TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 24
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 24 MCQs
1. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
(A) Untreated sewage (B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries (D) Religious practices
Answer: A
2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
(A) 2022 (B) 2030
(C) 2040 (D) 2050
Answer: B
3. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW (B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW (D) 10 MW
Answer: D
4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: A
5. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade
1994-2003)
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 80%
Answer: B
6. .............. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (B) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(C) ROM (Read Only Memory) (D) Cache Memory
Answer: C
7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(C) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Answer: A
8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.
(A) Particulate matter (B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Surface ozone (D) Carbon monoxide
Answer: C
9. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (c) only
Answer: C
10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: D
11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment
and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
13. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) discussions on scriptural texts (B) lecture/discourses on values
(C) seminars/symposia on values (D) mentoring/reflective sessions
on values
Answer: B
14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
Answer: A
15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the
correct alternative from the codes given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
16. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set - I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set -II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set - I Set - II
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level and non-examples of a point. i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples
b. Understanding level during the presentations. ii. Recording the important points made
c. Reflective level items of information. iii. Asking the students to discuss various
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: C
17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in
respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set - I Set - II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and cognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: A
18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e) (D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: D
19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer: D
20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: C
21. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardized research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: C
22. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: C
23. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: B
24. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method (B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method (D) Ex-post-facto method
Answer: D
25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis
Answer: B
26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from27 to 32 :
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer-electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries.
Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors. In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such a no rganization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime. In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as resource with atleast the same level of power an importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
(A) Access to capital (B) Common office buildings
(C) Superior knowledge (D) Common metals
Answer: C
28. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(A) Global financial flow
(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(C) Regionalisation of capitalists
(D) Organizational incompatibility
Answer: A
29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
(A) International commerce (B) Labour-Intensive industries
(C) Capital resource management (D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
Answer: D
30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?
(A) South Korea (B) Japan
(C) Mexico (D) Malaysia
Answer: B
31. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?
(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.
(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.
(C) Because of new competitors.
(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
Answer: C
32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?
(A) Through regional capital flows.
(B) Through regional interactions among business players.
(C) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.
(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
Answer: D
33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of
(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness
(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(C) Secrecy, dissonance, deception
(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
Answer: A
34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command (B) Making aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture (D) Being authoritarian
Answer: C
35. Every communicator has to experience
(A) Manipulated emotions (B) Anticipatory excitement
(C) The issue of homophiles (D) Status dislocation
Answer: B
36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best
suited and normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication (B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication (D) Cross communication
Answer: A
37. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity (B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause (D) Fixed posture
Answer: B
38. What are the barriers to effective communication?
(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(D) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.
Answer: A
39. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively.
How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 20 m (B) 15 m
(C) 10 m (D) 5 m
Answer: D
40. A is sister of B. Fis daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(A) Grand daughter (B) Daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law (D) Sister
Answer: A
41. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ......?......, OPQRST, the missing term is
(A) JKLMN (B) JMKNL
(C) NMLKJ (D) NMKLJ
Answer: C
42. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions?
Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (a) and (c)
Answer: D
43. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be
(A) YKCPGAYLQ (B) BNFSJDBMR
(C) QLYAGPCKY (D) YQKLCYPAG
Answer: A
44. In the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........., The next term will be
(A) 63 (B) 73
(C) 83 (D) 93
Answer: C
45. Two railway tickets from city A and B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets
from city A to C city Rs.173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.
(A) 25 (B) 27
(C) 30 (D) 33
Answer: D
46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:
(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.
(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Answer: B
47. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the
conclusions validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions:
(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a) only
(B) (a) and (c) only (D) (b) and (c) only
Answer: C
48. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) Some thieves are poor.
(B) Some thieves are not poor.
(C) No thief is poor.
(D) No poor person is a thief.
Answer: B
49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(A) Astronomical (B) Anthropological
(C) Deductive (D) Analogical
Answer: D
50. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(B) It can provide clear method of notation.
(C) It can be either valid or invalid.
(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer: C
(A) Untreated sewage (B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries (D) Religious practices
Answer: A
2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
(A) 2022 (B) 2030
(C) 2040 (D) 2050
Answer: B
3. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW (B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW (D) 10 MW
Answer: D
4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: A
5. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade
1994-2003)
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 80%
Answer: B
6. .............. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.
(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (B) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(C) ROM (Read Only Memory) (D) Cache Memory
Answer: C
7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(C) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Answer: A
8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.
(A) Particulate matter (B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Surface ozone (D) Carbon monoxide
Answer: C
9. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (c) only
Answer: C
10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: D
11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment
and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
13. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) discussions on scriptural texts (B) lecture/discourses on values
(C) seminars/symposia on values (D) mentoring/reflective sessions
on values
Answer: B
14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
Answer: A
15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the
correct alternative from the codes given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
16. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set - I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set -II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set - I Set - II
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level and non-examples of a point. i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples
b. Understanding level during the presentations. ii. Recording the important points made
c. Reflective level items of information. iii. Asking the students to discuss various
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: C
17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in
respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set - I Set - II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and cognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions tests
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: A
18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e) (D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: D
19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer: D
20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: C
21. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardized research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: C
22. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: C
23. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: B
24. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method (B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method (D) Ex-post-facto method
Answer: D
25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis
Answer: B
26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from27 to 32 :
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer-electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries.
Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors. In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such a no rganization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime. In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as resource with atleast the same level of power an importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
(A) Access to capital (B) Common office buildings
(C) Superior knowledge (D) Common metals
Answer: C
28. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(A) Global financial flow
(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(C) Regionalisation of capitalists
(D) Organizational incompatibility
Answer: A
29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
(A) International commerce (B) Labour-Intensive industries
(C) Capital resource management (D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
Answer: D
30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?
(A) South Korea (B) Japan
(C) Mexico (D) Malaysia
Answer: B
31. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?
(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.
(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.
(C) Because of new competitors.
(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
Answer: C
32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?
(A) Through regional capital flows.
(B) Through regional interactions among business players.
(C) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.
(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
Answer: D
33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of
(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness
(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(C) Secrecy, dissonance, deception
(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
Answer: A
34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command (B) Making aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture (D) Being authoritarian
Answer: C
35. Every communicator has to experience
(A) Manipulated emotions (B) Anticipatory excitement
(C) The issue of homophiles (D) Status dislocation
Answer: B
36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best
suited and normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication (B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication (D) Cross communication
Answer: A
37. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity (B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause (D) Fixed posture
Answer: B
38. What are the barriers to effective communication?
(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(D) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.
Answer: A
39. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively.
How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 20 m (B) 15 m
(C) 10 m (D) 5 m
Answer: D
40. A is sister of B. Fis daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(A) Grand daughter (B) Daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law (D) Sister
Answer: A
41. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ......?......, OPQRST, the missing term is
(A) JKLMN (B) JMKNL
(C) NMLKJ (D) NMKLJ
Answer: C
42. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions?
Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (a) and (c)
Answer: D
43. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be
(A) YKCPGAYLQ (B) BNFSJDBMR
(C) QLYAGPCKY (D) YQKLCYPAG
Answer: A
44. In the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........., The next term will be
(A) 63 (B) 73
(C) 83 (D) 93
Answer: C
45. Two railway tickets from city A and B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets
from city A to C city Rs.173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.
(A) 25 (B) 27
(C) 30 (D) 33
Answer: D
46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:
(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.
(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Answer: B
47. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the
conclusions validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions:
(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a) only
(B) (a) and (c) only (D) (b) and (c) only
Answer: C
48. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) Some thieves are poor.
(B) Some thieves are not poor.
(C) No thief is poor.
(D) No poor person is a thief.
Answer: B
49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(A) Astronomical (B) Anthropological
(C) Deductive (D) Analogical
Answer: D
50. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(B) It can provide clear method of notation.
(C) It can be either valid or invalid.
(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer: C
51. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
Answer: D
52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
Answer: D
53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Answer: A
54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
Answer: B
55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: B
56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: B
57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Answer: D
58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: A
59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: B
60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: A
61. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity (B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive (D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: A
62. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children (B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself (D) The community
Answer: C
63. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
Answer: A
64. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (D) Worry
Answer: B
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: A
66. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating (D) Passive and active
Answer: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 67 to 72 :
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because the yare like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them. During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered. Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.
67. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process (B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion
Answer: A
68. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Answer: C
69. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
Answer: A
70. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Answer: C
71. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet
Answer: B
72. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Answer: A
73. An example of asynchronous medium is
(A) Radio (B) Television
(C) Film (D) Newspaper
Answer: D
74. In communication, connotative words are
(A) explicit (B) abstract
(C) simple (D) cultural
Answer: D
75. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(A) embedded text (B) internal text
(C) inter-text (D) sub-text
Answer: D
76. In analog mass communication, stories are
(A) static (B) dynamic
(C) interactive (D) exploratory
Answer: A
77. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship:
(A) often : rarely (B) frequently :occasionally
(C) constantly : frequently (D) intermittently : casually
Answer: A
78. Find the wrong number in the sequence :
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 43 (D) 48
Answer: B
79. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 41
Answer: B
80. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :
AF: IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO (B) NP
(C) OR (D) TV
Answer: D
81. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: A
82. In an examination, 35%of the total students failed in Hindi, 45%failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
Answer: D
83. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of
the following conclusions can logically follow?
Statements :
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions :
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: D
84. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of
the following statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) only
Answer: B
85. A reasoning where we start with certain particular
statements and conclude with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning (B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning (D) Transcendental Reasoning
Answer: D
86. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and
a duck between two ducks?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 4 (D) 3
Answer: D
87. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B ?
(A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman
Answer: C
88. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Answer: D
89. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
(A) MTNL (B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.
Answer: D
90. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is
(A) transport sector (B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector
Answer: A
91. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: A
92. Most of the Universities in India are funded by
(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Answer: C
93. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality
of Technical and Management education in India?
(A) NCTE (B) MCI
(C) AICTE (D) CSIR
Answer: C
94. Consider the following statements:
Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Answer: D
95. The President of India is
(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
96. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer: D
97. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __
(A) 76 (B) 74
(C) 75 (D) 50
Answer: C
98. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X (B) Y
(C) Z (D) A
Answer: B
99. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 4
Answer: C
100. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions (B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Common names
Answer: D
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
Answer: D
52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
Answer: D
53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Answer: A
54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
Answer: B
55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: B
56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: B
57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Answer: D
58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: A
59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: B
60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: A
61. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity (B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive (D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: A
62. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children (B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself (D) The community
Answer: C
63. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
Answer: A
64. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (D) Worry
Answer: B
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: A
66. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating (D) Passive and active
Answer: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 67 to 72 :
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because the yare like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them. During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered. Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.
67. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process (B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion
Answer: A
68. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Answer: C
69. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
Answer: A
70. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Answer: C
71. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet
Answer: B
72. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image
Answer: A
73. An example of asynchronous medium is
(A) Radio (B) Television
(C) Film (D) Newspaper
Answer: D
74. In communication, connotative words are
(A) explicit (B) abstract
(C) simple (D) cultural
Answer: D
75. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(A) embedded text (B) internal text
(C) inter-text (D) sub-text
Answer: D
76. In analog mass communication, stories are
(A) static (B) dynamic
(C) interactive (D) exploratory
Answer: A
77. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship:
(A) often : rarely (B) frequently :occasionally
(C) constantly : frequently (D) intermittently : casually
Answer: A
78. Find the wrong number in the sequence :
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 43 (D) 48
Answer: B
79. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 41
Answer: B
80. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :
AF: IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO (B) NP
(C) OR (D) TV
Answer: D
81. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: A
82. In an examination, 35%of the total students failed in Hindi, 45%failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
Answer: D
83. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of
the following conclusions can logically follow?
Statements :
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions :
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: D
84. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of
the following statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) only
Answer: B
85. A reasoning where we start with certain particular
statements and conclude with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning (B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning (D) Transcendental Reasoning
Answer: D
86. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and
a duck between two ducks?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 4 (D) 3
Answer: D
87. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B ?
(A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman
Answer: C
88. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Answer: D
89. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
(A) MTNL (B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.
Answer: D
90. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is
(A) transport sector (B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector
Answer: A
91. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: A
92. Most of the Universities in India are funded by
(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Answer: C
93. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality
of Technical and Management education in India?
(A) NCTE (B) MCI
(C) AICTE (D) CSIR
Answer: C
94. Consider the following statements:
Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Answer: D
95. The President of India is
(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
96. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer: D
97. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, __
(A) 76 (B) 74
(C) 75 (D) 50
Answer: C
98. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X (B) Y
(C) Z (D) A
Answer: B
99. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code?
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 4
Answer: C
100. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions (B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Common names
Answer: D
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