FISHERIES SCIENCE- PAGE 14
1. Preferred order of electron acceptors in bioremediation
A) Iron, Nitrate, Sulfate, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate, Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon dioxide, Sulfate, Iron, Oxygen, Nitrate
D) Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate
Ans: B
2. Which among the following is not true about SPF animal ?
A) SPF status doesn’t refer their susceptibility to infection or disease
B) Developed through a rigorous quarantine and disease screening process
C) Result from a specific breeding programme designed to increase resistance
D) All
Ans: C
3. Concentration of nitrite above 2 ppm in the culture tank can cause
A) New tank syndrome
B) Air bubble disease
C) Brown blood disease
D) Acidosis
Ans: C
4. Fishery of __________ are characterised by high interannual fluctuations due to fishing or natural factors.
A) Small pelagics B) Large pelagics
C) Demersal fishes D) Crustaceans
Ans: A
5. Which one of the following is a carrageenan yielding seaweed ?
A) Gracilaria corticata B) Caulerpa racemosa
C) Gelidiella acerosa D) Kappaphycus alvarezi
Ans: D
6. __________ is obtained at a level of fishing effort that is lower than that required to maximize yield in weight.
A) Maximum Economic Yield B) Maximum Sustainable Yield
C) Economic Break-even Point D) Maximum Fishing Employment
Ans: A
7. Fishery of __________ is a role model for ecosystem based fisheries management and is considered as the world’s best managed fishery.
A) Thunnus albacares B) Thunnus maccoyii
C) Clupea harengus of north east Atlantic D) Gadus chalcogrammus
Ans: D
8. Advantages of implementation of minimum legal size include
A) Prevention of growth overfishing
B) Promotion of ethical and responsible fisheries
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above
Ans: C
9. Which of the following scheme of the Government of India has the target of increasing fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 ?
A) Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund
B) Matsya Samridhi
C) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
D) Blue Revolution
Ans: C
10. ___________ is an oceanographic payload carried by IRS P4 capable of retrieving chlorophyll intensity, used for the identification of Potential Fishing Zones.
A) OCM B) MSMR
C) LISS D) WiFS
Ans: A
11. Which among the following is Froude’s number ?
A) Ratio between the aft perpendicular and forward perpendicular of a fishing vessel
B) Ratio between the water line and load water line of a fishing vessel
C) Ratio between the speed in knots and the square root of the length of water line in feet of a fishing vessel
D) Ratio between the displacement tonnage and dead weight tonnage of a fishing Vessel
Ans: C
12. Most promising fish and shrimp immunostimulant isolated from the yeast cell wall
A) Chitin B) Peptidoglycan
C) Laminaran D) Glucans
Ans: D
13. During the first stage of the mechanization of fishing boats in India, a few indigenous fishing boats were found to be suitable for mechanization with a little modification. They were successfully mechanized under the guidance of FAO experts. Which among the following was found not suitable for mechanization ?
A) Kakinada Navas of Andhra Pradesh
B) Rampani Boats of Karnataka
C) Tuticorin Boats of Tamil Nadu
D) Batchari Boats of West Bengal
Ans: B
14. The lines representing the sections of ships or the boundaries of waterplanes are in general fair curves which cannot be represented by a single mathematical equation. To apply various arithmetical methods, it is assumed that the curved boundaries consist of a series of parabolic curves. Which among the following methods is mainly used for specific calculations such as stability ?
A) Trapezoidal rule B) Simpson’s rule
C) Tchebycheff’s rule D) Midpoint rule
Ans: C
15. The power available in the crank shaft of an engine after deducting the frictional loss in the working of an engine is known as
A) Shaft horse power B) Effective horse power
C) Indicated horse power D) Brake horse power
Ans: D
16. The form is used to describe the shape of ship’s hull. Comparison of one ship’s form with another is made using a number of coefficients. The ratio between the actual volume of the underwater form to the volume of a block with length equal to the length between perpendiculars, breadth equal to the breadth of the vessel and depth equal to the draft of the vessel is known as
A) Mid ship section area coefficient
B) Block coefficient
C) Prismatic coefficient
D) Waterplane area coefficient
Ans: B
17. Choose the odd one among the following otter boards
A) Suberkrub B) Rectangular flat
C) Rectangular curved D) V-form
Ans: A
18. If 9000 m of a single yarn weigh 10g, which among the following is the correct designation of this yarn ?
A) 10 Tex B) 10 Td
C) 10 Nm D) 10 Ne
Ans: B
19. The triangular piece of webbing used in a trawl to give a smooth catenary curve to the head rope of the trawl is known as
A) Overhang B) Quarter
C) Flapper D) Jib
Ans: D
20. What is the correct cutting rate to make webbing with 100 meshes on the top and 40 meshes at the bottom and with 90 meshes depth, if the tailoring is done only on one side ?
A) 1 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut B) 2 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut
C) 1 T or M cut : 4 Bar cut D) 2 T or M cut : 4 Bar cut
Ans: A
21. In the Redditch scale of hook numbering system the number designating the finest hook is
A) 15 B) 17 C) 18 D) 16
Ans: C
22. In Navigation, fixing present position or anticipated future position from a previous position, using known directions and distances is known as
A) Piloting B) Celestial Navigation
C) Radio Navigation D) Dead Reckoning
Ans: D
23. If a vessel engaged in day fishing hoist the signal flag ‘P’, what is the message conveyed ?
A) My net has come fast upon an obstruction
B) I am hauling net
C) Keep clear of me I am engaged in pair trawling
D) I am shooting net
Ans: A
24. Which among the following is the International Code signal of distress ?
A) Alfa Romeo (AR) B) November Charlie (NC)
C) Alfa Sierra (AS) D) Charlie Quebec (CQ)
Ans: B
25. The length of warp released in bottom otter trawling depends on the depth of the fishing ground and the nature of the sea bottom. The ratio of depth of the fishing ground and the warp released is known as
A) Aspect ratio B) Scope ratio
C) Slip ratio D) None of the above
Ans: B
26. Fresh water fishes contain a high level of _____________ than that of in the marine fishes.
A) Omega 3 fatty acids B) Myosin
C) Tropomyosin D) Omega 6 fatty acids
Ans: D
27. The canning process in which the release of gases from fish tissue and inhibit enzymatic reactions is achieved by the process called
A) Double seaming B) Sodium sulphate
C) Blanching D) Pressure steaming
Ans: C
28. The preservative value of smoking is characterized by the ____________ content present in the woods.
A) Phenolic B) Resinous C) Carbon dioxide D) Acidic
Ans: A
29. The transportation of frozen fish by air Cargo is done by using
A) Liquid nitrogen B) Air blast freezing
C) Solid carbon dioxide D) Brine freezing
Ans: C
30. Sorbic acid is used as a preservative to protect the fish from
A) Bacterial spoilage B) Glazing
C) Rancidity D) Fungal spoilage
Ans: D
31. The compound responsible for the foul odour due to spoilage of marine fish
A) Trimethylamine B) Trimethylamine oxide
C) Ammonia D) Pyridine
Ans: A
32. Onset of rigor mortis the changes of the muscle texture is due to
A) ATP hydrolysis B) Trimethylamine
C) Creatine phosphate D) Autolysis
Ans: A
33. Which amino acid is responsible for meaty flavour in scombroid fishes ?
A) Tryptophan B) Histidine C) Lysine D) Leucine
Ans: B
34. Isinglass has been prepared as a byproduct from
A) Fish scale B) Fish skin C) Air bladder D) Fish Roe
Ans: C
35. What is the ‘pit curing’ of fish ?
A) Wet salting B) Steam drying C) Freeze drying D) Hot smoking
Ans: A
36. Which among the following is an antifungal compound used in aquaculture ?
A) Trifuralin B) Crystal violet
C) Malachite green D) All
Ans: D
37. In TVB analysis, one of the following substance is considered as an excellent indicator for quality assessment of squids is
A) Trimethylamine B) Ammonia C) Dimethylamine D) NADH
Ans: B
38. The preventive measure is needed to be followed to reduce the effect of biotoxins and pathogens in live fish under HACCP
A) Avoid fishing in contaminated area
B) Ensure accuracy scale
C) Maintenance low-temperature
D) Candling
Ans: A
39. The autolysis in post mortem changes can reduce by __________ which helps in the quality and storage life of fatty fishes.
A) Evisceration B) Ice chilling C) Filleting D) Salting
Ans: A
40. Among the following fishes, the maximum shell life is showed while it is stored in ice from temperate conditions
A) Sardine B) Mackerel C) Tilapia D) Pacu
Ans: D
41. Lakes that is rich in humic and organic substance are called
A) Eutrophic B) Mesotrophic
C) Dystrophic D) Oligotrophic
Ans: C
42. Miscellaneous assemblage of organisms growing upon free surfaces of object, submerged in water is called as
A) Seston B) Nekton C) Neuston D) Periphyton
Ans: D
43. Frustules made of silica are characteristic of
A) Euglenoids B) Diatoms
C) Desmids D) Coccolithophores
Ans: B
44. The phenomenon with High Nutrient and Low ChlorophyII (HNLC) is also known as
A) Edge effect B) Water Paradox
C) Cascade effect D) Antarctic Paradox
Ans: D
45. The Redfield ratio, the C : N : P ratio in Indian ocean is
A) 120 : 30 : 1 B) 106 : 16 : 1 C) 100 : 12 : 1 D) 132 : 22 : 1
Ans: B
46. As per the latest FAO data (FAO 2020) India’s contribution on World aquaculture fish production is about
A) 8.5% B) 15% C) 2.5% D) 25%
Ans: A
47. Which among the following statement is true ? Increase of temperature in the aquaculture pond causes
i. Low oxygen solubility
ii. High metabolic rate of cultured species
iii. High oxygen solubility
iv. High ammonia toxicity
A) ii
B) i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) i, ii and iv
Ans: D
48. Ideal C/N ratio used in biofloc technology
A) 1 : 5
B) 15 : 1
C) 5 : 1
D) 1 : 15
Ans: B
49. Which among the following is an inorganic extractive cultured in IMTA ?
A) Salmon B) Blue mussels
C) Kelp D) Sea cucumber
Ans: C
50. Dolomite used for adjusting the pH/alkalinity in aquaculture pond is
A) CaCO3
B) MgCO3
C) CaMg(CO3)2
D) Na2CO3
Ans: C
A) Iron, Nitrate, Sulfate, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate, Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon dioxide, Sulfate, Iron, Oxygen, Nitrate
D) Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate
Ans: B
2. Which among the following is not true about SPF animal ?
A) SPF status doesn’t refer their susceptibility to infection or disease
B) Developed through a rigorous quarantine and disease screening process
C) Result from a specific breeding programme designed to increase resistance
D) All
Ans: C
3. Concentration of nitrite above 2 ppm in the culture tank can cause
A) New tank syndrome
B) Air bubble disease
C) Brown blood disease
D) Acidosis
Ans: C
4. Fishery of __________ are characterised by high interannual fluctuations due to fishing or natural factors.
A) Small pelagics B) Large pelagics
C) Demersal fishes D) Crustaceans
Ans: A
5. Which one of the following is a carrageenan yielding seaweed ?
A) Gracilaria corticata B) Caulerpa racemosa
C) Gelidiella acerosa D) Kappaphycus alvarezi
Ans: D
6. __________ is obtained at a level of fishing effort that is lower than that required to maximize yield in weight.
A) Maximum Economic Yield B) Maximum Sustainable Yield
C) Economic Break-even Point D) Maximum Fishing Employment
Ans: A
7. Fishery of __________ is a role model for ecosystem based fisheries management and is considered as the world’s best managed fishery.
A) Thunnus albacares B) Thunnus maccoyii
C) Clupea harengus of north east Atlantic D) Gadus chalcogrammus
Ans: D
8. Advantages of implementation of minimum legal size include
A) Prevention of growth overfishing
B) Promotion of ethical and responsible fisheries
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above
Ans: C
9. Which of the following scheme of the Government of India has the target of increasing fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 ?
A) Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund
B) Matsya Samridhi
C) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
D) Blue Revolution
Ans: C
10. ___________ is an oceanographic payload carried by IRS P4 capable of retrieving chlorophyll intensity, used for the identification of Potential Fishing Zones.
A) OCM B) MSMR
C) LISS D) WiFS
Ans: A
11. Which among the following is Froude’s number ?
A) Ratio between the aft perpendicular and forward perpendicular of a fishing vessel
B) Ratio between the water line and load water line of a fishing vessel
C) Ratio between the speed in knots and the square root of the length of water line in feet of a fishing vessel
D) Ratio between the displacement tonnage and dead weight tonnage of a fishing Vessel
Ans: C
12. Most promising fish and shrimp immunostimulant isolated from the yeast cell wall
A) Chitin B) Peptidoglycan
C) Laminaran D) Glucans
Ans: D
13. During the first stage of the mechanization of fishing boats in India, a few indigenous fishing boats were found to be suitable for mechanization with a little modification. They were successfully mechanized under the guidance of FAO experts. Which among the following was found not suitable for mechanization ?
A) Kakinada Navas of Andhra Pradesh
B) Rampani Boats of Karnataka
C) Tuticorin Boats of Tamil Nadu
D) Batchari Boats of West Bengal
Ans: B
14. The lines representing the sections of ships or the boundaries of waterplanes are in general fair curves which cannot be represented by a single mathematical equation. To apply various arithmetical methods, it is assumed that the curved boundaries consist of a series of parabolic curves. Which among the following methods is mainly used for specific calculations such as stability ?
A) Trapezoidal rule B) Simpson’s rule
C) Tchebycheff’s rule D) Midpoint rule
Ans: C
15. The power available in the crank shaft of an engine after deducting the frictional loss in the working of an engine is known as
A) Shaft horse power B) Effective horse power
C) Indicated horse power D) Brake horse power
Ans: D
16. The form is used to describe the shape of ship’s hull. Comparison of one ship’s form with another is made using a number of coefficients. The ratio between the actual volume of the underwater form to the volume of a block with length equal to the length between perpendiculars, breadth equal to the breadth of the vessel and depth equal to the draft of the vessel is known as
A) Mid ship section area coefficient
B) Block coefficient
C) Prismatic coefficient
D) Waterplane area coefficient
Ans: B
17. Choose the odd one among the following otter boards
A) Suberkrub B) Rectangular flat
C) Rectangular curved D) V-form
Ans: A
18. If 9000 m of a single yarn weigh 10g, which among the following is the correct designation of this yarn ?
A) 10 Tex B) 10 Td
C) 10 Nm D) 10 Ne
Ans: B
19. The triangular piece of webbing used in a trawl to give a smooth catenary curve to the head rope of the trawl is known as
A) Overhang B) Quarter
C) Flapper D) Jib
Ans: D
20. What is the correct cutting rate to make webbing with 100 meshes on the top and 40 meshes at the bottom and with 90 meshes depth, if the tailoring is done only on one side ?
A) 1 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut B) 2 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut
C) 1 T or M cut : 4 Bar cut D) 2 T or M cut : 4 Bar cut
Ans: A
21. In the Redditch scale of hook numbering system the number designating the finest hook is
A) 15 B) 17 C) 18 D) 16
Ans: C
22. In Navigation, fixing present position or anticipated future position from a previous position, using known directions and distances is known as
A) Piloting B) Celestial Navigation
C) Radio Navigation D) Dead Reckoning
Ans: D
23. If a vessel engaged in day fishing hoist the signal flag ‘P’, what is the message conveyed ?
A) My net has come fast upon an obstruction
B) I am hauling net
C) Keep clear of me I am engaged in pair trawling
D) I am shooting net
Ans: A
24. Which among the following is the International Code signal of distress ?
A) Alfa Romeo (AR) B) November Charlie (NC)
C) Alfa Sierra (AS) D) Charlie Quebec (CQ)
Ans: B
25. The length of warp released in bottom otter trawling depends on the depth of the fishing ground and the nature of the sea bottom. The ratio of depth of the fishing ground and the warp released is known as
A) Aspect ratio B) Scope ratio
C) Slip ratio D) None of the above
Ans: B
26. Fresh water fishes contain a high level of _____________ than that of in the marine fishes.
A) Omega 3 fatty acids B) Myosin
C) Tropomyosin D) Omega 6 fatty acids
Ans: D
27. The canning process in which the release of gases from fish tissue and inhibit enzymatic reactions is achieved by the process called
A) Double seaming B) Sodium sulphate
C) Blanching D) Pressure steaming
Ans: C
28. The preservative value of smoking is characterized by the ____________ content present in the woods.
A) Phenolic B) Resinous C) Carbon dioxide D) Acidic
Ans: A
29. The transportation of frozen fish by air Cargo is done by using
A) Liquid nitrogen B) Air blast freezing
C) Solid carbon dioxide D) Brine freezing
Ans: C
30. Sorbic acid is used as a preservative to protect the fish from
A) Bacterial spoilage B) Glazing
C) Rancidity D) Fungal spoilage
Ans: D
31. The compound responsible for the foul odour due to spoilage of marine fish
A) Trimethylamine B) Trimethylamine oxide
C) Ammonia D) Pyridine
Ans: A
32. Onset of rigor mortis the changes of the muscle texture is due to
A) ATP hydrolysis B) Trimethylamine
C) Creatine phosphate D) Autolysis
Ans: A
33. Which amino acid is responsible for meaty flavour in scombroid fishes ?
A) Tryptophan B) Histidine C) Lysine D) Leucine
Ans: B
34. Isinglass has been prepared as a byproduct from
A) Fish scale B) Fish skin C) Air bladder D) Fish Roe
Ans: C
35. What is the ‘pit curing’ of fish ?
A) Wet salting B) Steam drying C) Freeze drying D) Hot smoking
Ans: A
36. Which among the following is an antifungal compound used in aquaculture ?
A) Trifuralin B) Crystal violet
C) Malachite green D) All
Ans: D
37. In TVB analysis, one of the following substance is considered as an excellent indicator for quality assessment of squids is
A) Trimethylamine B) Ammonia C) Dimethylamine D) NADH
Ans: B
38. The preventive measure is needed to be followed to reduce the effect of biotoxins and pathogens in live fish under HACCP
A) Avoid fishing in contaminated area
B) Ensure accuracy scale
C) Maintenance low-temperature
D) Candling
Ans: A
39. The autolysis in post mortem changes can reduce by __________ which helps in the quality and storage life of fatty fishes.
A) Evisceration B) Ice chilling C) Filleting D) Salting
Ans: A
40. Among the following fishes, the maximum shell life is showed while it is stored in ice from temperate conditions
A) Sardine B) Mackerel C) Tilapia D) Pacu
Ans: D
41. Lakes that is rich in humic and organic substance are called
A) Eutrophic B) Mesotrophic
C) Dystrophic D) Oligotrophic
Ans: C
42. Miscellaneous assemblage of organisms growing upon free surfaces of object, submerged in water is called as
A) Seston B) Nekton C) Neuston D) Periphyton
Ans: D
43. Frustules made of silica are characteristic of
A) Euglenoids B) Diatoms
C) Desmids D) Coccolithophores
Ans: B
44. The phenomenon with High Nutrient and Low ChlorophyII (HNLC) is also known as
A) Edge effect B) Water Paradox
C) Cascade effect D) Antarctic Paradox
Ans: D
45. The Redfield ratio, the C : N : P ratio in Indian ocean is
A) 120 : 30 : 1 B) 106 : 16 : 1 C) 100 : 12 : 1 D) 132 : 22 : 1
Ans: B
46. As per the latest FAO data (FAO 2020) India’s contribution on World aquaculture fish production is about
A) 8.5% B) 15% C) 2.5% D) 25%
Ans: A
47. Which among the following statement is true ? Increase of temperature in the aquaculture pond causes
i. Low oxygen solubility
ii. High metabolic rate of cultured species
iii. High oxygen solubility
iv. High ammonia toxicity
A) ii
B) i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) i, ii and iv
Ans: D
48. Ideal C/N ratio used in biofloc technology
A) 1 : 5
B) 15 : 1
C) 5 : 1
D) 1 : 15
Ans: B
49. Which among the following is an inorganic extractive cultured in IMTA ?
A) Salmon B) Blue mussels
C) Kelp D) Sea cucumber
Ans: C
50. Dolomite used for adjusting the pH/alkalinity in aquaculture pond is
A) CaCO3
B) MgCO3
C) CaMg(CO3)2
D) Na2CO3
Ans: C
51. Water flow through the RAS in a hatchery is in the order of
A) Culture tank – UV chamber – Biofilter – Mechanical filter
B) Culture tank – Mechanical filter – UV chamber – Biofilter
C) Culture tank – Biofilter – UV chamber – Mechanical filter
D) Culture tank – Biofilter – Mechanical filter – UV chamber
Ans: B
52. Predominant mineral present in the acid sulfate soils
A) Pyrite B) Calcite C) Magnetite D) Hematite
Ans: A
53. Black-lipped pearl oyster farming in India is at
A) Vizhinjam B) Bengal
C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands D) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans: C
54. How many distinct zoeal stages are there in the larval development of Macrobrachiumrosenbergii ?
A) 11 B) 32 C) 30 D) 5
Ans: A
55. Deficiency of which amino acid causes scoliosis/lordosis in fishes ?
A) Methionine B) Valine C) Tryptophan D) Tyrosine
Ans: C
56. Foam fractionator is used in the aquarium for the removal of
A) Organic compounds B) Inorganic compounds
C) Ammonia D) Dissolved inorganic compounds
Ans: A
57. Which of the following ornamental fishes produces non-sticky eggs ?
A) Melon barbs B) Banded gourami
C) Zebra fish D) All
Ans: C
58. Marine ornamental fish hatchery production developed in India for
A) Amphiprionpercula B) Amphiprionsebae
C) Pomacentruspavo D) All
Ans: D
59. Which among the following is not belongs to Chlorophyceae ?
i. Chlorella
ii. Chaetocerous
iii. Isochrysis
iv. Dunaliela
A) i and ii
B) i and iv
C) ii and iii
D) None of the above
Ans: C
60. Name the marine rotifer.
A) Brachionusplicatilis B) Brachionuscalyciflorus
C) Brachionusrubens D) Daphnia magna
Ans: A
61. Which among the following is the mode of action of probiotic in fishes ?
A) Competitive exclusion B) Production of inhibitory substances
C) Competition for nutrients D) All
Ans: D
62. Fresh water white spot disease in fishes is caused by
A) WSSV B) Ichthyophthiriusmultifilis
C) Oodinium D) Ichthyobodonecator
Ans: B
63. Tilapia Lake Virus (TiLV) belongs to the family
A) Orthomyxoviridae B) Rhabdoviridae
C) Togaviridae D) Alloherpesviridae
Ans: A
64. The concept of human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health of the ecosystem in which they exist is known as
A) Disease triad B) Eco health
C) One health D) Sustainable health
Ans: C
A) Culture tank – UV chamber – Biofilter – Mechanical filter
B) Culture tank – Mechanical filter – UV chamber – Biofilter
C) Culture tank – Biofilter – UV chamber – Mechanical filter
D) Culture tank – Biofilter – Mechanical filter – UV chamber
Ans: B
52. Predominant mineral present in the acid sulfate soils
A) Pyrite B) Calcite C) Magnetite D) Hematite
Ans: A
53. Black-lipped pearl oyster farming in India is at
A) Vizhinjam B) Bengal
C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands D) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans: C
54. How many distinct zoeal stages are there in the larval development of Macrobrachiumrosenbergii ?
A) 11 B) 32 C) 30 D) 5
Ans: A
55. Deficiency of which amino acid causes scoliosis/lordosis in fishes ?
A) Methionine B) Valine C) Tryptophan D) Tyrosine
Ans: C
56. Foam fractionator is used in the aquarium for the removal of
A) Organic compounds B) Inorganic compounds
C) Ammonia D) Dissolved inorganic compounds
Ans: A
57. Which of the following ornamental fishes produces non-sticky eggs ?
A) Melon barbs B) Banded gourami
C) Zebra fish D) All
Ans: C
58. Marine ornamental fish hatchery production developed in India for
A) Amphiprionpercula B) Amphiprionsebae
C) Pomacentruspavo D) All
Ans: D
59. Which among the following is not belongs to Chlorophyceae ?
i. Chlorella
ii. Chaetocerous
iii. Isochrysis
iv. Dunaliela
A) i and ii
B) i and iv
C) ii and iii
D) None of the above
Ans: C
60. Name the marine rotifer.
A) Brachionusplicatilis B) Brachionuscalyciflorus
C) Brachionusrubens D) Daphnia magna
Ans: A
61. Which among the following is the mode of action of probiotic in fishes ?
A) Competitive exclusion B) Production of inhibitory substances
C) Competition for nutrients D) All
Ans: D
62. Fresh water white spot disease in fishes is caused by
A) WSSV B) Ichthyophthiriusmultifilis
C) Oodinium D) Ichthyobodonecator
Ans: B
63. Tilapia Lake Virus (TiLV) belongs to the family
A) Orthomyxoviridae B) Rhabdoviridae
C) Togaviridae D) Alloherpesviridae
Ans: A
64. The concept of human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health of the ecosystem in which they exist is known as
A) Disease triad B) Eco health
C) One health D) Sustainable health
Ans: C
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