TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 27
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 27 MCQs
1. Which of the following is not instructional material ?
(A) Over Head Projector (B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material (D) Transparency
Answer: A
2. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Answer: A
3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is :
(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture
Answer: B
Q4. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Answer: B
5. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Answer: D
6. Research can be conducted by a person who :
(A) has studied research methodology
(B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
(D) is a hard worker
Answer: A
7. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem
(D) All the above
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ?
(A) Observation (B) Historical
(C) Survey (D) Philosophical
Answer: A
9. Research can be classified as :
(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research
(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
Answer: D
10. The first step of research is :
(A) Selecting a problem (B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem (D) Identifying a problem
Answer: B
Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 :
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and isham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls : as a nation, who are we ? As a people, where are we going ?The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the Englishwoman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, but an honourable friend. This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference : there is culture, not contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs : no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan (closeness).All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name : Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.
11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ?
(A) Bling + bling (B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan
Answer: B
12. Who made Lamhe in 1991 ?
(A) Subhash Ghai (B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra (D) Sakti Samanta
Answer: B
13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ?
(A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti
Answer: D
14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ?
(A) Deewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara
Answer: D
15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ?
(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes
(D) Traditional Madrasi Clothes
Answer: C
16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication ?
(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Answer: C
17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ?
(A) Zee News (B) NDTV 24×7
(C) CNBC (D) India News
Answer: C
18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:
(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting (B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service (D) All Tndia Broadcasting Service
Answer: C
19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) N. Ram : The Hindu (B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7 (D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak
Answer: B
20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by :
(A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express (D) Hindustan Times
Answer: D
21. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is :
(A) 26 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 32
Answer: C
22. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8 :
(A) PLANE (B) MOPED
(C) MOTOR (D) TONGA
Answer: B
23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship what is the right choice for the second set ?
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A) ORW (B) MPU
(C) MRW (D) OPW
Answer: D
24. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as:
(A) 30 (B) 37
(C) 38 (D) 39
Answer: B
25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2:1/3:1/4. If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of the smallest side is :
(A) 9 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm (D) 12 cm
Answer: D
26. Which one of the following statements is completely nonsensical ?
(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Answer: B
27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory ?
(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
28. Which of the following statements say the same thing ?
(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)
(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)
(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)
(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)
(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)
(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (ii) and (vi) (D) (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing ?
(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.
(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.
(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: A
30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE ?
(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) alone
Answer: D
31. Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation
Answer: C
32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature
Answer: A
33. To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical (B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical
Answer: D
34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by:
(A) UNDP (B) WTO
(C) IMF (D) World Bank
Answer: A
35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy
Answer: D
36. LAN stands for :
(A) Local And National (B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network (D) Live Area Network
Answer: B
37. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(C) Modem is the operating system
(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
Answer: D
38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?
(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only quantitative data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative information
Answer: B
39. Information and Communication Technology includes :
(A) On line learning (B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
(C) Web Based Learning (D) All the above
Answer: D
40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of email ?
(A) www_mail.com (B) [email protected]
(C) [email protected] (D) www.mail.com
Answer: B
41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of :
(A) change in weather (B) sinking of islands
(C) loss of vegetation (D) extinction of animals
Answer: A
42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water
beyond desired level, there will be :
(A) decrease in temperature (B) increase in salinity
(C) growth of phytoplankton (D) rise in sea level
Answer: C
43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct answer from the code given
below :
Column I Column II
Water Quality pH Value
(a) Neutral (i) 5
(b) Moderately acidic (ii) 7
(c) Alkaline (iii) 4
(d) Injurious (iv) 8
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: C
44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by :
(A) Coal (B) Firewood
(C) Refuse burning (D) Vegetable waste product
Answer: B
45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain :
(A) faster than that in rural areas
(B) slower than that in rural areas
(C) the same as that in rural areas
(D) cooler than that in rural areas
Answer: B
46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of :
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Sargent Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
Answer: A or C
47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking ?
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 29
(C) Article 30 (D) Article 31
Answer: C
48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget
(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Answer: B
49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS
(Probationers) is imparted by :
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India
(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Answer: C
50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections are settled by:
(A) Election Commission of India (B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India (D) Central Election Tribunal
Answer: C
(A) Over Head Projector (B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material (D) Transparency
Answer: A
2. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Answer: A
3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is :
(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture
Answer: B
Q4. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Answer: B
5. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Answer: D
6. Research can be conducted by a person who :
(A) has studied research methodology
(B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
(D) is a hard worker
Answer: A
7. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem
(D) All the above
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ?
(A) Observation (B) Historical
(C) Survey (D) Philosophical
Answer: A
9. Research can be classified as :
(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research
(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
Answer: D
10. The first step of research is :
(A) Selecting a problem (B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem (D) Identifying a problem
Answer: B
Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 :
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and isham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls : as a nation, who are we ? As a people, where are we going ?The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the Englishwoman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, but an honourable friend. This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference : there is culture, not contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs : no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan (closeness).All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name : Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.
11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ?
(A) Bling + bling (B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan
Answer: B
12. Who made Lamhe in 1991 ?
(A) Subhash Ghai (B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra (D) Sakti Samanta
Answer: B
13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ?
(A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti
Answer: D
14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ?
(A) Deewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara
Answer: D
15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ?
(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes
(D) Traditional Madrasi Clothes
Answer: C
16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication ?
(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Answer: C
17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ?
(A) Zee News (B) NDTV 24×7
(C) CNBC (D) India News
Answer: C
18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:
(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting (B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service (D) All Tndia Broadcasting Service
Answer: C
19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) N. Ram : The Hindu (B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7 (D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak
Answer: B
20. “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by :
(A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express (D) Hindustan Times
Answer: D
21. In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is :
(A) 26 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 32
Answer: C
22. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8 :
(A) PLANE (B) MOPED
(C) MOTOR (D) TONGA
Answer: B
23. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship what is the right choice for the second set ?
AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
(A) ORW (B) MPU
(C) MRW (D) OPW
Answer: D
24. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as:
(A) 30 (B) 37
(C) 38 (D) 39
Answer: B
25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2:1/3:1/4. If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of the smallest side is :
(A) 9 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm (D) 12 cm
Answer: D
26. Which one of the following statements is completely nonsensical ?
(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Answer: B
27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory ?
(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
28. Which of the following statements say the same thing ?
(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)
(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)
(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)
(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)
(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)
(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (ii) and (vi) (D) (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing ?
(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.
(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.
(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: A
30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE ?
(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) alone
Answer: D
31. Deductive argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation
Answer: C
32. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature
Answer: A
33. To be critical, thinking must be
(A) practical (B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical
Answer: D
34. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by:
(A) UNDP (B) WTO
(C) IMF (D) World Bank
Answer: A
35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy
Answer: D
36. LAN stands for :
(A) Local And National (B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network (D) Live Area Network
Answer: B
37. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(C) Modem is the operating system
(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
Answer: D
38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?
(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only quantitative data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative information
Answer: B
39. Information and Communication Technology includes :
(A) On line learning (B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
(C) Web Based Learning (D) All the above
Answer: D
40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of email ?
(A) www_mail.com (B) [email protected]
(C) [email protected] (D) www.mail.com
Answer: B
41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of :
(A) change in weather (B) sinking of islands
(C) loss of vegetation (D) extinction of animals
Answer: A
42. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water
beyond desired level, there will be :
(A) decrease in temperature (B) increase in salinity
(C) growth of phytoplankton (D) rise in sea level
Answer: C
43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct answer from the code given
below :
Column I Column II
Water Quality pH Value
(a) Neutral (i) 5
(b) Moderately acidic (ii) 7
(c) Alkaline (iii) 4
(d) Injurious (iv) 8
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: C
44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by :
(A) Coal (B) Firewood
(C) Refuse burning (D) Vegetable waste product
Answer: B
45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain :
(A) faster than that in rural areas
(B) slower than that in rural areas
(C) the same as that in rural areas
(D) cooler than that in rural areas
Answer: B
46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of :
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Sargent Commission
(D) Kothari Commission
Answer: A or C
47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking ?
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 29
(C) Article 30 (D) Article 31
Answer: C
48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget
(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Answer: B
49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS
(Probationers) is imparted by :
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India
(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration
(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Answer: C
50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections are settled by:
(A) Election Commission of India (B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India (D) Central Election Tribunal
Answer: C
51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire (B) Lightning
(C) Landslide (D) Chemical contamination
Answer: D
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW (B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW (D) 350 GW
Answer: D
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India
Answer: C
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: B
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (c) (B) (a), b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: A
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) the Union List (B) the State List
(C) the Concurrent List (D) the Residuary Powers
Answer: B
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed
Answer: D
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal
Answer: A
61. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
(A) Untreated sewage (B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries (D) Religious practices
Answer: A
62. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
(A) 2022 (B) 2030
(C) 2040 (D) 2050
Answer: B
63. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW (B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW (D) 10 MW
Answer: D
64. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: A
65. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 80%
Answer: B
66. .............. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (B) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(C) ROM (Read Only Memory) (D) Cache Memory
Answer: C
67. What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its participants ?
(A) Benefit for the next project
(B) Opportunity for more learning
(C) Little expectation of retaining them
(D) Help in marketing the previous product
Answer: A
68. What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its participants ?
(A) Absence from the next project.
(B) Retention for the next project.
(C) Participation in the current project.
(D) Use of opportunity to acquire experience.
Answer: B
69. Why do film production houses value experience highly ?
(A) Because of the importance of trial and error methods.
(B) Because of the margin for learning.
(C) Because of short time horizons.
(D) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.
Answer: C
70. According to the author, what has been the focus of film business ?
(A) Formal education (B) Mentoring
(C) Exploitation (D) Indirect experience
Answer: C
71. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
72. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
73. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) discussions on scriptural texts (B) lecture/discourses on values
(C) seminars/symposia on values (D) mentoring/reflective sessions on values
Answer: B
74. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
Answer: A
75. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
76. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set - I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set - II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set - I Set - II
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level and non-examples of a point. i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples
b. Understanding level during the presentations. ii. Recording the important points made
c. Reflective level items of information. iii. Asking the students to discuss various
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: C
77. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set - I Set - II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and cocognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: A
78. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e) (D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: D
79. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer: D
80. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: C
81. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: C
82. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: C
83. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: B
84. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method (B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method (D) Ex-post-facto method
Answer: D
85. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis
Answer: B
86. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: C
87. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not possess one of the following qualities
(A) Appropriateness (B) Measurability
(C) Comparability (D) Flexibility
Answer: D
88. Books and records are the primary sources of data in:
(A) historical research (B) participatory research
(C) clinical research (D) laboratory research
Answer: A
89. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) objectives should be pin-pointed
(B) objectives can be written in statement or question form
(C) another word for problem is variable
(D) all the above
Answer: A
90. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences, social sciences and humanities are
(A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic
(B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience
(C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking
(D) topic, supervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions
Answer: B
Read the following passage and answer the questions 91 to 95:
Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation. This is especially important in generating alternative decision support solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems primarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence, individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. I lowever, several studies have found that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once be lieved, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed. Manual methods for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group, can be very successful in certain situations. However, in other situations, such an approach is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective when (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to conduct an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-toface session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is not optimal, or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases, computerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success. Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work, but the software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although idea-generation software is still relatively new, there are several packages on the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references words and phrases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software packages use questions to prompt the user towards new, unexplored patterns of thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination.
91. The author, in this passage has focused on
(A) knowledge creation (B) idea-generation
(C) creativity (D) individual traits
Answer: A
92. Fostering creativity needs an environment of
(A) decision support systems (B) idea-nurturing
(C) decision support solutions (D) alternative individual factors
Answer: B
93. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in certain occasions,
(A) are alternatively effective (B) can be less expensive
(C) do not need a facilitator (D) require a mix of optimal participants
Answer: A
94. Idea-generation software works as if it is a
(A) stimulant (B) knowledge package
(C) user-friendly trainer (D) climate creator
Answer: A
95. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking patterns can be won when:
(A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods
(B) idea-generation software prompts questions
(C) manual methods are removed
(D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software
Answer: B
96. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as:
(A) channel noise (B) semantic noise
(C) psychological noise (D) source noise
Answer: A
97. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example of:
(A) time-shifting (B) content reference
(C) mechanical clarity (D) media synchronisation
Answer: D
98. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience:
(A) plentiful of information (B) a good amount of statistics
(C) concise proof (D) repetition of facts
Answer: A
99. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from the state of:
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
100. Insert the missing number:
8 24 12 ? 18 54
(A) 26 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 32
Answer: C
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire (B) Lightning
(C) Landslide (D) Chemical contamination
Answer: D
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW (B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW (D) 350 GW
Answer: D
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India
Answer: C
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: B
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (c) (B) (a), b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: A
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) the Union List (B) the State List
(C) the Concurrent List (D) the Residuary Powers
Answer: B
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed
Answer: D
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal
Answer: A
61. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
(A) Untreated sewage (B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries (D) Religious practices
Answer: A
62. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
(A) 2022 (B) 2030
(C) 2040 (D) 2050
Answer: B
63. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW (B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW (D) 10 MW
Answer: D
64. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: A
65. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 80%
Answer: B
66. .............. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (B) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(C) ROM (Read Only Memory) (D) Cache Memory
Answer: C
67. What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its participants ?
(A) Benefit for the next project
(B) Opportunity for more learning
(C) Little expectation of retaining them
(D) Help in marketing the previous product
Answer: A
68. What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its participants ?
(A) Absence from the next project.
(B) Retention for the next project.
(C) Participation in the current project.
(D) Use of opportunity to acquire experience.
Answer: B
69. Why do film production houses value experience highly ?
(A) Because of the importance of trial and error methods.
(B) Because of the margin for learning.
(C) Because of short time horizons.
(D) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.
Answer: C
70. According to the author, what has been the focus of film business ?
(A) Formal education (B) Mentoring
(C) Exploitation (D) Indirect experience
Answer: C
71. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
72. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
73. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) discussions on scriptural texts (B) lecture/discourses on values
(C) seminars/symposia on values (D) mentoring/reflective sessions on values
Answer: B
74. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
Answer: A
75. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
76. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set - I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set - II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set - I Set - II
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level and non-examples of a point. i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples
b. Understanding level during the presentations. ii. Recording the important points made
c. Reflective level items of information. iii. Asking the students to discuss various
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: C
77. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set - I Set - II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and cocognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: A
78. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e) (D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: D
79. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer: D
80. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: C
81. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: C
82. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: C
83. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: B
84. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method (B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method (D) Ex-post-facto method
Answer: D
85. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis
Answer: B
86. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: C
87. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not possess one of the following qualities
(A) Appropriateness (B) Measurability
(C) Comparability (D) Flexibility
Answer: D
88. Books and records are the primary sources of data in:
(A) historical research (B) participatory research
(C) clinical research (D) laboratory research
Answer: A
89. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) objectives should be pin-pointed
(B) objectives can be written in statement or question form
(C) another word for problem is variable
(D) all the above
Answer: A
90. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences, social sciences and humanities are
(A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic
(B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience
(C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking
(D) topic, supervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions
Answer: B
Read the following passage and answer the questions 91 to 95:
Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation. This is especially important in generating alternative decision support solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems primarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence, individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. I lowever, several studies have found that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once be lieved, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed. Manual methods for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group, can be very successful in certain situations. However, in other situations, such an approach is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective when (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to conduct an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-toface session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is not optimal, or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases, computerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success. Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work, but the software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although idea-generation software is still relatively new, there are several packages on the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references words and phrases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software packages use questions to prompt the user towards new, unexplored patterns of thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination.
91. The author, in this passage has focused on
(A) knowledge creation (B) idea-generation
(C) creativity (D) individual traits
Answer: A
92. Fostering creativity needs an environment of
(A) decision support systems (B) idea-nurturing
(C) decision support solutions (D) alternative individual factors
Answer: B
93. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in certain occasions,
(A) are alternatively effective (B) can be less expensive
(C) do not need a facilitator (D) require a mix of optimal participants
Answer: A
94. Idea-generation software works as if it is a
(A) stimulant (B) knowledge package
(C) user-friendly trainer (D) climate creator
Answer: A
95. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking patterns can be won when:
(A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods
(B) idea-generation software prompts questions
(C) manual methods are removed
(D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software
Answer: B
96. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as:
(A) channel noise (B) semantic noise
(C) psychological noise (D) source noise
Answer: A
97. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example of:
(A) time-shifting (B) content reference
(C) mechanical clarity (D) media synchronisation
Answer: D
98. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience:
(A) plentiful of information (B) a good amount of statistics
(C) concise proof (D) repetition of facts
Answer: A
99. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from the state of:
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal (D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
100. Insert the missing number:
8 24 12 ? 18 54
(A) 26 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 32
Answer: C
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