in one direction are treated by
(A) Conservative method (B) Surgery (C) Rehabilitation (D) Inferior capsular shift
Ans: B
56. In posterior elbow dislocation, most common nerve involved is
(A) Ulnar (B) Median (C) Radial (D) Musculocutaneous
Ans: A
57. First to appear amongst the ossification centres about the elbow is
(A) Radial head (B) Olecranon (C) Lateral epicondyle (D) Capitellum
Ans: D
58. Three point bony replation is maintained in
(A) Supracondylar fracture humerus (B) Elbow dislocation
(C) Lateral condyle humerus fracture (D) Intercondylar fracture humerus
Ans: A
59. Which is the earliest reliable sign of compartment syndrome?
(A) Stretch pain (B) Pulselessness (C) Paraesthesia (D) Pallor
Ans: A
60. ‘Volkmann’s ischemic contracture’ mostly involves which muscle in upper limb?
(A) Flexor digitorum superficialis (B) Pronator teres (C) Flexor digitorum profundus (D) Flexor carpi radialis
Ans: C
61. Most common site of myositis ossificans is
(A) Knee (B) Elbow (C) Shoulder (D) Wrist
Ans: B
62. A mother catches her 3-year old child by wrist and lifts her. The child does not move her elbow and cries. Most likely this is a case of.
(A) Shoulder dislocation (B) Elbow dislocation (C) Pulled elbow (D) Colles fracture
Ans: C
63. Posterior interosseus nerve is injured in
(A) Posterior dislocation of elbow (B) Monteggia fracture dislocation
(C) Reversed monteggia fracture dislocation (D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
Ans: B
64. Fracture of both bone forearm at mid-arm level, position of arm in plaster should be
(A) Full supination (B) 10 degree supination (C) Full pronation (D) Mid-prone
Ans: D
65. Fracture of proximal forearm cast, position is
(A) Pronated flexion (B) Neutral position (C) Supinated position (D) Position does not matter
Ans: C
66. Dinner fork deformity is seen in
(A) Colles fracture (B) March fracture (C) Lateral condyle fracture (D) Supracondylar fracture
Ans: A
67. Sudeck’s dystrophy symptoms are all except
(A) Pain (B) Increased bone density (C) Sweating (D) Stiffness
Ans: B
68. Smith’s fracture involves which bone
(A) Distal radius (B) Proximal ulna (C) Metatarsal (D) Patella
Ans: A
69. In non-union of scaphoid vascularized muscle pedicle graft is taken from
(A) Pronator teres (B) Brachioradialis (C) Pronator quadratus (D) Extensor pollicis longus
Ans: C
70. Boxer’s fracture is
(A) Radial styloid fracture (B) Reverse colle’s fracture (C) 5th metacarpal fracture (D) 1st metacarpal fracture
Ans: C
71. Denis gave how many columns theory to define stability of spine
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans: C
72. L4-L5 disc prolapse compresses commonly
(A) L3 (B) L4 (C) L5 (D) S1
Ans: C
73. Clay-shoveler’s fracture is
(A) Fracture of spinous process of lower cervical and upper thoracic vertebra
(B) Fracture of spinous process of mid-thoracic vertebra
(C) Fracture of spinous process of lumbar vertebra
(D) Spinous process fracture of lower cervical vertebrae
Ans: A
74. Motorcyclist’s fracture is
(A) Stellate fracture across base of skull
(B) Transverse fracture across base of skull
(C) Lamina fracture of C7 vertebra
(D) Spinous process fracture of C7 vertebra
Ans: B
75. Tear drop fracture of lower cervical spine implies
(A) Wedge compression fracture (B) Axial compression fracture
(C) Flexion-rotation injury with failure of anterior body (D) Flexion compression failure of body
Ans: D
76. Thomas test helps to detect
(A) Adduction deformity of the hip (B) Integrity of abductor mechanism
(C) Fixed flexion deformity of hip (D) Apparent shortening at hip joint
Ans: C
77. Trendelenberg test is mainly for
(A) Gluteus maximus (B) Gluteus medius (C) Gluteus minimus (D) Biceps femoris
Ans: B
78. Judet view of x-ray is
(A) Pelvis (B) Calcaneum (C) Scaphoid (D) Shoulder
Ans: A
79. Increase in pauwel’s angle indicate
(A) Good prognosis (B) Impaction (C) More chances of displacement (D) Trabecular alignment disrupted
Ans: C
80. In fracture neck femur all the trabeculae of pelvis and femur are in alignment in which stage
(A) Stage 1 (B) Stage 2 (C) Stage 3 (D) Stage 4
Ans: B
81. Not a complication of neck femur fracture
(A) Non-union (B) Malunion (C) Avn (D) Osteoarthritis
Ans: B
82. McMurray’s osteotomy is based on the following principle
(A) Biological (B) Biomechanical (C) Biotechnical (D) Mechanical
Ans: B
83. Flexion. Adduction, internal rotation is chracteristic posture in
(A) Anterior dislocation of hip (B) Posterior dislocation of hip (C) Fracture of femoral head (D) Fracture shaft of femur
Ans: B
84. Pipkin’s classification is for fracture of
(A) Femur head (B) Femur neck (C) Tibia plateau (D) Hip dislocation
Ans: A
85. A child was given gallows traction. The diagnosis is
(A) Fracture shaft femur (B) Fracture shaft humerus (C) Fracture ulna (D) Spine injury
Ans: A
86. Regarding gurd’s criteria all are correct except
(A) Diagnostic criteria for fat embolism syndrome (B) Pulmonary embolism is a major criteria
(C) Thrombocytopenia is a major criteria (D) PaO2 < 60 is a major criteria
Ans: C
87. Ankle sprain ligament involved is
(A) Anterior talofibular ligament (B) Posterior talofibular ligament (C) Calcaneofibular ligament (D) Spring ligament
Ans: A
88. Runner’s fracture includes
(A) Tibia (B) Fibula (C) Metatarsal (D) Talus
Ans: B
89. Most commonly injured tarsal bone is
(A) Talus (B) Navicular (C) Cuneiform (D) Calcaneum
Ans: D
90. Gissane’s angle of calcaneum in intra-articular fracture is
(A) Reduced (B) Increased (C) Not chaanged (D) Variable
Ans: B
91. Aviator’s fracture includes
(A) Talus (B) Calcaneum (C) Tibia (D) Hip
Ans: A
92. Pelligrini-stieda disease is
(A) Avulsion of femoral attachment of MCL (B) Avulsion of tibial attachment of MCL
(C) Avulsion of femoral attachment of LCL (D) Avulsion of tibial attachment of LCL
Ans: A
93. Striated vertebrae are seen in
(A) Metastasis (B) Tuberculosis (C) Hemangioma (D) Osteoblastoma
Ans: C
94. Ewing’s sarcoma is characterised by all except
(A) Diaphysis in location (B) Locally malignant (C) Soap bubble appearance (D) Onion peel appearance on X-ray
Ans: C
95. Principle of tens for alleviating pain around joints and nerve pain
(A) Gate theory of pain control (B) Referred pain (C) Decreases substance p (D) Local heat at site
Ans: A
96. Jaipur foot was invented by
(A) P. K. Sethi (B) S. K. Verma (C) B. L. Sehgal (D) H. R. Gupta
Ans: A
97. Sach foot all are true except
(A) Solid ankle cushion heel (B) Prosthesis (C) Squatting is easy (D) Does not look like a normal foot
Ans: C
98. Ring sequestrum is seen in
(A) Typhoid osteomyelitis (B) Chronic osteomyelitis (C) Amputation stump (D) Tuberculosis osteomyelitis
Ans: C
99. Muscle with intra-articular tendon is
(A) Popliteus (B) Semimembranosus (C) Sartorius (D) Triceps
Ans: A
100. Which activity will be diificult to perform for a patient with an anterior cruciate ligament deficient knee joint?
(A) Walk downhill (B) Walk uphill (C) Sit cross leg (D) Getting up from sitting
Ans: A
(A) Stabilisation (B) Bone grafting (C) Stabilisation and bone grafting (D) None of the above
Ans: A
52. A victim of road traffic accident with shaft femur fracture, the first line of management
(A) Splint (B) Iv fluid (C) Airway maintenance (D) Breathing
Ans: C
53. What is normal orientation of humeral head
(A) Retroversion of 80 degrees (B) Retroversion of 30 degrees
(C) Anteversion of 15 degrees (D) Anteversion of 50 degrees
Ans: B
54. Hill-Sachs lesion in recurrent shoulder dislocation is due to
(A) Injury to humeral head (B) Rupture of tendon of supraspinatus
(C) Avulsion of glenoid labrum (D) None of the above
Ans: A
55. Traumatic glenohumeral instability in one direction are treated by
(A) Conservative method (B) Surgery (C) Rehabilitation (D) Inferior capsular shift
Ans: B
56. In posterior elbow dislocation, most common nerve involved is
(A) Ulnar (B) Median (C) Radial (D) Musculocutaneous
Ans: A
57. First to appear amongst the ossification centres about the elbow is
(A) Radial head (B) Olecranon (C) Lateral epicondyle (D) Capitellum
Ans: D
58. Three point bony replation is maintained in
(A) Supracondylar fracture humerus (B) Elbow dislocation
(C) Lateral condyle humerus fracture (D) Intercondylar fracture humerus
Ans: A
59. Which is the earliest reliable sign of compartment syndrome?
(A) Stretch pain (B) Pulselessness (C) Paraesthesia (D) Pallor
Ans: A
60. ‘Volkmann’s ischemic contracture’ mostly involves which muscle in upper limb?
(A) Flexor digitorum superficialis (B) Pronator teres (C) Flexor digitorum profundus (D) Flexor carpi radialis
Ans: C
61. Most common site of myositis ossificans is
(A) Knee (B) Elbow (C) Shoulder (D) Wrist
Ans: B
62. A mother catches her 3-year old child by wrist and lifts her. The child does not move her elbow and cries. Most likely this is a case of.
(A) Shoulder dislocation (B) Elbow dislocation (C) Pulled elbow (D) Colles fracture
Ans: C
63. Posterior interosseus nerve is injured in
(A) Posterior dislocation of elbow (B) Monteggia fracture dislocation
(C) Reversed monteggia fracture dislocation (D) Supracondylar fracture of humerus
Ans: B
64. Fracture of both bone forearm at mid-arm level, position of arm in plaster should be
(A) Full supination (B) 10 degree supination (C) Full pronation (D) Mid-prone
Ans: D
65. Fracture of proximal forearm cast, position is
(A) Pronated flexion (B) Neutral position (C) Supinated position (D) Position does not matter
Ans: C
66. Dinner fork deformity is seen in
(A) Colles fracture (B) March fracture (C) Lateral condyle fracture (D) Supracondylar fracture
Ans: A
67. Sudeck’s dystrophy symptoms are all except
(A) Pain (B) Increased bone density (C) Sweating (D) Stiffness
Ans: B
68. Smith’s fracture involves which bone
(A) Distal radius (B) Proximal ulna (C) Metatarsal (D) Patella
Ans: A
69. In non-union of scaphoid vascularized muscle pedicle graft is taken from
(A) Pronator teres (B) Brachioradialis (C) Pronator quadratus (D) Extensor pollicis longus
Ans: C
70. Boxer’s fracture is
(A) Radial styloid fracture (B) Reverse colle’s fracture (C) 5th metacarpal fracture (D) 1st metacarpal fracture
Ans: C
71. Denis gave how many columns theory to define stability of spine
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans: C
72. L4-L5 disc prolapse compresses commonly
(A) L3 (B) L4 (C) L5 (D) S1
Ans: C
73. Clay-shoveler’s fracture is
(A) Fracture of spinous process of lower cervical and upper thoracic vertebra
(B) Fracture of spinous process of mid-thoracic vertebra
(C) Fracture of spinous process of lumbar vertebra
(D) Spinous process fracture of lower cervical vertebrae
Ans: A
74. Motorcyclist’s fracture is
(A) Stellate fracture across base of skull
(B) Transverse fracture across base of skull
(C) Lamina fracture of C7 vertebra
(D) Spinous process fracture of C7 vertebra
Ans: B
75. Tear drop fracture of lower cervical spine implies
(A) Wedge compression fracture (B) Axial compression fracture
(C) Flexion-rotation injury with failure of anterior body (D) Flexion compression failure of body
Ans: D
76. Thomas test helps to detect
(A) Adduction deformity of the hip (B) Integrity of abductor mechanism
(C) Fixed flexion deformity of hip (D) Apparent shortening at hip joint
Ans: C
77. Trendelenberg test is mainly for
(A) Gluteus maximus (B) Gluteus medius (C) Gluteus minimus (D) Biceps femoris
Ans: B
78. Judet view of x-ray is
(A) Pelvis (B) Calcaneum (C) Scaphoid (D) Shoulder
Ans: A
79. Increase in pauwel’s angle indicate
(A) Good prognosis (B) Impaction (C) More chances of displacement (D) Trabecular alignment disrupted
Ans: C
80. In fracture neck femur all the trabeculae of pelvis and femur are in alignment in which stage
(A) Stage 1 (B) Stage 2 (C) Stage 3 (D) Stage 4
Ans: B
81. Not a complication of neck femur fracture
(A) Non-union (B) Malunion (C) Avn (D) Osteoarthritis
Ans: B
82. McMurray’s osteotomy is based on the following principle
(A) Biological (B) Biomechanical (C) Biotechnical (D) Mechanical
Ans: B
83. Flexion. Adduction, internal rotation is chracteristic posture in
(A) Anterior dislocation of hip (B) Posterior dislocation of hip (C) Fracture of femoral head (D) Fracture shaft of femur
Ans: B
84. Pipkin’s classification is for fracture of
(A) Femur head (B) Femur neck (C) Tibia plateau (D) Hip dislocation
Ans: A
85. A child was given gallows traction. The diagnosis is
(A) Fracture shaft femur (B) Fracture shaft humerus (C) Fracture ulna (D) Spine injury
Ans: A
86. Regarding gurd’s criteria all are correct except
(A) Diagnostic criteria for fat embolism syndrome (B) Pulmonary embolism is a major criteria
(C) Thrombocytopenia is a major criteria (D) PaO2 < 60 is a major criteria
Ans: C
87. Ankle sprain ligament involved is
(A) Anterior talofibular ligament (B) Posterior talofibular ligament (C) Calcaneofibular ligament (D) Spring ligament
Ans: A
88. Runner’s fracture includes
(A) Tibia (B) Fibula (C) Metatarsal (D) Talus
Ans: B
89. Most commonly injured tarsal bone is
(A) Talus (B) Navicular (C) Cuneiform (D) Calcaneum
Ans: D
90. Gissane’s angle of calcaneum in intra-articular fracture is
(A) Reduced (B) Increased (C) Not chaanged (D) Variable
Ans: B
91. Aviator’s fracture includes
(A) Talus (B) Calcaneum (C) Tibia (D) Hip
Ans: A
92. Pelligrini-stieda disease is
(A) Avulsion of femoral attachment of MCL (B) Avulsion of tibial attachment of MCL
(C) Avulsion of femoral attachment of LCL (D) Avulsion of tibial attachment of LCL
Ans: A
93. Striated vertebrae are seen in
(A) Metastasis (B) Tuberculosis (C) Hemangioma (D) Osteoblastoma
Ans: C
94. Ewing’s sarcoma is characterised by all except
(A) Diaphysis in location (B) Locally malignant (C) Soap bubble appearance (D) Onion peel appearance on X-ray
Ans: C
95. Principle of tens for alleviating pain around joints and nerve pain
(A) Gate theory of pain control (B) Referred pain (C) Decreases substance p (D) Local heat at site
Ans: A
96. Jaipur foot was invented by
(A) P. K. Sethi (B) S. K. Verma (C) B. L. Sehgal (D) H. R. Gupta
Ans: A
97. Sach foot all are true except
(A) Solid ankle cushion heel (B) Prosthesis (C) Squatting is easy (D) Does not look like a normal foot
Ans: C
98. Ring sequestrum is seen in
(A) Typhoid osteomyelitis (B) Chronic osteomyelitis (C) Amputation stump (D) Tuberculosis osteomyelitis
Ans: C
99. Muscle with intra-articular tendon is
(A) Popliteus (B) Semimembranosus (C) Sartorius (D) Triceps
Ans: A
100. Which activity will be diificult to perform for a patient with an anterior cruciate ligament deficient knee joint?
(A) Walk downhill (B) Walk uphill (C) Sit cross leg (D) Getting up from sitting
Ans: A
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