TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 23
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 23 MCQs
1. Hypothesis relates :
(A) Constant to variables (B) Variables to constant
(C) Variables to variables (D) Constant to constant
Ans: C
2. Action research is a type of :
(A) Applied research (B) Quantity research
(C) Population research (D) Survey research
Ans: A
3. How is the competency of a teacher judged :
(A) Books published (B) Meeting the needs of students
(C) Personality (D) Length of association with a school
Ans: B
4. The format of thesis writing is the same as in :
(A) Writing of seminar presentation
(B) A research dissertation
(C) Preparation of a research paper/article
(D) Presenting a workshop/conference paper
Ans: B
5. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research :
(A) Formulating a research question
(B) Formulating a research hypothesis
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Developing a research design
Ans: A
6. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar :
(A) It needs involvement of skilled persons
(B) It involves questioning, discussions and debates
(C) It is a form of academic instruction
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
7. “Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test”. This statement indicates a :
(A) Research hypothesis (B) Statistical hypothesis
(C) Directional hypothesis (D) Null hypothesis
Ans: D
8. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefers for the study :
(A) Schedule (B) Rating scale
(C) Questionnaire (D) Interview
Ans: C
9. Media is known as :
(A) First Estate (B) Second Estate
(C) Third Estate (D) Fourth Estate
Ans: D
10. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in :
(A) The Appendix (B) The text itself
(C) A separate chapter (D) The concluding chapter
Ans: B
11. Which is the main objective of research :
(A) To get an academic degree
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To review the literature
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Ans: D
12. A detailed description of methodology of research is required in :
(A) Symposium/Workshop (B) Seminar paper/Articles
(C) Thesis/Dissertation (D) Conference and Seminar papers
Ans: B
13. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentations to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called :
(A) Symposium (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Training programme
Ans: B
14. Research design should include following information except:
(A) Who makes up the study population? (B) Will a sample or the total population be studied
(C) How will confidentiality be preserved (D) How will data be protected?
Ans: D
15. When a Research study is undertaken to find out an answer to a question one implies all of the following processes except:
(A) That it is being undertaken within a framework of a set of philosophies
(B) It uses procedures, methods & techniques that have been tested for their validity & reliability
(C) Is unbiased & objective
(D) Has to be subjective & philosophical
Ans: D
16. Which of the following is not an ethical issue to consider in relation to the participant?
(A) Giving incentive before data is collected (B) Taking informed consent (C) Maintaining confidentiality (D) Risk should be minimal
Ans: A
17. All except one is the step in formulating a research problem:
(A) Formulating a research problem (B) Identifying target population
(C) Constructing a hypothesis (D) Reviewing of literature
Ans: B
18. Which of the following is not true about Literature Review?
(A) Provides a theoretical background of the study (B) Bring clarity & focus to the research problem
(C) Will enable one to virtualize one’s findings (D) Broaden one’s knowledge base in research area
Ans: C
19. All is true about quantitative research except:
(A) It is structured & has predetermined methodology (B) It emphasizes on greater sample size
(C) Explores experiences, meanings, perceptions & feelings (D) Reliability & objectivity is the focus
Ans: C
20. Which of the following is not true of a hypothesis?
(A) Should be simple, specific & conceptually clear (B) Should be capable of verification
(C) Should be operationalisable (D) Should be multidimensional
Ans: D
21. Which of the following should be standard structure sequence of the research reporting’?
(A) Abstract, Review of literature, Results, Conclusion (B) Introduction, Material & methods, Results , Discussion
(C) Keywords, Result & Discussion, Data Analysis, Recommendation (D) Introduction, Data Analysis, Result & Discussion, References
Ans: B
22. Which of the following type of research is used to develop, refine &/or develop test measurement tools & procedures?
(A) Exploratory research (B) Explanatory research (C) Descriptive (D) Correlational research
Ans: A
23. Bayesian statistics offers homoeopathy an instrument to use experience to predict:
(A) Future outcomes (B) Mechanism of action of a remedy (C) Present diagnosis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
24. As the diagnosis is built on combination of symptoms & observations, the prognosis that a homoeopathic medicine will work is based on:
(A) Combination of symptoms & personal characteristics (B) Totality of symptoms
(C) Generals, particulars & pathological (D) Combination of characteristics & modalities
Ans: A
25. Research involves all of the following except:
(A) Use of appropriate methods (B) Systematic, controlled, valid & rigorous exploration & description of what is not known
(C) Identifying gaps in knowledge (D) Systematic, controlled, valid & rigorous exploration & description of what is known
Ans: D
26. Which of the following research design would be the most appropriate for a study of the incidence of HIV positive cases in Kerala?
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Longitudinal study (C) Prospective (D) Retrospective
Ans: A
27. What amongst the following is not the reason for doing research?
(A) Promotes basic knowledge (B) Helps in developing new tools
(C) Can’t exploit the outcomes of research for economic growth (D) Helps in health promotion
Ans: C
28. Which of the following is not a method of collecting the data from secondary sources?
(A) Questionnaire (B) Govt. & semi govt. publications (C) Personal records (D) Mass media
Ans: A
29. Which of the following is not the ethical issue relating to the researcher?
(A) Bias
(B) Provision or deprivation of treatment
(C) Restrictions imposed by the sponsoring organization
(D) Using inappropriate research methodology
Ans: C
30. Which of the following, while writing the research outcome, reinforces the validity of conclusions & if an observed association is due to chance or otherwise?
(A) Use of statistical procedure (B) Ability to express thoughts in logical & sequential manner
(C) Understanding of research methodology (D) Knowledge base in the subject area
Ans: A
31. Which of the following styles of writing is to be followed while writing a Qualitative Research?
(A) Analytical (B) Descriptive & narrative (C) Every assertion is supported by empirical evidence (D) Descriptive & analytical
Ans: B
32. The research design of Qualitative research needs following approaches except:
(A) Observation (B) In-depth interviews (C) Focus group discussions (D) Record analysis
Ans: D
33. A method for identifying the missing cases, thereby supplementing the notified cases is known as
(A) Monitoring (B) Surveillance (C) Sentinel surveillance (D) Risk group approach
Ans: C
34. Any factor in the environment that might be suspected of causing a disease is
(A) Variate (B) Circumstance (C) Event (D) None of the above
Ans: B
35. The below given statements about longitudinal studies are true except
(A) It is used to study the natural history of disease and its future outcome.
(B) It is used to identify the risk factor of disease
(C) It is used to find out the incidence rate
(D) It can be organized easily and less time consuming
Ans: D
36. Which of the following is true about case control study?
(A) We use a comparison group to refute an inference (B) Exposure and outcome occurs after the start of study
(C) Study proceeds forwards from cause to effect (D) Unit is the group rather than the individual.
Ans: A
37. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed persons and incidence among non exposed is
(A) Odds ratio (B) Relative risk (C) Attributable risk (D) None of the above
Ans: B
38. Following are the advantages of case control study except
(A) Relatively easy to carry out
(B) Rapid and inexpensive
(C) Does not distinguish between causes and associated factors
(D) Risk factors can be identified.
Ans: C
39. The other name of Cohort study is
(A) Case control study (B) Descriptive study (C) Longitudinal study (D) Prevalence stud
Ans: C
40. In motivational model of health education, sociologists have described three stages in the process of change in behavior except
(A) Awareness (B) Action (C) Motivation (D) Decision making
Ans: D
41. Puppet show used in villages is an example of
(A) Sociodrama (B) Folk media (C) Group discussion (D) Demonstration
Ans: A
42. A two way method of communication in which both the communicator and the audience take part is known as
(A) Didactic method (B) Socratic method (C) Verbal communication (D) Informal communication
Ans: B
43. According to Frankl et al’s behavioral rating scale, modified by Wright in 1975, if a child is reluctant to accept treatment and displays slight negativism, he is
(A) Definitely negative
(B) Negative
(C) Positive
(D) Definitely positive
Ans: B
44. The more persuasive and effective form of communication is
(A) Interpersonal communication (B) Mass media (C) Folk media (D) Visual communication
Ans: A
45:-Summative evaluation is
A:-Assessment to learning
B:-Assessment for learning
C:-Assessment of learning
D:-Assessment by learning
Ans: C
46:-Pantomime is an example for
A:-Role play
B:-Dramatization
C:-Diorama
D:-Brain storming
Ans: B
47:-Which of the following tells us the nature of teacher taught relationship
A:-Syntax
B:-Support system
C:-Principle of reaction
D:-Social system
Ans: D
48:-Pedagogy means
A:-Art of teaching
B:-Science of teaching
C:-Art of learning
D:-Science of learning
Ans: B
49:-Which is the correct sequence of classification of objectives
A:-Remembering-Understanding-applying-Analysing-Evaluating-Creating
B:-Understanding-Remembering-applying-Analysing-Creating-Evaluating
C:-Understanding-Remembering-Analysing-Creating-applying-Evaluating
D:-Remembering-Understanding-Analysing-Creating-Evaluating-applying
Ans: A
50. Discussion Method can be used when:
(A) The topic is very difficult
(B) The topic is easy
(C) The topic is difficult
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
(A) Constant to variables (B) Variables to constant
(C) Variables to variables (D) Constant to constant
Ans: C
2. Action research is a type of :
(A) Applied research (B) Quantity research
(C) Population research (D) Survey research
Ans: A
3. How is the competency of a teacher judged :
(A) Books published (B) Meeting the needs of students
(C) Personality (D) Length of association with a school
Ans: B
4. The format of thesis writing is the same as in :
(A) Writing of seminar presentation
(B) A research dissertation
(C) Preparation of a research paper/article
(D) Presenting a workshop/conference paper
Ans: B
5. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research :
(A) Formulating a research question
(B) Formulating a research hypothesis
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Developing a research design
Ans: A
6. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar :
(A) It needs involvement of skilled persons
(B) It involves questioning, discussions and debates
(C) It is a form of academic instruction
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
7. “Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test”. This statement indicates a :
(A) Research hypothesis (B) Statistical hypothesis
(C) Directional hypothesis (D) Null hypothesis
Ans: D
8. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefers for the study :
(A) Schedule (B) Rating scale
(C) Questionnaire (D) Interview
Ans: C
9. Media is known as :
(A) First Estate (B) Second Estate
(C) Third Estate (D) Fourth Estate
Ans: D
10. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in :
(A) The Appendix (B) The text itself
(C) A separate chapter (D) The concluding chapter
Ans: B
11. Which is the main objective of research :
(A) To get an academic degree
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To review the literature
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Ans: D
12. A detailed description of methodology of research is required in :
(A) Symposium/Workshop (B) Seminar paper/Articles
(C) Thesis/Dissertation (D) Conference and Seminar papers
Ans: B
13. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentations to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called :
(A) Symposium (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Training programme
Ans: B
14. Research design should include following information except:
(A) Who makes up the study population? (B) Will a sample or the total population be studied
(C) How will confidentiality be preserved (D) How will data be protected?
Ans: D
15. When a Research study is undertaken to find out an answer to a question one implies all of the following processes except:
(A) That it is being undertaken within a framework of a set of philosophies
(B) It uses procedures, methods & techniques that have been tested for their validity & reliability
(C) Is unbiased & objective
(D) Has to be subjective & philosophical
Ans: D
16. Which of the following is not an ethical issue to consider in relation to the participant?
(A) Giving incentive before data is collected (B) Taking informed consent (C) Maintaining confidentiality (D) Risk should be minimal
Ans: A
17. All except one is the step in formulating a research problem:
(A) Formulating a research problem (B) Identifying target population
(C) Constructing a hypothesis (D) Reviewing of literature
Ans: B
18. Which of the following is not true about Literature Review?
(A) Provides a theoretical background of the study (B) Bring clarity & focus to the research problem
(C) Will enable one to virtualize one’s findings (D) Broaden one’s knowledge base in research area
Ans: C
19. All is true about quantitative research except:
(A) It is structured & has predetermined methodology (B) It emphasizes on greater sample size
(C) Explores experiences, meanings, perceptions & feelings (D) Reliability & objectivity is the focus
Ans: C
20. Which of the following is not true of a hypothesis?
(A) Should be simple, specific & conceptually clear (B) Should be capable of verification
(C) Should be operationalisable (D) Should be multidimensional
Ans: D
21. Which of the following should be standard structure sequence of the research reporting’?
(A) Abstract, Review of literature, Results, Conclusion (B) Introduction, Material & methods, Results , Discussion
(C) Keywords, Result & Discussion, Data Analysis, Recommendation (D) Introduction, Data Analysis, Result & Discussion, References
Ans: B
22. Which of the following type of research is used to develop, refine &/or develop test measurement tools & procedures?
(A) Exploratory research (B) Explanatory research (C) Descriptive (D) Correlational research
Ans: A
23. Bayesian statistics offers homoeopathy an instrument to use experience to predict:
(A) Future outcomes (B) Mechanism of action of a remedy (C) Present diagnosis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
24. As the diagnosis is built on combination of symptoms & observations, the prognosis that a homoeopathic medicine will work is based on:
(A) Combination of symptoms & personal characteristics (B) Totality of symptoms
(C) Generals, particulars & pathological (D) Combination of characteristics & modalities
Ans: A
25. Research involves all of the following except:
(A) Use of appropriate methods (B) Systematic, controlled, valid & rigorous exploration & description of what is not known
(C) Identifying gaps in knowledge (D) Systematic, controlled, valid & rigorous exploration & description of what is known
Ans: D
26. Which of the following research design would be the most appropriate for a study of the incidence of HIV positive cases in Kerala?
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Longitudinal study (C) Prospective (D) Retrospective
Ans: A
27. What amongst the following is not the reason for doing research?
(A) Promotes basic knowledge (B) Helps in developing new tools
(C) Can’t exploit the outcomes of research for economic growth (D) Helps in health promotion
Ans: C
28. Which of the following is not a method of collecting the data from secondary sources?
(A) Questionnaire (B) Govt. & semi govt. publications (C) Personal records (D) Mass media
Ans: A
29. Which of the following is not the ethical issue relating to the researcher?
(A) Bias
(B) Provision or deprivation of treatment
(C) Restrictions imposed by the sponsoring organization
(D) Using inappropriate research methodology
Ans: C
30. Which of the following, while writing the research outcome, reinforces the validity of conclusions & if an observed association is due to chance or otherwise?
(A) Use of statistical procedure (B) Ability to express thoughts in logical & sequential manner
(C) Understanding of research methodology (D) Knowledge base in the subject area
Ans: A
31. Which of the following styles of writing is to be followed while writing a Qualitative Research?
(A) Analytical (B) Descriptive & narrative (C) Every assertion is supported by empirical evidence (D) Descriptive & analytical
Ans: B
32. The research design of Qualitative research needs following approaches except:
(A) Observation (B) In-depth interviews (C) Focus group discussions (D) Record analysis
Ans: D
33. A method for identifying the missing cases, thereby supplementing the notified cases is known as
(A) Monitoring (B) Surveillance (C) Sentinel surveillance (D) Risk group approach
Ans: C
34. Any factor in the environment that might be suspected of causing a disease is
(A) Variate (B) Circumstance (C) Event (D) None of the above
Ans: B
35. The below given statements about longitudinal studies are true except
(A) It is used to study the natural history of disease and its future outcome.
(B) It is used to identify the risk factor of disease
(C) It is used to find out the incidence rate
(D) It can be organized easily and less time consuming
Ans: D
36. Which of the following is true about case control study?
(A) We use a comparison group to refute an inference (B) Exposure and outcome occurs after the start of study
(C) Study proceeds forwards from cause to effect (D) Unit is the group rather than the individual.
Ans: A
37. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed persons and incidence among non exposed is
(A) Odds ratio (B) Relative risk (C) Attributable risk (D) None of the above
Ans: B
38. Following are the advantages of case control study except
(A) Relatively easy to carry out
(B) Rapid and inexpensive
(C) Does not distinguish between causes and associated factors
(D) Risk factors can be identified.
Ans: C
39. The other name of Cohort study is
(A) Case control study (B) Descriptive study (C) Longitudinal study (D) Prevalence stud
Ans: C
40. In motivational model of health education, sociologists have described three stages in the process of change in behavior except
(A) Awareness (B) Action (C) Motivation (D) Decision making
Ans: D
41. Puppet show used in villages is an example of
(A) Sociodrama (B) Folk media (C) Group discussion (D) Demonstration
Ans: A
42. A two way method of communication in which both the communicator and the audience take part is known as
(A) Didactic method (B) Socratic method (C) Verbal communication (D) Informal communication
Ans: B
43. According to Frankl et al’s behavioral rating scale, modified by Wright in 1975, if a child is reluctant to accept treatment and displays slight negativism, he is
(A) Definitely negative
(B) Negative
(C) Positive
(D) Definitely positive
Ans: B
44. The more persuasive and effective form of communication is
(A) Interpersonal communication (B) Mass media (C) Folk media (D) Visual communication
Ans: A
45:-Summative evaluation is
A:-Assessment to learning
B:-Assessment for learning
C:-Assessment of learning
D:-Assessment by learning
Ans: C
46:-Pantomime is an example for
A:-Role play
B:-Dramatization
C:-Diorama
D:-Brain storming
Ans: B
47:-Which of the following tells us the nature of teacher taught relationship
A:-Syntax
B:-Support system
C:-Principle of reaction
D:-Social system
Ans: D
48:-Pedagogy means
A:-Art of teaching
B:-Science of teaching
C:-Art of learning
D:-Science of learning
Ans: B
49:-Which is the correct sequence of classification of objectives
A:-Remembering-Understanding-applying-Analysing-Evaluating-Creating
B:-Understanding-Remembering-applying-Analysing-Creating-Evaluating
C:-Understanding-Remembering-Analysing-Creating-applying-Evaluating
D:-Remembering-Understanding-Analysing-Creating-Evaluating-applying
Ans: A
50. Discussion Method can be used when:
(A) The topic is very difficult
(B) The topic is easy
(C) The topic is difficult
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
51. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
Answer: D
52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
Answer: D
53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Answer: A
54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
Answer: B
55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: B
56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: B
57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Answer: D
58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: A
59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: B
60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: A
61. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity (B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive (D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: A
62. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children (B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself (D) The community
Answer: C
63. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
Answer: A
64. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (D) Worry
Answer: B
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: A
66. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating (D) Passive and active
Answer: A
67. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
(A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Answer: D
68. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO2 and O3
(B) SO2 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN
(D) SO2 and SPM
Answer: C
69. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: A
70. Volcanic eruptions affect
(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
(B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Answer: D
71. India’s first Defense University is in the State of
(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Answer: A
72. Most of the Universities in India
(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Answer: C
73. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Election Commission (B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission
Answer: D
74. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: B
75. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: D
76. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: B
77. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab (D) Assembler
Answer: B
78. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program (B) high level program
(C) web page (D) web server
Answer: C
79. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System (B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software (D) Dependent Name Server
Answer: A
80. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet. Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Answer: C
81. Which of the following p pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide (D) Aerosols
Answer: C
82. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Answer: B
83. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Tidal energy
Answer: B
84. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector (B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants (D) Hydropower plants
Answer: D
85. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake (B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods (D) Nuclear accident
Answer: D
86. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Answer: A
87. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values (B) the social values
(C) the political values (D) the economic values
Answer: A
88. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07
(C) 08 (D) 09
Answer: B
89. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer: D
90. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?
(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) and (c) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: D
91. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale (B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire (D) Schedule
Answer: C
92. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(A) Thesis format (B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy (D) Data sharing policies
Answer: A
93. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean ?
(A) A state of confusion (B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety (D) A state of pain
Answer: A
94. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting (B) Photography
(C) Sketching (D) Reading
Answer: D
95. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only (B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b) and (c) only
Answer: B
96. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800 (B) 560
(C) 500 (D) 100
Answer: D
97. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
Answer: D
98. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only (B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only (D) (a) only
Answer: B
99. Using the central point of the classroom communication as
the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation (B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol (D) Mind mapping
Answer: D
100. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language (B) Personal language
(C) Para language (D) Delivery language
Answer: C
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
Answer: D
52. Surface Ozone is produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
Answer: D
53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal
(D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Answer: A
54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
Answer: B
55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: B
56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: B
57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Answer: D
58. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: A
59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: B
60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: A
61. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity (B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive (D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: A
62. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children (B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself (D) The community
Answer: C
63. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5
Answer: A
64. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (D) Worry
Answer: B
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: A
66. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating (D) Passive and active
Answer: A
67. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
(A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Answer: D
68. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO2 and O3
(B) SO2 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN
(D) SO2 and SPM
Answer: C
69. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: A
70. Volcanic eruptions affect
(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
(B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Answer: D
71. India’s first Defense University is in the State of
(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Answer: A
72. Most of the Universities in India
(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Answer: C
73. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Election Commission (B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission
Answer: D
74. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: B
75. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: D
76. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: B
77. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab (D) Assembler
Answer: B
78. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program (B) high level program
(C) web page (D) web server
Answer: C
79. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System (B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software (D) Dependent Name Server
Answer: A
80. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet. Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Answer: C
81. Which of the following p pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide (D) Aerosols
Answer: C
82. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
Answer: B
83. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Tidal energy
Answer: B
84. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector (B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants (D) Hydropower plants
Answer: D
85. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(A) Earthquake (B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods (D) Nuclear accident
Answer: D
86. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Answer: A
87. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values (B) the social values
(C) the political values (D) the economic values
Answer: A
88. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07
(C) 08 (D) 09
Answer: B
89. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer: D
90. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?
(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) and (c) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: D
91. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale (B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire (D) Schedule
Answer: C
92. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(A) Thesis format (B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy (D) Data sharing policies
Answer: A
93. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean ?
(A) A state of confusion (B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety (D) A state of pain
Answer: A
94. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting (B) Photography
(C) Sketching (D) Reading
Answer: D
95. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only (B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b) and (c) only
Answer: B
96. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800 (B) 560
(C) 500 (D) 100
Answer: D
97. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
Answer: D
98. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only (B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only (D) (a) only
Answer: B
99. Using the central point of the classroom communication as
the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation (B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol (D) Mind mapping
Answer: D
100. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language (B) Personal language
(C) Para language (D) Delivery language
Answer: C
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