TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 17
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 17 MCQs
1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:
(A) Linguistic expression
(B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D) Comprehension of subject
Ans: D
2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?
(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To teach within understanding level of students
(C) For students' attention
(D) To make students attentive
Ans: B
3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:
(A) Learning
(B) Research
(C) Heredity
(D) Explanation
Ans: A
4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
Ans: B
5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(A) Attitudes
(B) Concepts
(C) Knowledge
(D) Maturation
Ans: D
6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?
(A) Through its impartiality
(B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity
(D) All of these
Ans: D
7. Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) All the above
Ans: B
8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:
(A) Cultural background of the country
(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Ans: A
9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research?
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) All the above
Ans: D
10. We use Factorial Analysis:
(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables
Ans: C
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:
While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.
The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue.
It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule.
Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration.
When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament.
There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.
Answer the following questions:
11. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Ans: B
12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?
(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.
Ans: B
13. Democracy is practiced where:
(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Ans: B
14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Ans: A
15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats
(B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons
(D) Merchants and artisans
Ans: D
16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world?
(A) TPS
(B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference
(D) Video teletext
Ans: C
17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?
(A) NDTV24x7
(B) ZEE News
(C) Aajtak
(D) Lok Sabha channel
Ans: D
18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:
(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D) Entertainment only
Ans: B
19. In communication chatting in internet is:
(A) Verbal communication
(B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication
(D) Grapevine communication
Ans: C
20. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I t the correct answer using the codes gh List-II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist
(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: C
21. Insert the missing number in the following:
3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 45
Ans: C
22. In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS
(D) SEPTS
Ans: C
23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set: BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL
(B) RPNL
(C) LNPR
(D) LJHF
Ans: C
24. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research
(D) Content analysis
Ans: B
25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Ans: B
26. In a deductive argument conclusion is:
(A) Summing up of the premises
(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Ans: C
27. 'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:
(A) Some man are mortal
(B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal
(D) No mortal is man
Ans: A
28. A deductive argument is valid if:
(A) premises are false and conclusion true
(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Ans: D
29. Structure of logical argument is based on:
(A) Formal validity
(B) Material truth
(C) Linguistic expression
(D) Aptness of examples
Ans: A
30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of these
Ans: B
31. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
Ans: A
32. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
Ans: B
33. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis
Ans: B
34. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research
Ans: C
35. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Ans: A
36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet
(B) a web browser
(C) a web server
(D) all of the above
Ans: D
37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
(A) Essar
(B) BPL
(C) Hutchison
(D) Airtel
Ans: B
38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:
(A) Bangalore
(B) Sri Harikota
(C) Chennai
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans: B
39. What is blog?
(A) Online music
(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Ans: C
40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?
(A) www.jeevansathi.com
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com
(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
Ans: D
41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Ans: D
42. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
(A) nearby water bodies
(B) melting
(C) rain fall only
(D) sea only
Ans: C
43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland
(B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region
(D) Indian desert
Ans: C
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Institutes) (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata
(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans: A
45. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:
(A) 2005
(B) 2004
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Ans: B
46. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:
(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Ans: A
47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?
(A) Delhi University
(B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Ans: D
48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators”?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Ans: D
49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
(A) Article 371 A
(B) Article 371 B
(C) Article 371 C
(D) Article 263
Ans: A
50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
(A) Right to information
(B) Citizens' Charter
(C) Social Auditing
(D) Judicial Activism
Ans: D
(A) Linguistic expression
(B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D) Comprehension of subject
Ans: D
2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?
(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To teach within understanding level of students
(C) For students' attention
(D) To make students attentive
Ans: B
3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:
(A) Learning
(B) Research
(C) Heredity
(D) Explanation
Ans: A
4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
Ans: B
5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(A) Attitudes
(B) Concepts
(C) Knowledge
(D) Maturation
Ans: D
6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?
(A) Through its impartiality
(B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity
(D) All of these
Ans: D
7. Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) All the above
Ans: B
8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:
(A) Cultural background of the country
(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Ans: A
9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research?
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) All the above
Ans: D
10. We use Factorial Analysis:
(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables
(D) To know the difference among the many variables
Ans: C
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:
While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.
The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue.
It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule.
Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration.
When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament.
There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.
Answer the following questions:
11. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Ans: B
12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?
(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.
Ans: B
13. Democracy is practiced where:
(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Ans: B
14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Ans: A
15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats
(B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons
(D) Merchants and artisans
Ans: D
16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world?
(A) TPS
(B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference
(D) Video teletext
Ans: C
17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?
(A) NDTV24x7
(B) ZEE News
(C) Aajtak
(D) Lok Sabha channel
Ans: D
18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:
(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D) Entertainment only
Ans: B
19. In communication chatting in internet is:
(A) Verbal communication
(B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication
(D) Grapevine communication
Ans: C
20. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I t the correct answer using the codes gh List-II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist
(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: C
21. Insert the missing number in the following:
3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 45
Ans: C
22. In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS
(D) SEPTS
Ans: C
23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set: BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL
(B) RPNL
(C) LNPR
(D) LJHF
Ans: C
24. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research
(B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research
(D) Content analysis
Ans: B
25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Ans: B
26. In a deductive argument conclusion is:
(A) Summing up of the premises
(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Ans: C
27. 'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:
(A) Some man are mortal
(B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal
(D) No mortal is man
Ans: A
28. A deductive argument is valid if:
(A) premises are false and conclusion true
(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Ans: D
29. Structure of logical argument is based on:
(A) Formal validity
(B) Material truth
(C) Linguistic expression
(D) Aptness of examples
Ans: A
30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of these
Ans: B
31. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables
Ans: A
32. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research
Ans: B
33. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis
Ans: B
34. Manipulation is always a part of
(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research
Ans: C
35. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Ans: A
36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet
(B) a web browser
(C) a web server
(D) all of the above
Ans: D
37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
(A) Essar
(B) BPL
(C) Hutchison
(D) Airtel
Ans: B
38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:
(A) Bangalore
(B) Sri Harikota
(C) Chennai
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans: B
39. What is blog?
(A) Online music
(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Ans: C
40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?
(A) www.jeevansathi.com
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com
(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
Ans: D
41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Ans: D
42. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
(A) nearby water bodies
(B) melting
(C) rain fall only
(D) sea only
Ans: C
43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland
(B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region
(D) Indian desert
Ans: C
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Institutes) (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata
(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi
(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans: A
45. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:
(A) 2005
(B) 2004
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Ans: B
46. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:
(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Ans: A
47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?
(A) Delhi University
(B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Ans: D
48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators”?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Ans: D
49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
(A) Article 371 A
(B) Article 371 B
(C) Article 371 C
(D) Article 263
Ans: A
50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
(A) Right to information
(B) Citizens' Charter
(C) Social Auditing
(D) Judicial Activism
Ans: D
51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
Ans: C
52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
Ans: D
53. Which one of the following is a research tool?
(A) Graph
(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Diagram
Ans: C
54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Ans: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.
55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
Ans: D
56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
Ans: A
57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
Ans: D
58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Ans: A
59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Ans: D
60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
Ans: B
61. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
(D) loud discussion among students
Ans: C
62. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?
(A) Family size
(B) Intelligence
(C) Height
(D) Attitude
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
Ans: C
64. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community
Ans: B
65. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level?
(A) 1 + 7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10
(D) 1 + 5
Ans: C
66. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry
Ans: B
67. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Ans: C
68. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
Ans: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 69 to 74:
The phrase “What is it like?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.
69. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process
(B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions
(D) professional opinion
Ans: C
70. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Ans: B
71. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
Ans: C
72. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Ans: C
73. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe
(B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body
(D) A Planet
Ans: C
74. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Ans: B
75. Identify the correct sequence of the following:
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Ans: A
76. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
77. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans: C
78. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
Ans: B
79. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water
(B) Tree
(C) World
(D) Earth
Ans: C
80. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother-in-law
Ans: D
81. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH
Ans: D
82. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
Ans: D
83. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme
Ans: A
84. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Ans: A
85. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Ans: B
86. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture
2. forest fires
3. biodiversity
4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
87. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.
Ans: C
88. Which option is not correct?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th Constitutional Amendment.
Ans: C
89. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Ans: A
90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Ans: A
91. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council
Ans: C
92. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Ans: D
93. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4
Ans: C
94. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC
(B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE
(D) NCTE and IGNOU
Ans: B
95. The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
Ans: C
96. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Ans: B
97. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?
(A) Idealist philosophy
(B) Compassion
(C) Discipline
(D) Entertaining
Ans: C
98. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States
(C) Japan
(D) China
Ans: C
99. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Ans: A
100. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?
(A) Array
(B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue
(D) Stack
Ans: B
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
Ans: C
52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
Ans: D
53. Which one of the following is a research tool?
(A) Graph
(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Diagram
Ans: C
54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Ans: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.
55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
Ans: D
56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
Ans: A
57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
Ans: D
58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Ans: A
59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Ans: D
60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
Ans: B
61. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
(D) loud discussion among students
Ans: C
62. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?
(A) Family size
(B) Intelligence
(C) Height
(D) Attitude
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
Ans: C
64. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community
Ans: B
65. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level?
(A) 1 + 7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10
(D) 1 + 5
Ans: C
66. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry
Ans: B
67. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Ans: C
68. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
Ans: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 69 to 74:
The phrase “What is it like?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.
69. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process
(B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions
(D) professional opinion
Ans: C
70. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Ans: B
71. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
Ans: C
72. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Ans: C
73. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe
(B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body
(D) A Planet
Ans: C
74. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Ans: B
75. Identify the correct sequence of the following:
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Ans: A
76. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
77. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans: C
78. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
Ans: B
79. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water
(B) Tree
(C) World
(D) Earth
Ans: C
80. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother-in-law
Ans: D
81. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH
Ans: D
82. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
Ans: D
83. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme
Ans: A
84. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Ans: A
85. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Ans: B
86. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture
2. forest fires
3. biodiversity
4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
87. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.
Ans: C
88. Which option is not correct?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th Constitutional Amendment.
Ans: C
89. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Ans: A
90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Ans: A
91. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council
Ans: C
92. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Ans: D
93. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4
Ans: C
94. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC
(B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE
(D) NCTE and IGNOU
Ans: B
95. The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students
Ans: C
96. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Ans: B
97. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?
(A) Idealist philosophy
(B) Compassion
(C) Discipline
(D) Entertaining
Ans: C
98. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States
(C) Japan
(D) China
Ans: C
99. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Ans: A
100. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?
(A) Array
(B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue
(D) Stack
Ans: B
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