TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 21
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 21 MCQs
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 1 to 6:
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.
1. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?
(A) Wavell’s Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials
(D) Red Fort Prisoners
Ans: C
2. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
Ans: C
3. I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association
(D) Indian National Army
Ans: D
4. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Ans: D
5. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both
Ans: B
6. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
Read the following passage and answer the questions 7-11:
All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business firms pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue. They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at inflated prices and get concessions and privatised firms at low prices. If corruption is endemic, public officials - both bureaucrats and elected officials - may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to promote 'good governance' must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns. Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess influence on policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption cannot be confined to 'functional' areas. It will be a temptation whenever private benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.
7. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private wealth and public power are likely to become:
(A) Functional
(B) Dysfunctional
(C) Normal functioning
(D) Good governance
Ans: B
8. One important symptom of bad governance is:
(A) Corruption
(B) High taxes
(C) Complicated rules and regulations
(D) High prices
Ans: A
9. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many opportunities for:
(A) Public benefits
(B) Public profit
(C) Private profit
(D) Corporate gains
Ans: C
10. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the indicatives for:
(A) Efficient government
(B) Bad governance
(C) Inefficient government
(D) Corruption
Ans: A
11. The spiralling corruption can only be contained by promoting:
(A) Private profit
(B) Anti-corruption campaign
(C) Good governance
(D) Pay-offs and kick backs
Ans: A
Read the following passage and answer the questions 12 to 16:
The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.
Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission.
12. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:
(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Ans: D
13. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No.
(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 161
Ans: A
14. Independence of the Commission means:
(A) have a constitutional status.
(B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers.
(D) have political powers.
Ans: A
15. Fair and free election means:
(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups
Ans: B
16. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
(A) 125
(B) 352
(C) 226
(D) 324
Ans: D
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 17 to 22:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios), then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational level and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitions.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide, Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such as organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as recourse with at least the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principles of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed within common office building, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence land is not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
Based on the passage answer the following questions:
17. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
(A) Access to capital
(B) Common office buildings
(C) Superior knowledge
(D) Common metals
Ans: C
18. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(A) Global financial flow
(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(C) Regionalization of capitalists
(D) Organizational incompatibility
Ans: A
19. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
(A) International commerce
(B) Labour-Intensive industries
(C) Capital resource management
(D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
Ans: D
20. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) Mexico
(D) Malaysia
Ans: B
21. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?
(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill
(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
(C) Because of new competitors
(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
Ans: C
22. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?
(A) Through regional capital flows
(B) Through regional interactions among business players.
(C) By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.
(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
Ans: D
23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data does not explain one of the following:
(A) Is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(B) How is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(C) How does 'X' affect the dependent variable 'Y' at different levels of another independent variable 'K' or 'M'?
(D) How is 'X' by 'K' related to 'M'?
Ans: D
24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:
(A) Saturday
(B) Friday
(C) Sunday
(D) Thursday
Ans: B
25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet both can be false.
Choose the right pair:
(i) All men are mortal
(ii) Some men are mortal
(iii) No man is mortal
(iv) Some men are not mortal
(A) (i) and(ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and(iii)
(D) (ii) and(iv)
Ans: D
27. A Syllogism must have:
(A) Three terms
(B) Four terms
(C) Six terms
(D) Five terms
Ans: B
28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:
(A) Subject and predicate
(B) Known and unknown
(C) Major premise and minor premise
(D) Subject and object
Ans: A
29. "E" denotes:
(A) Universal Negative Proposition
(B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition
(D) Particular Negative Proposition
Ans: A
30. 'A' is the father of 'C, and 'D' is the son of 'B'. 'E' is the brother of 'A'. If 'C is the sister of 'D', how is 'B' related to 'E'?
(A) daughter
(B) husband
(C) sister-in-law
(D) brother-in-law
Ans: C
31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map of India showing urban density of population:
(A) Quartiles
(B) Quintiles
(C) Mean and SD
(D) Break - point
Ans: A
32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of crops being grown in a region?
(A) Choropleth
(B) Chorochromatic
(C) Choroschematic
(D) Isopleth
Ans: A
33. A ratio represents the relation between:
(A) Part and Part
(B) Part and Whole
(C) Whole and Whole
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the fourth number. If the average of the four numbers is 5, the fourth number is:
(A) 4.5
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 4
Ans: C
35. Circle graphs are used to show:
(A) How various sections share in the whole?
(B) How various parts are related to the whole?
(C) How one whole is related to other wholes
(D) How one part is related to other parts?
Ans: B
36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an "ASCII" value which stands for:
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Ans: B
37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and makes decisions:
(A) Arithematic Logic Unit
(B) Alternating Logic Unit
(C) Alternate Local Unit
(D) American Logic Unit
Ans: A
38. "Dpi" stands for:
(A) Dots per inch
(B) Digits per unit
(C) Dots pixel inch
(D) Diagrams per inch
Ans: A
39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and photographs is involved in
(A) Deck Top Publishing
(B) Desk Top Printing
(C) Desk Top Publishing
(D) Deck Top Printing
Ans: C
40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange
(B) Dodgy Data Exchange
(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange
(D) Dynamic Data Exchange
Ans: D
41. In communication, the language is:
(A) The non-verbal code
(B) The verbal code
(C) Intrapersonal
(D) The symbolic code
Ans: B
42. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called:
(A) Persuasive
(B) Stipulative
(C) Theoretical
(D) Lexical
Ans: D
43. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(A) Its premises and conclusions are all true
(B) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(C) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(D) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
Ans: C
44. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
45. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements? Select the code:
Statements:
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes:
(A) (a), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
46. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(A) 80
(B) 73
(C) 75
(D) 78
Ans: C
47. Inductive reasoning is grounded on:
(A) Harmony of nature
(B) Integrity of nature
(C) Unity of nature
(D) Uniformity of nature
Ans: D
48. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the type:
(A) Physiological
(B) Inductive
(C) Deductive
(D) Demonstrative
Ans: B
49. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
50. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
(A) 30
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 15
Ans: D
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.
1. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?
(A) Wavell’s Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials
(D) Red Fort Prisoners
Ans: C
2. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
Ans: C
3. I.N.A. stands for
(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association
(D) Indian National Army
Ans: D
4. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Ans: D
5. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both
Ans: B
6. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
Read the following passage and answer the questions 7-11:
All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business firms pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue. They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at inflated prices and get concessions and privatised firms at low prices. If corruption is endemic, public officials - both bureaucrats and elected officials - may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to promote 'good governance' must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns. Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess influence on policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption cannot be confined to 'functional' areas. It will be a temptation whenever private benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.
7. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private wealth and public power are likely to become:
(A) Functional
(B) Dysfunctional
(C) Normal functioning
(D) Good governance
Ans: B
8. One important symptom of bad governance is:
(A) Corruption
(B) High taxes
(C) Complicated rules and regulations
(D) High prices
Ans: A
9. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many opportunities for:
(A) Public benefits
(B) Public profit
(C) Private profit
(D) Corporate gains
Ans: C
10. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the indicatives for:
(A) Efficient government
(B) Bad governance
(C) Inefficient government
(D) Corruption
Ans: A
11. The spiralling corruption can only be contained by promoting:
(A) Private profit
(B) Anti-corruption campaign
(C) Good governance
(D) Pay-offs and kick backs
Ans: A
Read the following passage and answer the questions 12 to 16:
The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.
Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission.
12. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:
(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Ans: D
13. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No.
(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 161
Ans: A
14. Independence of the Commission means:
(A) have a constitutional status.
(B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers.
(D) have political powers.
Ans: A
15. Fair and free election means:
(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups
Ans: B
16. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
(A) 125
(B) 352
(C) 226
(D) 324
Ans: D
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 17 to 22:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios), then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational level and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitions.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide, Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such as organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as recourse with at least the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principles of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed within common office building, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence land is not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
Based on the passage answer the following questions:
17. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
(A) Access to capital
(B) Common office buildings
(C) Superior knowledge
(D) Common metals
Ans: C
18. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(A) Global financial flow
(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(C) Regionalization of capitalists
(D) Organizational incompatibility
Ans: A
19. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
(A) International commerce
(B) Labour-Intensive industries
(C) Capital resource management
(D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
Ans: D
20. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) Mexico
(D) Malaysia
Ans: B
21. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?
(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill
(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
(C) Because of new competitors
(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
Ans: C
22. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?
(A) Through regional capital flows
(B) Through regional interactions among business players.
(C) By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.
(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
Ans: D
23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data does not explain one of the following:
(A) Is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(B) How is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(C) How does 'X' affect the dependent variable 'Y' at different levels of another independent variable 'K' or 'M'?
(D) How is 'X' by 'K' related to 'M'?
Ans: D
24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:
(A) Saturday
(B) Friday
(C) Sunday
(D) Thursday
Ans: B
25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet both can be false.
Choose the right pair:
(i) All men are mortal
(ii) Some men are mortal
(iii) No man is mortal
(iv) Some men are not mortal
(A) (i) and(ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and(iii)
(D) (ii) and(iv)
Ans: D
27. A Syllogism must have:
(A) Three terms
(B) Four terms
(C) Six terms
(D) Five terms
Ans: B
28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:
(A) Subject and predicate
(B) Known and unknown
(C) Major premise and minor premise
(D) Subject and object
Ans: A
29. "E" denotes:
(A) Universal Negative Proposition
(B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition
(D) Particular Negative Proposition
Ans: A
30. 'A' is the father of 'C, and 'D' is the son of 'B'. 'E' is the brother of 'A'. If 'C is the sister of 'D', how is 'B' related to 'E'?
(A) daughter
(B) husband
(C) sister-in-law
(D) brother-in-law
Ans: C
31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map of India showing urban density of population:
(A) Quartiles
(B) Quintiles
(C) Mean and SD
(D) Break - point
Ans: A
32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of crops being grown in a region?
(A) Choropleth
(B) Chorochromatic
(C) Choroschematic
(D) Isopleth
Ans: A
33. A ratio represents the relation between:
(A) Part and Part
(B) Part and Whole
(C) Whole and Whole
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the fourth number. If the average of the four numbers is 5, the fourth number is:
(A) 4.5
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 4
Ans: C
35. Circle graphs are used to show:
(A) How various sections share in the whole?
(B) How various parts are related to the whole?
(C) How one whole is related to other wholes
(D) How one part is related to other parts?
Ans: B
36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an "ASCII" value which stands for:
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Ans: B
37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and makes decisions:
(A) Arithematic Logic Unit
(B) Alternating Logic Unit
(C) Alternate Local Unit
(D) American Logic Unit
Ans: A
38. "Dpi" stands for:
(A) Dots per inch
(B) Digits per unit
(C) Dots pixel inch
(D) Diagrams per inch
Ans: A
39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and photographs is involved in
(A) Deck Top Publishing
(B) Desk Top Printing
(C) Desk Top Publishing
(D) Deck Top Printing
Ans: C
40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange
(B) Dodgy Data Exchange
(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange
(D) Dynamic Data Exchange
Ans: D
41. In communication, the language is:
(A) The non-verbal code
(B) The verbal code
(C) Intrapersonal
(D) The symbolic code
Ans: B
42. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called:
(A) Persuasive
(B) Stipulative
(C) Theoretical
(D) Lexical
Ans: D
43. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(A) Its premises and conclusions are all true
(B) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(C) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(D) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
Ans: C
44. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: A
45. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements? Select the code:
Statements:
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes:
(A) (a), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
46. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(A) 80
(B) 73
(C) 75
(D) 78
Ans: C
47. Inductive reasoning is grounded on:
(A) Harmony of nature
(B) Integrity of nature
(C) Unity of nature
(D) Uniformity of nature
Ans: D
48. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the type:
(A) Physiological
(B) Inductive
(C) Deductive
(D) Demonstrative
Ans: B
49. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
50. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
(A) 30
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 15
Ans: D
51. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans: D
52. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: A
53. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
54. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans: D
55. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Ans: C
56. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Ans: D
57. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.
Ans: C
58. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
Ans: D
59. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Ans: D
60. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
(A) Blackboard
(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Globe
Ans: C
61. Which of the following represents one billion characters?
(A) Terabyte
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Megabyte
(D) Gigabyte
Ans: D
62. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:
(A) Decryption
(B) Protection
(C) Detection
(D) Encryption
Ans: D
63. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(A) 7th July
(B) 21st April
(C) 24th April
(D) 21st June
Ans: B
64. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) Dhaka
(D) New Delhi
Ans: D
65. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Ans: B
66. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
67. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Ans: B
68. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Ans: B
69. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
70. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Ans: B
71. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Ans: C
72. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Ans: C
73. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Ans: D
74. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Ans: D
75. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Ans: D
76. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command
(B) Making aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture
(D) Being authoritarian
Ans: C
77. Every communicator has to experience
(A) Manipulated emotion
(B) Anticipatory excitement
(C) The issue of homophiles
(D) Status dislocation
Ans: B
78. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication
(B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication
(D) Cross communication
Ans: A
79. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity
(B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause
(D) Fixed posture
Ans: B
80. What are the barriers to effective communication?
(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(D) Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.
Ans: A
81. A person walks 10 m in front and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he from his starting point?
(A) 20 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 5 m
Ans: D
82. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(A) Grand daughter
(B) Daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law
(D) Sister
Ans: A
83. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:
(A) 80
(B) 76
(C) 74
(D) 72
Ans: D
84. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction, lie turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:
(A) 20 km
(B) 14 km
(C) 12 km
(D) 10 km
Ans: D
85. The next term in the series:
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is:
(A) J561
(B) 162Q
(C) Q62J
(D) J58Q
Ans: D
86. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 24
Ans: B
87. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:
(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Uncle
(D) Father
Ans: C
88. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Ans: D
89. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Ans: A
90. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
Ans: C
91. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?
(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.
Ans: B
92. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:
(1) Selective expectation of performance
(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) Selective attention
(4) Selective morality
Ans: C
93. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
94. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
95. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.
Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
96. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes:
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
Ans: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 97 to 100 :
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.
97. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Ans: B
98. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Ans: A
99. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Ans: B
100. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Ans: B
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans: D
52. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: A
53. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
54. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans: D
55. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Ans: C
56. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Ans: D
57. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.
Ans: C
58. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
Ans: D
59. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Ans: D
60. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
(A) Blackboard
(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Globe
Ans: C
61. Which of the following represents one billion characters?
(A) Terabyte
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Megabyte
(D) Gigabyte
Ans: D
62. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:
(A) Decryption
(B) Protection
(C) Detection
(D) Encryption
Ans: D
63. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(A) 7th July
(B) 21st April
(C) 24th April
(D) 21st June
Ans: B
64. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) Dhaka
(D) New Delhi
Ans: D
65. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Ans: B
66. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
67. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Ans: B
68. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Ans: B
69. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
70. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Ans: B
71. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Ans: C
72. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Ans: C
73. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Ans: D
74. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Ans: D
75. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Ans: D
76. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command
(B) Making aggressive statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture
(D) Being authoritarian
Ans: C
77. Every communicator has to experience
(A) Manipulated emotion
(B) Anticipatory excitement
(C) The issue of homophiles
(D) Status dislocation
Ans: B
78. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication
(B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication
(D) Cross communication
Ans: A
79. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity
(B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause
(D) Fixed posture
Ans: B
80. What are the barriers to effective communication?
(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(D) Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.
Ans: A
81. A person walks 10 m in front and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he from his starting point?
(A) 20 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 5 m
Ans: D
82. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(A) Grand daughter
(B) Daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law
(D) Sister
Ans: A
83. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:
(A) 80
(B) 76
(C) 74
(D) 72
Ans: D
84. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction, lie turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:
(A) 20 km
(B) 14 km
(C) 12 km
(D) 10 km
Ans: D
85. The next term in the series:
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is:
(A) J561
(B) 162Q
(C) Q62J
(D) J58Q
Ans: D
86. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 24
Ans: B
87. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:
(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Uncle
(D) Father
Ans: C
88. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Ans: D
89. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Ans: A
90. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
Ans: C
91. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?
(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.
Ans: B
92. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:
(1) Selective expectation of performance
(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) Selective attention
(4) Selective morality
Ans: C
93. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
94. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
95. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.
Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
96. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes:
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
Ans: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 97 to 100 :
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.
97. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Ans: B
98. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Ans: A
99. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Ans: B
100. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Ans: B
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