ZOOLOGY -PAGE 2
1. A person meets with an accident and great loss of blood has occurred. There is no time to analyse his blood group. It is safe to transfer blood of group
(a). AB, Rh+
(b). O, Rh+
(c). AB, Rh-
(d). O,Rh-
Answer : O,Rh-
2. Person belonging to the blood group has no antigen in RBC but A and B antibodies in scrum is
(a). 'A' - group
(b). 'B'- group
(c). 'AB' - group
(d). 'O' - group
Answer : 'O' – group
3. Addition of a single chromosome in any of the pairs of chromosome is called
(a). Triploidy
(b). Monosomy
(c). Polyploidy
(d). Trisomy
Answer : Trisomy
4. Larvae of echinoderms are
(a). asymmetrical
(b). radially symmetrical
(c). bilaterally symmetrical
(d). biradial symmetrical
Answer : bilaterally symmetrical
5. Which is the connecting link between amphibians and reptiles?
(a). Seymouria
(b). Archaeopteryx
(c). Sphenodon
(d). Coelacanth
Answer : Seymouria
6. In man the blood group 'A' is determined by the -----genotype.
(a). IA IA (or) IA IB
(b). IA IA only
(c). IA IA (or) IO IO
(d). IA IA (or) IA IO
Answer : IA IA (or) IA IO
7. Doliolaria larva is seen in
(a). Star fish
(b). Sea cucumber
(c). Sea lily
(d). Sea urchin
Answer : Sea lily
8. In gene mapping one map unit is equal to
(a). 1 percent crossover
(b). 10 percent crossover
(c). 50 percent crossover
(d). 100% crossing over
Answer : 1 percent crossover
9. Enterobius is commonly called as
(a). Pin worm
(b). Tape worm
(c). Whip worm
(d). Round worm
Answer : Pin worm
10. The excretory organ of Earthworm is..........
(a). flame cell
(b). coxal gland
(c). nephridia
(d). malpighian tubule
Answer: Option-C
11. which among the following is not a pheromone
(a). civetone
(b). chitone
(c). muscone
(d). bombycol
Answer: Option-B
12. The largest sense organ in our body is
(a). skin
(b). tongue
(c). ear
(d). hair
Answer: Option-A
13. The Enzyme which is known as "molecular glue" is...........
(a). Retriction endonuclease
(b). Kinase
(c). Lipase
(d). Ligase
Answer: Option-D
14. The blood cells which have the ability to destroy microbes by phagocytosis are ......
(a). Neutrophil & Monocyte
(b). Eosinophil & Basophil
(c). Lymphocyte & Basophil
(d). Neutrophil & Basophil
Answer: Option-A
15. World Mosquito day is observed on
(a). July 20
(b). August 20
(c). September 20
(d). June 20
Answer: Option-B
16. In hybridization technique, emasculation means the removal of
(a). Stamen
(b). Corolla
(c). Pistil
(d). Calyx
Answer: Stamen
17. The genotypic ratio of heterozygous tall of the F2 generation would be
(a). 1:2:1
(b). 3:1:2
(c). 1:2:0
(d). 1:1:3
Answer: 1:2:1
18.In a cross between two individuals pure for contrasting characters of a pair, the character which is not represented in F1 generation is the
(a). Dominant character
(b). Recessive character
(c). Incomplete dominant character
(d). Intermediate character
Answer: Recessive character
19.Alternative forms of the same gene responsible for determining contrasting character is
(a). Supplementary gene
(b). Locus
(c). Allele
(d). Progeny
Answer: Allele
20.The position of an allele on a chromosome is called
(a). Gene
(b). Synapsis
(c). DNA
(d). Locus
Answer: Locus
21.Two allelic genes are located on
(a). the same chromosomes
(b). two homologous chromosomes
(c). the sex chromosomes
(d). two non-homologous chromosomes
Answer: two homologous chromosomes
22.The other name for law of segregation is
(a). Law of unit character
(b). Law of purity of gametes
(c). Law of dominance
(d). Origin of Species
Answer: Law of purity of gametes
23.Which one of the following is also called as the 'law of purity of gametes'?
(a). Law of unit character
(b). Law of independent assortment
(c). Law of dominance
(d). Law of Segregation
Answer: Law of Segregation
24. For independent assortment, the Mendelian factors should lie in
(a). different homologous chromosomes
(b). same chromosome
(c). different non-homologous chromosomes
(d). Various chromosomes
Answer: different homologous chromosomes
25.The principle of segregation and independent assortment is possible only when
(a). the factors lie in different homologous chromosomes
(b). the factors lie in different heterologous chromosomes
(c). there is no pairing
(d). there is no crossing over
Answer: the factors lie in different homologous chromosomes
(a). AB, Rh+
(b). O, Rh+
(c). AB, Rh-
(d). O,Rh-
Answer : O,Rh-
2. Person belonging to the blood group has no antigen in RBC but A and B antibodies in scrum is
(a). 'A' - group
(b). 'B'- group
(c). 'AB' - group
(d). 'O' - group
Answer : 'O' – group
3. Addition of a single chromosome in any of the pairs of chromosome is called
(a). Triploidy
(b). Monosomy
(c). Polyploidy
(d). Trisomy
Answer : Trisomy
4. Larvae of echinoderms are
(a). asymmetrical
(b). radially symmetrical
(c). bilaterally symmetrical
(d). biradial symmetrical
Answer : bilaterally symmetrical
5. Which is the connecting link between amphibians and reptiles?
(a). Seymouria
(b). Archaeopteryx
(c). Sphenodon
(d). Coelacanth
Answer : Seymouria
6. In man the blood group 'A' is determined by the -----genotype.
(a). IA IA (or) IA IB
(b). IA IA only
(c). IA IA (or) IO IO
(d). IA IA (or) IA IO
Answer : IA IA (or) IA IO
7. Doliolaria larva is seen in
(a). Star fish
(b). Sea cucumber
(c). Sea lily
(d). Sea urchin
Answer : Sea lily
8. In gene mapping one map unit is equal to
(a). 1 percent crossover
(b). 10 percent crossover
(c). 50 percent crossover
(d). 100% crossing over
Answer : 1 percent crossover
9. Enterobius is commonly called as
(a). Pin worm
(b). Tape worm
(c). Whip worm
(d). Round worm
Answer : Pin worm
10. The excretory organ of Earthworm is..........
(a). flame cell
(b). coxal gland
(c). nephridia
(d). malpighian tubule
Answer: Option-C
11. which among the following is not a pheromone
(a). civetone
(b). chitone
(c). muscone
(d). bombycol
Answer: Option-B
12. The largest sense organ in our body is
(a). skin
(b). tongue
(c). ear
(d). hair
Answer: Option-A
13. The Enzyme which is known as "molecular glue" is...........
(a). Retriction endonuclease
(b). Kinase
(c). Lipase
(d). Ligase
Answer: Option-D
14. The blood cells which have the ability to destroy microbes by phagocytosis are ......
(a). Neutrophil & Monocyte
(b). Eosinophil & Basophil
(c). Lymphocyte & Basophil
(d). Neutrophil & Basophil
Answer: Option-A
15. World Mosquito day is observed on
(a). July 20
(b). August 20
(c). September 20
(d). June 20
Answer: Option-B
16. In hybridization technique, emasculation means the removal of
(a). Stamen
(b). Corolla
(c). Pistil
(d). Calyx
Answer: Stamen
17. The genotypic ratio of heterozygous tall of the F2 generation would be
(a). 1:2:1
(b). 3:1:2
(c). 1:2:0
(d). 1:1:3
Answer: 1:2:1
18.In a cross between two individuals pure for contrasting characters of a pair, the character which is not represented in F1 generation is the
(a). Dominant character
(b). Recessive character
(c). Incomplete dominant character
(d). Intermediate character
Answer: Recessive character
19.Alternative forms of the same gene responsible for determining contrasting character is
(a). Supplementary gene
(b). Locus
(c). Allele
(d). Progeny
Answer: Allele
20.The position of an allele on a chromosome is called
(a). Gene
(b). Synapsis
(c). DNA
(d). Locus
Answer: Locus
21.Two allelic genes are located on
(a). the same chromosomes
(b). two homologous chromosomes
(c). the sex chromosomes
(d). two non-homologous chromosomes
Answer: two homologous chromosomes
22.The other name for law of segregation is
(a). Law of unit character
(b). Law of purity of gametes
(c). Law of dominance
(d). Origin of Species
Answer: Law of purity of gametes
23.Which one of the following is also called as the 'law of purity of gametes'?
(a). Law of unit character
(b). Law of independent assortment
(c). Law of dominance
(d). Law of Segregation
Answer: Law of Segregation
24. For independent assortment, the Mendelian factors should lie in
(a). different homologous chromosomes
(b). same chromosome
(c). different non-homologous chromosomes
(d). Various chromosomes
Answer: different homologous chromosomes
25.The principle of segregation and independent assortment is possible only when
(a). the factors lie in different homologous chromosomes
(b). the factors lie in different heterologous chromosomes
(c). there is no pairing
(d). there is no crossing over
Answer: the factors lie in different homologous chromosomes
26. Bioinformatics as a tool in biological science is the contribution of
A) Richard Stallman B) Margaret Oakley Dayhoff C) Stephen Hawking D) Pearson
Ans: B
27. Most widely used program for comparing the amino acid sequences of different proteinsor nucleotide sequences of DNA.
A) BLAST B) FASTA C) ORF Finder D) STAG
Ans: A
28. The most suitable and efficient language used in bioinformatics
A) HTML B) Perl and Python C) JAVA D) MAGE
Ans: B
29. The active swimming organisms living in surface and deeper waters
A) Zooplankton B) Benthos C) Nektons D) Neuston
Ans: C
30. The true and complete metamorphosis occurs in
A) Silver fishes B) Moths and mosquitos C) Bed bugs D) Cockroach
Ans: B
31. Wrinkles in old age is due to
A) Collagen fibres B) Actin fibres C) Myosin fibres D) Mucin
Ans: A
32. Muscle glycogen cannot be converted into glucose due to the absence of an enzyme
A) Arginase B) Glucose-6-phosphatase C) Glucose phosphatase D) Fructase
Ans: B
33. Minimum turnover number of an enzyme is, for
A) Lysozyme B) Carbonic anhydrase C) DNA polymerase D) Sucrase
Ans: A
34. The direct cleavage of covalent bonds and removal of groups without addition of H2O is a characteristic of
A) Lyases B) Ligases C) Amylase D) Lactase
Ans: A
35. The technique used for opening partially blocked coronary vessels before they become totally occluded
A) Angiogram B) EEG C) Angioplasty D) ECG
Ans: C
36. Thrombosis in which coronary artery is related most frequently in myocardial infraction
A) Left coronary artery B) Right coronary artery C) Left pulmonary artery D) Right pulmonary artery
Ans: B
37. Glands of swammerdams is associated with
A) Reproductive system B) Nervous system C) Circulatory system D) Muscular system
Ans: B
38. Leydig cells are meant for the production of
A) Testosterone B) Progesterone C) Oestrogen D) Aldosteron
Ans: A
39. During polymerization the mismatched residues at the primer terminus is removed and the accuracy of DNA replication is done by
A) Exonuclease B) DNA polymerase II C) DNA polymerase III D) DNA polymerase I
Ans: D
40. A hormone which stimulate the activity of adenyl cyclase and increases the cAMP level
A) Adrenocorticoid B) Steroid C) Cataecholamines D) Pituitary
Ans: C
41. Deficiency of thyroid hormone in adults causes the disease
A) Grave’s disease B) Gull’s disease C) Basidow’s disease D) Addison’s disease
Ans: B
42. The activated adenyl cyclase serves as a biochemical amplifier and catalyses the hydrolysis of ATP to cAMP, in the presence of
A) Na+ and Cl+
B) K+ and Cl+
C) Ca++ K++
D) Ca++ and Mg++
Ans: D
43. The ruptured follicle in mammalian ovary after the release of ovum which later gets fertilized to form
A) Corpus luteum B) Graafian follicle C) Corpus callosum D) Corpus albican
Ans: C
44. The Nobel prize in physiology in 1995 for their discovery concerned with the genetic control of early embryonic development was for A) Nusslein and Wieschaus B) Wolpert C) Jacob and Monord D) Lewies
Ans: A
45. Homeotic genes of Drosophila include a 180-nucleotide sequence called the
A) Torpido B) Homoeodomine C) Spatzal D) Homeobox
Ans: D
46. Oxygen is directly used during
A) Fermentation B) Krebs citric acid cycle C) Biomethanisation D) Glycolysis
Ans: A
47. Dissolved oxygen needed for microbes is measured by
A) COD B) BOD C) DO D) TDS
Ans: B
48. A mutant strain of neurospora which falls to grow on a minimal medium unless supplemented with a nutrient is called
A) Auxotrop B) Mixotrop C) Paratop D) Holotrop
Ans: A
49. First Indian Scientist who got Nobel prize for deciphering the genetic code
A) Amartyasen B) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan C) C. V. Raman D) Khorana
Ans: D
50. The part of an antigen that is recognised by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells or T cells
A) Antigens B) Epitopes C) Haptens D) None of the above
Ans: B
51. TH cells generally recognise antigen combined with
A) Class I MHC molecules B) Immunosuppressant C) Class II MHC molecules D) None of the above
Ans: C
52. Which one of the following is considered as a third generation vaccines ?
A) Recombinant microbial vaccines B) DNA vaccines C) Conjugate vaccines D) Killed vaccines
Ans: B
53. Addition of microbes to enhance health benefits is
A) Probiotics B) Humulin C) Prebiotics D) None of the above
Ans: A
54. A group of distinct organism classified and assigned to a definite category.
A) Species B) Taxon C) Category D) Genus
Ans: B
55. The marginal zone of a pond merging with the surrounding land is an example of
A) Biome B) Edge effect C) Biota D) Ecotone
Ans: D
56. Gulf of mannar is a
A) Protected area B) Biosphere reserve C) National park D) Sanctuaries
Ans: B
57. Lion-tailed macaque is considered as
A) Endangered species
B) Vulnerable species
C) Rare species
D) Extinct species
Ans: A
58. Populations reproductively isolated and live in different habitat but occupy same territory are known as
A) Ethological isolation
B) Temporal isolation
C) Ecological isolation
D) Morphological isolation
Ans: C
59. The correct series of events representing the development of vertebrate
A) Cleavage, Blastula, Gastrulation, Organogenesis, Neurulation, Growth
B) Cleavage, Blastula, Gastrulation, Neurulation, Organogenesis, Growth
C) Blastula, Gastrulation, Cell migration, Organogenesis, Growth
D) Blastula, Cell migration, Gastrulation, Neurulation, Growth
Ans: B
60. The animals tend to develop huge size and birds lose the power of flight and bright colour in those Islands
A) Galapagos Islands
B) Oceanic Islands
C) Ancient Islands
D) Continental Islands
Ans: B
61. If, DNA is found to have the base composition of A = 40, T = 22, C = 17 and G = 21 then the DNA will be
A) Double stranded
B) Single stranded
C) Linear duplex
D) Circular duplex
Ans: B
62. Methylation of DNA most commonly occurs in the sequence of
A) Cp T B) Cp C
C) Cp A D) Cp G
Ans: D
63. The example of inducible operon is
A) lac-operon B) try-operon
C) arginine operon D) TRP operon
Ans: A
64. In 2017, the discovery of molecular mechanisms controlling the circadian rhythm, won Nobel prize for
A) Rainer, Barry and Kip B) Jacques, Joachim and Richard C) Jeffrey, Michael and Michael D) None of the above
Ans: C
65. Automicticdiplosis occurs in
A) Hymenoptera and Coleoptera B) Thysanoptera and Rotifers C) Rotifers and Coleoptera D) Lepidopterans and Hymenopterans
Ans: D
66. The RNA polymerase recognize a seven-base sequence on the promoter region called
A) Pribnow box B) Operons C) TATA box D) Enhancers
Ans: C
67. During pregnancy intake of certain medicines causes foetal toxicity like hyperkalemia and hypertension.
A) Thalidomide B) ACEI C) Valproic acid D) 13-cis Accutane
Ans: B
68. Amnion is the foetal membrane developed from
A) Somatopleure B) Chorionic cavity C) Chorionic villi D) Amniotic cavity
Ans: A
A) Richard Stallman B) Margaret Oakley Dayhoff C) Stephen Hawking D) Pearson
Ans: B
27. Most widely used program for comparing the amino acid sequences of different proteinsor nucleotide sequences of DNA.
A) BLAST B) FASTA C) ORF Finder D) STAG
Ans: A
28. The most suitable and efficient language used in bioinformatics
A) HTML B) Perl and Python C) JAVA D) MAGE
Ans: B
29. The active swimming organisms living in surface and deeper waters
A) Zooplankton B) Benthos C) Nektons D) Neuston
Ans: C
30. The true and complete metamorphosis occurs in
A) Silver fishes B) Moths and mosquitos C) Bed bugs D) Cockroach
Ans: B
31. Wrinkles in old age is due to
A) Collagen fibres B) Actin fibres C) Myosin fibres D) Mucin
Ans: A
32. Muscle glycogen cannot be converted into glucose due to the absence of an enzyme
A) Arginase B) Glucose-6-phosphatase C) Glucose phosphatase D) Fructase
Ans: B
33. Minimum turnover number of an enzyme is, for
A) Lysozyme B) Carbonic anhydrase C) DNA polymerase D) Sucrase
Ans: A
34. The direct cleavage of covalent bonds and removal of groups without addition of H2O is a characteristic of
A) Lyases B) Ligases C) Amylase D) Lactase
Ans: A
35. The technique used for opening partially blocked coronary vessels before they become totally occluded
A) Angiogram B) EEG C) Angioplasty D) ECG
Ans: C
36. Thrombosis in which coronary artery is related most frequently in myocardial infraction
A) Left coronary artery B) Right coronary artery C) Left pulmonary artery D) Right pulmonary artery
Ans: B
37. Glands of swammerdams is associated with
A) Reproductive system B) Nervous system C) Circulatory system D) Muscular system
Ans: B
38. Leydig cells are meant for the production of
A) Testosterone B) Progesterone C) Oestrogen D) Aldosteron
Ans: A
39. During polymerization the mismatched residues at the primer terminus is removed and the accuracy of DNA replication is done by
A) Exonuclease B) DNA polymerase II C) DNA polymerase III D) DNA polymerase I
Ans: D
40. A hormone which stimulate the activity of adenyl cyclase and increases the cAMP level
A) Adrenocorticoid B) Steroid C) Cataecholamines D) Pituitary
Ans: C
41. Deficiency of thyroid hormone in adults causes the disease
A) Grave’s disease B) Gull’s disease C) Basidow’s disease D) Addison’s disease
Ans: B
42. The activated adenyl cyclase serves as a biochemical amplifier and catalyses the hydrolysis of ATP to cAMP, in the presence of
A) Na+ and Cl+
B) K+ and Cl+
C) Ca++ K++
D) Ca++ and Mg++
Ans: D
43. The ruptured follicle in mammalian ovary after the release of ovum which later gets fertilized to form
A) Corpus luteum B) Graafian follicle C) Corpus callosum D) Corpus albican
Ans: C
44. The Nobel prize in physiology in 1995 for their discovery concerned with the genetic control of early embryonic development was for A) Nusslein and Wieschaus B) Wolpert C) Jacob and Monord D) Lewies
Ans: A
45. Homeotic genes of Drosophila include a 180-nucleotide sequence called the
A) Torpido B) Homoeodomine C) Spatzal D) Homeobox
Ans: D
46. Oxygen is directly used during
A) Fermentation B) Krebs citric acid cycle C) Biomethanisation D) Glycolysis
Ans: A
47. Dissolved oxygen needed for microbes is measured by
A) COD B) BOD C) DO D) TDS
Ans: B
48. A mutant strain of neurospora which falls to grow on a minimal medium unless supplemented with a nutrient is called
A) Auxotrop B) Mixotrop C) Paratop D) Holotrop
Ans: A
49. First Indian Scientist who got Nobel prize for deciphering the genetic code
A) Amartyasen B) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan C) C. V. Raman D) Khorana
Ans: D
50. The part of an antigen that is recognised by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells or T cells
A) Antigens B) Epitopes C) Haptens D) None of the above
Ans: B
51. TH cells generally recognise antigen combined with
A) Class I MHC molecules B) Immunosuppressant C) Class II MHC molecules D) None of the above
Ans: C
52. Which one of the following is considered as a third generation vaccines ?
A) Recombinant microbial vaccines B) DNA vaccines C) Conjugate vaccines D) Killed vaccines
Ans: B
53. Addition of microbes to enhance health benefits is
A) Probiotics B) Humulin C) Prebiotics D) None of the above
Ans: A
54. A group of distinct organism classified and assigned to a definite category.
A) Species B) Taxon C) Category D) Genus
Ans: B
55. The marginal zone of a pond merging with the surrounding land is an example of
A) Biome B) Edge effect C) Biota D) Ecotone
Ans: D
56. Gulf of mannar is a
A) Protected area B) Biosphere reserve C) National park D) Sanctuaries
Ans: B
57. Lion-tailed macaque is considered as
A) Endangered species
B) Vulnerable species
C) Rare species
D) Extinct species
Ans: A
58. Populations reproductively isolated and live in different habitat but occupy same territory are known as
A) Ethological isolation
B) Temporal isolation
C) Ecological isolation
D) Morphological isolation
Ans: C
59. The correct series of events representing the development of vertebrate
A) Cleavage, Blastula, Gastrulation, Organogenesis, Neurulation, Growth
B) Cleavage, Blastula, Gastrulation, Neurulation, Organogenesis, Growth
C) Blastula, Gastrulation, Cell migration, Organogenesis, Growth
D) Blastula, Cell migration, Gastrulation, Neurulation, Growth
Ans: B
60. The animals tend to develop huge size and birds lose the power of flight and bright colour in those Islands
A) Galapagos Islands
B) Oceanic Islands
C) Ancient Islands
D) Continental Islands
Ans: B
61. If, DNA is found to have the base composition of A = 40, T = 22, C = 17 and G = 21 then the DNA will be
A) Double stranded
B) Single stranded
C) Linear duplex
D) Circular duplex
Ans: B
62. Methylation of DNA most commonly occurs in the sequence of
A) Cp T B) Cp C
C) Cp A D) Cp G
Ans: D
63. The example of inducible operon is
A) lac-operon B) try-operon
C) arginine operon D) TRP operon
Ans: A
64. In 2017, the discovery of molecular mechanisms controlling the circadian rhythm, won Nobel prize for
A) Rainer, Barry and Kip B) Jacques, Joachim and Richard C) Jeffrey, Michael and Michael D) None of the above
Ans: C
65. Automicticdiplosis occurs in
A) Hymenoptera and Coleoptera B) Thysanoptera and Rotifers C) Rotifers and Coleoptera D) Lepidopterans and Hymenopterans
Ans: D
66. The RNA polymerase recognize a seven-base sequence on the promoter region called
A) Pribnow box B) Operons C) TATA box D) Enhancers
Ans: C
67. During pregnancy intake of certain medicines causes foetal toxicity like hyperkalemia and hypertension.
A) Thalidomide B) ACEI C) Valproic acid D) 13-cis Accutane
Ans: B
68. Amnion is the foetal membrane developed from
A) Somatopleure B) Chorionic cavity C) Chorionic villi D) Amniotic cavity
Ans: A
69. In 1970, an enzyme for cutting the DNA was discovered from the bacterium
A) Haemophilous influenzae B) Escherichia coli C) Methanosarcina D) Helicobacter pylori
Ans: A
70. Bidder’s canal is present in kidney of
A) Frog B) Crocodile C) Tortoise D) Snake
Ans: A
71. First test tube baby of the world was born on
A) 26th July 1978 B) 26th May 1987 C) 25th July 1978 D) 25th May 1987
Ans: C
72. An instrument used to scan a patients body, by a narrow X-ray beams guided by computer and thin sections of organs are photographed from several angles
A) CTS B) CAT C) NMR D) CET
Ans: B
73. 45 + XX in human indicates
A) Patau’s syndrome B) Jacob’s syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) Down’s syndrome
Ans: D
74. Warm blooded animals are larger in size in the colder region when compared to hotterreagions
A) Bergman’s law B) Cope’s law C) Allen’s law D) Dollow’s law
Ans: A
75. During glycolysis glucose is phosphorylated into
A) Glucose 6 phosphate B) Glucose 1-6-diphosphate C) Fructose 1, 6-diphosphate D) Fructose 6 phosphate
Ans: C
76. A method used for sequencing whole genomes by breaking the DNA is
A) Shotgun sequencing B) Western blotting C) Southern blotting D) Northern blotting
Ans: A
77. Chemical degradation of DNA protocol was developed by
A) Sanger B) Miller C) Gilbert D) Maxam-Gilbert
Ans: D
78. Colostrum provides
a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Naturally acquired passive immunity
c) Artificially acquired active immunity d)Artificially acquired passive immunity
Ans: B
79. Allergy involves
a)IgE
b)IgG
c)lgA
d)IgM
Ans: A
80. B Cells are activated by
(A) Complement (B) Antibody (C) Interferon (D) Antigen
Ans: D
81. Which of the following bacteria is used extensively as a bio-pesticide?
a) Bacillus thurigiensis b) Bacillus subtilis c) Lactobacillus acidophilus d) Streptococcus lactis
Ans: A
82. Which of the following microorganism is used for production of citric acid in industries?
a) Lactobacillus bulgaris b) Penicillium citrinum c) Aspergillus niger d) Rhizopus nigricans
Ans: C
83. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is_________
a) Soyameal b) Groundgram c) Molasses d) Corn meal
Ans: C
84. Cyclosporin – A is an immunosuppressive drug produced from _______
a) Aspergillus niger b) Manascus purpureus c) Penicillium notatum d) Trichoderma polysporum
Ans: D
85. The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to _______
a) Reduce BOD b) Increase BOD c) Reduce sedimentation d) Increase sedimentation
Ans: A
86. Which of the following is not involved in nitrogen fixation?
a) Pseudomonas b) Azotobacter c) Anabaena d) Nostac
Ans: A
87. Cry toxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against for______
a) Mosquitoes b) Flies c) Nematodes d) Bollworms
Ans: D
88. Which of the following pair is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
a) Acetobacter aceti - Antibiotics
b) Methanobacterium - Lactic acid
c) Penicilium notatum - Acetic acid
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Ethanol
Ans: D
89. The gases produced in anaerobic sludge digesters are
a) Methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide.
b) Hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide.
c) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane.
d) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2.
Ans: D
90. CO2 is not released during
a) Alcoholic fermentation b) Lactate fermentation
c) Aerobic respiration in animals d) Aerobic respiration in plants
Ans: B
91. Transgenic animals are those which have
a)Foreign DNA in some of their cells b)Foreign DNA in all their cells
c)Foreign RNA in some of their cells d)Foreign RNA in all their cells
Ans: B
92. Recombinant Factor VIII is produced in the ------- cells of the Chinese Hamster
a)Liver cells b)blood cells
c)ovarian cells d)brain cells.
Ans: C
93. How many amino acids are arranged in the two chains of Insulin?
a)Chain A has 12 and Chain B has 13 amino acids
b) Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids
c) Chain A has 20 and chain B has 30 amino acids
d) Chain A has 12 and chain B has 20 amino acids.
Ans: B
94. The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of
a)AIDS b)Cancer c)Cystic fibrosis d)SCID
Ans: C
95. Dolly, the sheep was obtained by a technique known as
a)Cloning by gene transfer b)Cloning without the help of gametes
c)Cloning by tissue culture of somatic cells d)Cloning by nuclear transfer
Ans: D
96. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by
a) Enzyme replacement therapy
b) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having ADA cDNA
c) administering adenosine deaminase activators
d) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.
Ans: A
97. GEAC stands for
a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
b) Ground Environment Action Committee
c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
d) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee
Ans: C
98. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of
a)Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
b)Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
c)Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
d)Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
Ans: A
99. Which one of the following statements is true regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells b) It serves as a selectable marker
c)It is isolated from a Virus d)It remains active at a high temperature.
Ans: D
100. Vaccines that use components of a pathogenic organism rather than the whole organism are called
a) Subunit recombinant vaccines
b) attenuated recombinant vaccines
c) DNA vaccines
d) conventional vaccines.
Ans: A
A) Haemophilous influenzae B) Escherichia coli C) Methanosarcina D) Helicobacter pylori
Ans: A
70. Bidder’s canal is present in kidney of
A) Frog B) Crocodile C) Tortoise D) Snake
Ans: A
71. First test tube baby of the world was born on
A) 26th July 1978 B) 26th May 1987 C) 25th July 1978 D) 25th May 1987
Ans: C
72. An instrument used to scan a patients body, by a narrow X-ray beams guided by computer and thin sections of organs are photographed from several angles
A) CTS B) CAT C) NMR D) CET
Ans: B
73. 45 + XX in human indicates
A) Patau’s syndrome B) Jacob’s syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) Down’s syndrome
Ans: D
74. Warm blooded animals are larger in size in the colder region when compared to hotterreagions
A) Bergman’s law B) Cope’s law C) Allen’s law D) Dollow’s law
Ans: A
75. During glycolysis glucose is phosphorylated into
A) Glucose 6 phosphate B) Glucose 1-6-diphosphate C) Fructose 1, 6-diphosphate D) Fructose 6 phosphate
Ans: C
76. A method used for sequencing whole genomes by breaking the DNA is
A) Shotgun sequencing B) Western blotting C) Southern blotting D) Northern blotting
Ans: A
77. Chemical degradation of DNA protocol was developed by
A) Sanger B) Miller C) Gilbert D) Maxam-Gilbert
Ans: D
78. Colostrum provides
a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Naturally acquired passive immunity
c) Artificially acquired active immunity d)Artificially acquired passive immunity
Ans: B
79. Allergy involves
a)IgE
b)IgG
c)lgA
d)IgM
Ans: A
80. B Cells are activated by
(A) Complement (B) Antibody (C) Interferon (D) Antigen
Ans: D
81. Which of the following bacteria is used extensively as a bio-pesticide?
a) Bacillus thurigiensis b) Bacillus subtilis c) Lactobacillus acidophilus d) Streptococcus lactis
Ans: A
82. Which of the following microorganism is used for production of citric acid in industries?
a) Lactobacillus bulgaris b) Penicillium citrinum c) Aspergillus niger d) Rhizopus nigricans
Ans: C
83. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is_________
a) Soyameal b) Groundgram c) Molasses d) Corn meal
Ans: C
84. Cyclosporin – A is an immunosuppressive drug produced from _______
a) Aspergillus niger b) Manascus purpureus c) Penicillium notatum d) Trichoderma polysporum
Ans: D
85. The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to _______
a) Reduce BOD b) Increase BOD c) Reduce sedimentation d) Increase sedimentation
Ans: A
86. Which of the following is not involved in nitrogen fixation?
a) Pseudomonas b) Azotobacter c) Anabaena d) Nostac
Ans: A
87. Cry toxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against for______
a) Mosquitoes b) Flies c) Nematodes d) Bollworms
Ans: D
88. Which of the following pair is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
a) Acetobacter aceti - Antibiotics
b) Methanobacterium - Lactic acid
c) Penicilium notatum - Acetic acid
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Ethanol
Ans: D
89. The gases produced in anaerobic sludge digesters are
a) Methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide.
b) Hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide.
c) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane.
d) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2.
Ans: D
90. CO2 is not released during
a) Alcoholic fermentation b) Lactate fermentation
c) Aerobic respiration in animals d) Aerobic respiration in plants
Ans: B
91. Transgenic animals are those which have
a)Foreign DNA in some of their cells b)Foreign DNA in all their cells
c)Foreign RNA in some of their cells d)Foreign RNA in all their cells
Ans: B
92. Recombinant Factor VIII is produced in the ------- cells of the Chinese Hamster
a)Liver cells b)blood cells
c)ovarian cells d)brain cells.
Ans: C
93. How many amino acids are arranged in the two chains of Insulin?
a)Chain A has 12 and Chain B has 13 amino acids
b) Chain A has 21 and Chain B has 30 amino acids
c) Chain A has 20 and chain B has 30 amino acids
d) Chain A has 12 and chain B has 20 amino acids.
Ans: B
94. The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of
a)AIDS b)Cancer c)Cystic fibrosis d)SCID
Ans: C
95. Dolly, the sheep was obtained by a technique known as
a)Cloning by gene transfer b)Cloning without the help of gametes
c)Cloning by tissue culture of somatic cells d)Cloning by nuclear transfer
Ans: D
96. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by
a) Enzyme replacement therapy
b) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having ADA cDNA
c) administering adenosine deaminase activators
d) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into embryo at an early stage of development.
Ans: A
97. GEAC stands for
a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
b) Ground Environment Action Committee
c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
d) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee
Ans: C
98. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of
a)Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
b)Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
c)Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
d)Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
Ans: A
99. Which one of the following statements is true regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells b) It serves as a selectable marker
c)It is isolated from a Virus d)It remains active at a high temperature.
Ans: D
100. Vaccines that use components of a pathogenic organism rather than the whole organism are called
a) Subunit recombinant vaccines
b) attenuated recombinant vaccines
c) DNA vaccines
d) conventional vaccines.
Ans: A
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