TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 14
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 14 MCQs
1. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in
(1) Indeterminate messages
(2) Verbal messages
(3) Non-verbal messages
(4) Aggressive messages
Ans: C
2. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(1) Sedentary
(2) Staggered
(3) Factual
(4) Sectoral
Ans: C
3. Expressive communication is driven by
(1) Passive aggression
(2) Encoder's personality characteristics
(3) External clues
(4) Encoder-decoder contract
Ans: B
4. Positive classroom communication leads to
(1) Coercion
(3) Confrontation
(2) Submission
(4) Persuasion
Ans: D
5. Classroom communication is the basis of
(1) Social identity
(2) External inanities
(3) Biased passivity
(4) Group aggression
Ans: A
6. Effective communication pre-supposes
(1) Non-alignment
(2) Domination
(3) Passivity
(4) Understanding
Ans: D
7. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be
(1) TLO
(2) QOL
(3) QLO
(4) GQP
Ans: B
8. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as 0, I as A, P as N, E as M, 0 as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be
(1) SPEINMOAC
(2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN
(4) SEINCPAMO
Ans: D
9. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:
(1) Number of languages a person speaks
(2) Number of children in a household
(3) Population of cities
(4) Weight of students in a class
Ans: D
10. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be
(1) Rs.40
(2) Rs.60
(3) Rs.80
(4) Rs.70
Ans: D
11. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one
(1) Lucknow
(2) Rishikesh
(3) Allahabad
(4) Patna
Ans: A
12. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.
Ans: A
13. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, ... is
(1) 30
(2) 49
(3) 125
(4) 81
Ans: C
14. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird's wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish's fins. What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological
(2) Physiological
(3) Analogical
(4) Hypothetical
Ans: C
15. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions:
(a) Every student is attentive.
(b) Some students are attentive.
(c) Students are never attentive.
(d) Some students are not attentive.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
Ans: B
16. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
Premises:
(a) Untouchability is a curse.
(b) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions:
(i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: D
17. If the statement 'None but the brave wins the race' is false which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?
Select the correct code:
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.
Ans: B
18. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?
(1) Contrary
(2) Subcontrary
(3) Contradictory
(4) Sub-altern
Ans: C
19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
Ans: D
20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10
Ans: B
21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 180
Ans: B
22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5
Ans: C
23. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle
(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab
(D) Assembler
Ans: B
24. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System
(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server
Ans: A
25. Read the following two statements:
I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?
(1) Both I and II
(2) Neither I nor II
(3) II only
(4) I only
Ans: B
26. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
Ans: C
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(1) SI only
(2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2
(4) Neither S1 nor S2
Ans: B
28. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is called
(1) Electronic mail
(2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge
(4) Spam mail
Ans: C
29. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc
(2) Digital Volume Disc
(3) Digital Versatile Disc
(4) Digital Visualization Disc
Ans: C
30. Assertion (A): Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.
Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.
Choose the correct code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
31. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOx) in urban areas is
(1) Road transport
(2) Commercial sector
(3) Energy use in industry
(4) Power plants
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease?
(1) Typhoid
(2) Hepatitis
(3) Cholera
(4) Dengue
Ans: D
33. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?
(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.
(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.
(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.
Ans: B
34. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
(1) Rwanda
(2) Morocco
(3) South Africa
(4) Algeria
Ans: A
35. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?
(1) Snow avalanche
(2) Sea erosion
(3) Tropical cyclone
(4) Tsunami
Ans: D
36. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
37. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
38. Indian government's target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is
(1) 1 Giga-Watt
(2) 5 Giga-Watt
(3) 10 Giga-Watt
(4) 15 Giga-Watt
Ans: B
39. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
40. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President's Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)
Ans: A
41. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a State
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
42. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on
(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.
Ans: C
43. Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.
Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
44. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of
(1) Course coverage
(2) Students' interest
(3) Learning outcomes of students
(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom
Ans: C
45. In which teaching method learner's participation is made optimal and proactive?
(1) Discussion method
(2) Buzz session method
(3) Brainstorming session method
(4) Project method
Ans: D
46. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(1) Social system of the country
(2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system
(4) Educational system
Ans: D
47. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable. Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
48. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships?
Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes:
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: B
49. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?
(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act
(2) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act
(4) Act, observe, plan, reflect
Ans: B
50. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.
Ans: C
(1) Indeterminate messages
(2) Verbal messages
(3) Non-verbal messages
(4) Aggressive messages
Ans: C
2. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(1) Sedentary
(2) Staggered
(3) Factual
(4) Sectoral
Ans: C
3. Expressive communication is driven by
(1) Passive aggression
(2) Encoder's personality characteristics
(3) External clues
(4) Encoder-decoder contract
Ans: B
4. Positive classroom communication leads to
(1) Coercion
(3) Confrontation
(2) Submission
(4) Persuasion
Ans: D
5. Classroom communication is the basis of
(1) Social identity
(2) External inanities
(3) Biased passivity
(4) Group aggression
Ans: A
6. Effective communication pre-supposes
(1) Non-alignment
(2) Domination
(3) Passivity
(4) Understanding
Ans: D
7. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be
(1) TLO
(2) QOL
(3) QLO
(4) GQP
Ans: B
8. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as 0, I as A, P as N, E as M, 0 as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be
(1) SPEINMOAC
(2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN
(4) SEINCPAMO
Ans: D
9. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:
(1) Number of languages a person speaks
(2) Number of children in a household
(3) Population of cities
(4) Weight of students in a class
Ans: D
10. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be
(1) Rs.40
(2) Rs.60
(3) Rs.80
(4) Rs.70
Ans: D
11. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one
(1) Lucknow
(2) Rishikesh
(3) Allahabad
(4) Patna
Ans: A
12. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.
Ans: A
13. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, ... is
(1) 30
(2) 49
(3) 125
(4) 81
Ans: C
14. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird's wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish's fins. What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological
(2) Physiological
(3) Analogical
(4) Hypothetical
Ans: C
15. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions:
(a) Every student is attentive.
(b) Some students are attentive.
(c) Students are never attentive.
(d) Some students are not attentive.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
Ans: B
16. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
Premises:
(a) Untouchability is a curse.
(b) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions:
(i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: D
17. If the statement 'None but the brave wins the race' is false which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?
Select the correct code:
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.
Ans: B
18. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?
(1) Contrary
(2) Subcontrary
(3) Contradictory
(4) Sub-altern
Ans: C
19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
Ans: D
20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10
Ans: B
21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 180
Ans: B
22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5
Ans: C
23. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle
(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab
(D) Assembler
Ans: B
24. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System
(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server
Ans: A
25. Read the following two statements:
I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?
(1) Both I and II
(2) Neither I nor II
(3) II only
(4) I only
Ans: B
26. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
Ans: C
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(1) SI only
(2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2
(4) Neither S1 nor S2
Ans: B
28. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is called
(1) Electronic mail
(2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge
(4) Spam mail
Ans: C
29. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc
(2) Digital Volume Disc
(3) Digital Versatile Disc
(4) Digital Visualization Disc
Ans: C
30. Assertion (A): Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.
Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.
Choose the correct code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
31. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOx) in urban areas is
(1) Road transport
(2) Commercial sector
(3) Energy use in industry
(4) Power plants
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease?
(1) Typhoid
(2) Hepatitis
(3) Cholera
(4) Dengue
Ans: D
33. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?
(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.
(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.
(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.
Ans: B
34. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
(1) Rwanda
(2) Morocco
(3) South Africa
(4) Algeria
Ans: A
35. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?
(1) Snow avalanche
(2) Sea erosion
(3) Tropical cyclone
(4) Tsunami
Ans: D
36. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
37. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
38. Indian government's target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is
(1) 1 Giga-Watt
(2) 5 Giga-Watt
(3) 10 Giga-Watt
(4) 15 Giga-Watt
Ans: B
39. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
40. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President's Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)
Ans: A
41. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a State
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
42. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on
(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.
Ans: C
43. Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.
Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
44. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of
(1) Course coverage
(2) Students' interest
(3) Learning outcomes of students
(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom
Ans: C
45. In which teaching method learner's participation is made optimal and proactive?
(1) Discussion method
(2) Buzz session method
(3) Brainstorming session method
(4) Project method
Ans: D
46. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(1) Social system of the country
(2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system
(4) Educational system
Ans: D
47. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable. Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
48. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships?
Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes:
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: B
49. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?
(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act
(2) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act
(4) Act, observe, plan, reflect
Ans: B
50. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.
Ans: C
51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire
(B) Lightning
(C) Landslide
(D) Chemical contamination
Ans: D
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW
(B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW
(D) 350 GW
Ans: D
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India
Ans: C
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans: B
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) The Residuary Powers
Ans: B
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed
Ans: D
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans: A
61. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(A) Google Talk
(B) AltaVista
(C) MAC
(D) Microsoft Office
Ans: A
62. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(A) 23 percent
(B) 8 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 19 percent
Ans: A
63. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately:
(A) ~64
(B) ~8
(C) ~16
(D) ~32
Ans: D
64. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A) Keyboard
(B) Printer
(C) Speaker
(D) Monitor
Ans: A
65. Which of the following is not open source software?
(A) Apache HTTP server
(B) Internet explorer
(C) Fedora Linux
(D) Open office
Ans: B
66. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Fine particulate matter
(D) Ozone
Ans: A
67. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:
(A) 43
(B) 08
(C) 14
(D) 27
Ans: A
68. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
(A) Oil, forests and tides
(B) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(C) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(D) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
Ans: D
69. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(A) Learning through experience
(B) Teacher's knowledge
(C) Class room activities that encourage learning
(D) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
Ans: D
70. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
71. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?
(A) Evaluating
(B) Knowing
(C) Understanding
(D) Analysing
Ans: A
72. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:
(A) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
(B) Making selections for a specific job
(C) Selecting candidates for a course
(D) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
Ans: A
73. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
(A) Causal Comparative Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Descriptive Research
(D) Experimental Research
Ans: B
74. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
75. A good thesis writing should involve:
(a) Reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) Careful checking of references.
(c) Consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) A clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans: B
76. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
77. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his:
(A) Evaluation Research
(B) Fundamental Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) Action Research
Ans: B
78. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement indicates a:
(A) Statistical hypothesis
(B) Research hypothesis
(C) Null hypothesis
(D) Directional hypothesis
Ans: C
79. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
80. A good teacher is one who:
(A) Inspires students to learn
(B) Gives useful information
(C) Explains concepts and principles
(D) Gives Printed notes to students
Ans: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 81 to 86.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human. Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings: "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer the following questions:
81. Rational optimists:
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b) and (c) only
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a) only
(D) (a) and (b) only
Ans: B
82. Humans become less selfish when:
(A) They work in solitude
(B) They work in large groups
(C) They listen to frightening stories
(D) They listen to cheerful stories
Ans: B
83. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who:
(A) Are cheerful and carefree
(B) Follow Midway Path
(C) Are doom-mongers
(D) Are self-centred
Ans: B
84. Story telling is:
(A) The essence of what makes us human
(B) An art
(C) A science
(D) In our genes
Ans: A
85. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(A) Some important stories
(B) All stories that we have heard during our life-time
(C) Some stories that we remember
(D) A few stories that survive
Ans: D
86. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
(A) Designed to make prophecy
(B) We collectively choose to believe in
(C) Which are repeatedly narrated
(D) Designed to spread fear and tension
Ans: B
87. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will be:
(A) 50
(B) 42
(C) 48
(D) 45
Ans: A
88. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them:
Statements:
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes:
(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (a) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans: D
89. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have:
Passed in all five subjects = 5583
Passed in three subjects only = 1400
Passed in two subjects only = 1200
Passed in one subject only 735
Failed in English only = 75
Failed in Physics only = 145
Failed in Chemistry only = 140
Failed in Mathematics only = 200
Failed in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:
(A) 7900
(B) 6300
(C) 6900
(D) 7300
Ans: B
90. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?
(A) Strategic use of grapevine
(B) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(C) Participation of the audience
(D) One-way transfer of information
Ans: D
91. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols
Ans: C
92. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Ans: B
93. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
Ans: A
94. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
Ans: B
95. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
Ans: D
96. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Ans: A
97. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
Ans: A
98. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09
Ans: B
99. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Ans: D
100. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Commissions and Committees)
List – II (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: B
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire
(B) Lightning
(C) Landslide
(D) Chemical contamination
Ans: D
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW
(B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW
(D) 350 GW
Ans: D
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India
Ans: C
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans: B
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) The Residuary Powers
Ans: B
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed
Ans: D
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans: A
61. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(A) Google Talk
(B) AltaVista
(C) MAC
(D) Microsoft Office
Ans: A
62. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(A) 23 percent
(B) 8 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 19 percent
Ans: A
63. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately:
(A) ~64
(B) ~8
(C) ~16
(D) ~32
Ans: D
64. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A) Keyboard
(B) Printer
(C) Speaker
(D) Monitor
Ans: A
65. Which of the following is not open source software?
(A) Apache HTTP server
(B) Internet explorer
(C) Fedora Linux
(D) Open office
Ans: B
66. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Fine particulate matter
(D) Ozone
Ans: A
67. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:
(A) 43
(B) 08
(C) 14
(D) 27
Ans: A
68. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
(A) Oil, forests and tides
(B) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(C) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(D) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
Ans: D
69. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(A) Learning through experience
(B) Teacher's knowledge
(C) Class room activities that encourage learning
(D) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
Ans: D
70. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
71. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?
(A) Evaluating
(B) Knowing
(C) Understanding
(D) Analysing
Ans: A
72. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:
(A) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
(B) Making selections for a specific job
(C) Selecting candidates for a course
(D) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
Ans: A
73. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?
(A) Causal Comparative Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Descriptive Research
(D) Experimental Research
Ans: B
74. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
75. A good thesis writing should involve:
(a) Reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) Careful checking of references.
(c) Consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) A clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans: B
76. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
77. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his:
(A) Evaluation Research
(B) Fundamental Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) Action Research
Ans: B
78. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement indicates a:
(A) Statistical hypothesis
(B) Research hypothesis
(C) Null hypothesis
(D) Directional hypothesis
Ans: C
79. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
80. A good teacher is one who:
(A) Inspires students to learn
(B) Gives useful information
(C) Explains concepts and principles
(D) Gives Printed notes to students
Ans: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 81 to 86.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human. Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings: "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer the following questions:
81. Rational optimists:
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b) and (c) only
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a) only
(D) (a) and (b) only
Ans: B
82. Humans become less selfish when:
(A) They work in solitude
(B) They work in large groups
(C) They listen to frightening stories
(D) They listen to cheerful stories
Ans: B
83. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who:
(A) Are cheerful and carefree
(B) Follow Midway Path
(C) Are doom-mongers
(D) Are self-centred
Ans: B
84. Story telling is:
(A) The essence of what makes us human
(B) An art
(C) A science
(D) In our genes
Ans: A
85. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(A) Some important stories
(B) All stories that we have heard during our life-time
(C) Some stories that we remember
(D) A few stories that survive
Ans: D
86. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
(A) Designed to make prophecy
(B) We collectively choose to believe in
(C) Which are repeatedly narrated
(D) Designed to spread fear and tension
Ans: B
87. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will be:
(A) 50
(B) 42
(C) 48
(D) 45
Ans: A
88. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them:
Statements:
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes:
(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (a) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans: D
89. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have:
Passed in all five subjects = 5583
Passed in three subjects only = 1400
Passed in two subjects only = 1200
Passed in one subject only 735
Failed in English only = 75
Failed in Physics only = 145
Failed in Chemistry only = 140
Failed in Mathematics only = 200
Failed in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:
(A) 7900
(B) 6300
(C) 6900
(D) 7300
Ans: B
90. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?
(A) Strategic use of grapevine
(B) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(C) Participation of the audience
(D) One-way transfer of information
Ans: D
91. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols
Ans: C
92. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Ans: B
93. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
Ans: A
94. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
Ans: B
95. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
Ans: D
96. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Ans: A
97. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
Ans: A
98. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09
Ans: B
99. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Ans: D
100. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Commissions and Committees)
List – II (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: B
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