TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 20
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE- PAGE 20 MCQs
1. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?
(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Ans: C
2. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?
P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) P Only
(2) Q Only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Ans: B
3. What is the purpose underlying the use of teaching aids?
(1) To make the lessons interesting
(2) To capture the students’ attention
(3) To enhance access to technological resources
(4) To optimise learning outcomes
Ans: D
4. Below are given statements pertaining to evaluation systems. Identify those which correctly explain them.
(i) Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) focuses on a delimited domain of learning tasks.
(ii) Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) requires a clearly defined group.
(iii) Formative tests are given at the end of a course.
(iv) Both Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) use the same type of test items.
(v) Summative tests are used regularly during teaching transactions.
(vi) Mastery tests are examples of Norm-Referenced Testing.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: B
5. In the list given below, identify those key teaching behaviours which have been observed to be contributive to effectiveness.
(i) Lesson clarity
(ii) Probing
(iii) Teacher-task orientation
(iv) Student success rate
(v) Instructional variety
(vi) Using student ideas
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: C
6. Identify the correct order of the following components which are interrelated in research.
(i) Observation
(ii) Hypothesis making
(iii) Developing concepts
(iv) Deducing the consequences of theories
(v) Methods employed to obtain them
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii) and (i)
Ans: B
7. In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the meaning and characteristics of research.
(i) Research is a method of improving our common sense.
(ii) Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.
(iii) Research is creativity and charisma.
(iv) Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.
(v) Method of consulting and using experience is called research.
(vi) The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (iii) and (v)
Ans: A
8. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?
(1) Doctoral level thesis
(2) Conference of researchers
(3) Workshops and seminars
(4) Symposia
Ans: A
9. A researcher uses parametric test in lieu of non-parametric test for analysis and interpretation of results. This may be described as a case of
(1) Unethical research practice
(2) Malpractice in reporting of results
(3) Technical lapse in handling data
(4) Manipulation of research results
Ans: C
10. Which of the following provides more latitude to the researcher for creative expression ?
(1) Thesis writing
(2) Writing of a research article
(3) Presentation of a conference paper
(4) Preparing a research synopsis
Ans: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions no. 11 to 15.
Some 2000 km down south of the Amazon, and about the same time when the tidal waves were at their highest as a consequence of the big clash of sea and fresh water at the Amazon delta most vigorously in March and April (2018), more than 40,000 people were talking about the power of water. Brasilia hosted the eighth edition of the World Water Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of states, civil societies and private sector gathered to discuss the present and future of mankind’s most valuable resource. This year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the government authorities expectedly put forth a political declaration, aimed at raising awareness about threats and opportunities associated with water resources. Deliberations here would play a decisive role in the periodic assessment of the sustainable development goals of Agenda 2030.
Brazil has established a solid institutional and legal framework for water management, based on the principle of multi-stakeholder participation. Brazil has also been conducting one of the boldest river inter-linking projects in which 500 km of canals will transfer abundant waters from the San Francisco basin to small rivers and weirs in one of Brazil’s most arid areas, benefitting more than 12 million people in almost 400 municipalities.
India, too, has a large variety of water resources. An institutional framework consisting of regional river boards and river cleansing missions has been set up, while successive Central Governments have made efforts to address the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation of ground water depletion. As in the case of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in India.
Adequate treatment of industrial waste-water, the fight against contamination of riverbeds and assistance to drought affected areas are high priority topics for both New Delhi and Brasilia. Due to these commonalities, there is ample room for bilateral co-operation. Water is a local, regional and global common and as such, collaboration is key to address most of its associated threats.
Today, mankind is faced with two facts: water is too powerful a force to be fought over, and too valuable a resource to be lost. To harmonise these two conflicting aspects, sharing water is perhaps the only meaningful motto for the ages to come.
11. As per the text of the passage, the eighth edition of the World Water Forum was concerned with
(1) Present and future of mankind
(2) The issue of high tidal waves
(3) The power of water
(4) The role of civil society in solving water-related problems
Ans: C
12. Deliberations on the theme ‘Sharing Water’ should facilitate
(1) Regular evaluation of sustainable development goals
(2) The role of private sector in preserving water resources
(3) The establishment of institutional framework
(4) Sensitisation of government authorities
Ans: A
13. The institutional framework of Brazil for water management
(1) Promotes bilateral collaboration
(2) Provides for multi-stakeholder participation
(3) Consists of regional river boards
(4) Addresses legal dimensions of water sharing
Ans: B
14. What would be of high priority to both New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river water ?
(1) Proposing water as a global common
(2) Sharing water
(3) Development of large water resources
(4) Fight against contamination of riverbeds
Ans: D
15. The main focus of the passage is on
(1) Resolution of water conflicts
(2) Encouraging bilateral co-operation
(3) Management of water as a valuable resource
(4) River inter-linking
Ans: C
16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Meanings of messages used in the classroom are arbitrary in nature.
Reason (R): Meanings are learnt as a result of one’s prior experiences.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Classroom communication has a cultural dimension.
Reason (R): Beliefs, habits, customs and languages are the cultural characteristics of communication.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
18. In a classroom, teachers and students use self-interest issues to judge
(1) Their acceptability
(2) Uncritical dispositions
(3) Negative re-inforcement of ideas
(4) External non-verbal cues
Ans: A
19. Variables that affect the information processing in a classroom are
(i) Perception levels
(ii) Learned habits
(iii) Attitudes, beliefs and values
(iv) Selectivity factor
(v) Market expectation
(vi) Institutional intervention
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Selective exposure in the classroom is dependent upon students’
perceptions and knowledge about the source of information.
Reason (R): The effectiveness of the communication source determines the selective exposure of students to information.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
21. The next term in the series 5, 11, 21, 35, 53, ?, ... is
(1) 75
(2) 90
(3) 115
(4) 125
Ans: A
22. The next term in the series XY, ABC, FGHI, ? , ... is
(1) MNPQO
(2) MNOPQ
(3) PQOMN
(4) NMPOQ
Ans: B
23. If the code of ALLAHABAD is DPQGOIKKO, then the code of BENGULURU will be
(1) ESBTBDIMF
(2) MBDBFEIST
(3) EISMBTDBF
(4) ESBDFBTMI
Ans: C
24. A man paid Rs. 160 while travelling 10 km in a taxi which has some initial fixed charges. Another man paid Rs. 276 for travelling 16 km and the taxi driver charged double of the initial fixed charges from him. The charges of the taxi per km is
(1) Rs. 10
(2) Rs. 13
(3) Rs. 11
(4) Rs. 17
Ans: C
25. Gopal walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Again he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left and walks 15 m. The shortest distance between his original position and final one is
(1) 65 m
(2) 55 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 45 m
Ans: D
26. Choose the proper alternative given in the code to replace the question mark.
Cow – Milk
Bee – Honey
Teacher – ?
Code:
(1) Marks
(2) Discipline
(3) Wisdom
(4) Lesson
Ans: C
27. Among the following, two statements are related in such a way that if one becomes undetermined, the other will also be undetermined. Select the code that refers to these two statements.
Statements:
(i) Every fruit is nutritious.
(ii) Fruits are hardly nutritious.
(iii) Fruits are mostly nutritious.
(iv) Some food items are nutritious.
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)
Ans: A
28. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them.
Select the code that embodies validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All saints are noble.
(b) Some religious men are saints.
Conclusions:
(i) Some religious men are noble.
(ii) All religious men are noble.
(iii) Some saints are religious men.
(iv) All noble persons are saints.
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)
Ans: C
29. Which one is not correct in the context of deductive and inductive reasoning?
(1) A deductive argument makes the claim that its conclusion is supported by its premises conclusively.
(2) A valid deductive argument may have all false premises and true conclusion.
(3) An inductive argument claims the probability of its conclusion.
(4) An inductive argument cannot provide us any new information about matters of fact.
Ans: D
30. When the purpose of the definition is to explain some established use of a term, the definition is called
(1) Stipulative
(2) Lexical
(3) Persuasive
(4) Theoretical
Ans: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 36 :
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing disillusionment with the 'humane pretensions' of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore's later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England's dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies' victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was son submerged in the geat agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along with Pakistan's invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past. Based on the passage answer the following questions from 31 to 36:
31. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?
(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.
(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.
(3) Expressed loyalty to England.
(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.
Ans: B
32. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
(1) Indifference to Russia's plight.
(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.
(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.
(4) They expressed sympathy for England's dogged courage.
Ans: D
33. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
(1) Military occupation of one's own soil.
(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.
(3) Great agony of partition.
(4) Victory of Allies.
Ans: C
34. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?
(1) Suspicion of other countries
(2) Continuance of rivalry
(3) Menace of war
(4) National reconstruction
Ans: D
35. The passage has the message that
(1) Disasters are inevitable.
(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.
(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.
(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.
Ans: B
36. What was the impact of the last Great War on Indian literature?
(1) It had no impact.
(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.
(3) It shook the foundations of literature.
(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.
Ans: B
37. A confidential file needs to be deleted from a workstation. Which is the most effective way to ensure this?
(1) Rename the file
(2) Compress the file and back-up to tape
(3) Copy and paste the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
(4) Drag the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
Ans: D
38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regard to websites?
P: A blog is a website that consists of posts in reverse chronological order.
Q: A wiki is a website that is designed to allow people to collaborate easily.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Ans: C
39. In the context of e-mail, what is ‘spam’?
(1) The act of overloading an e-mail server by using denial-of-service attacks
(2) E-mail messages that are infected with viruses
(3) A large quantity of messages that do not reach the recipient
(4) Unsolicited advertising sent to a large number of recipients
Ans: D
40. A virus type that is capable of shifting from one computer to another without user interaction is known as a
(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
(3) Logic bomb
(4) Boot sector
Ans: A
41. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are formally known as
(1) Transforming Our World: 2030 Agenda
(2) Sustainable Living For All: 2022 Agenda
(3) Life Of Dignity For All: 2022 Agenda
(4) One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda
Ans: A
42. An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is considered
(1) Moderate
(2) Strong
(3) Major
(4) Great
Ans: B
43. Frequent episodes of dense smog in winter season in the National Capital Region (NCR) can be attributed to
(i) Stubble burning
(ii) Biomass burning in rural households
(iii) Transport
(iv) Transboundary movement of pollutants
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
44. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) comprises of
(i) Household waste
(ii) Sanitation residue
(iii) Waste from streets
(iv) Construction and demolition debris
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
45. As per the Indian Government’s target for exploiting renewable energy sources, the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total power generation from renewable energy sources by the year 2022 will be about
(1) ~ 91·43%
(2) ~ 57·14%
(3) ~ 50%
(4) ~ 60%
Ans: A
46. The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes
(i) Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges
(ii) Recognising and monitoring technical institutions
(iii) Funding research centres in Universities
(iv) Managing various scholarship programmes
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
47. Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail and Transportation University?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Bihar
(4) Gujarat
Ans: D
48. The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i) Transparent
(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal
(iv) Accessible
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
49. The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if
(1) he/she himself/herself is a candidate
(2) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
(3) he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her
(4) he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly
Ans: D
50. In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i) University of Delhi
(ii) University of Hyderabad
(iii) Banaras Hindu University
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Ans: C
2. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?
P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) P Only
(2) Q Only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Ans: B
3. What is the purpose underlying the use of teaching aids?
(1) To make the lessons interesting
(2) To capture the students’ attention
(3) To enhance access to technological resources
(4) To optimise learning outcomes
Ans: D
4. Below are given statements pertaining to evaluation systems. Identify those which correctly explain them.
(i) Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) focuses on a delimited domain of learning tasks.
(ii) Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) requires a clearly defined group.
(iii) Formative tests are given at the end of a course.
(iv) Both Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) use the same type of test items.
(v) Summative tests are used regularly during teaching transactions.
(vi) Mastery tests are examples of Norm-Referenced Testing.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: B
5. In the list given below, identify those key teaching behaviours which have been observed to be contributive to effectiveness.
(i) Lesson clarity
(ii) Probing
(iii) Teacher-task orientation
(iv) Student success rate
(v) Instructional variety
(vi) Using student ideas
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: C
6. Identify the correct order of the following components which are interrelated in research.
(i) Observation
(ii) Hypothesis making
(iii) Developing concepts
(iv) Deducing the consequences of theories
(v) Methods employed to obtain them
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii) and (i)
Ans: B
7. In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the meaning and characteristics of research.
(i) Research is a method of improving our common sense.
(ii) Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.
(iii) Research is creativity and charisma.
(iv) Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.
(v) Method of consulting and using experience is called research.
(vi) The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (iii) and (v)
Ans: A
8. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?
(1) Doctoral level thesis
(2) Conference of researchers
(3) Workshops and seminars
(4) Symposia
Ans: A
9. A researcher uses parametric test in lieu of non-parametric test for analysis and interpretation of results. This may be described as a case of
(1) Unethical research practice
(2) Malpractice in reporting of results
(3) Technical lapse in handling data
(4) Manipulation of research results
Ans: C
10. Which of the following provides more latitude to the researcher for creative expression ?
(1) Thesis writing
(2) Writing of a research article
(3) Presentation of a conference paper
(4) Preparing a research synopsis
Ans: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions no. 11 to 15.
Some 2000 km down south of the Amazon, and about the same time when the tidal waves were at their highest as a consequence of the big clash of sea and fresh water at the Amazon delta most vigorously in March and April (2018), more than 40,000 people were talking about the power of water. Brasilia hosted the eighth edition of the World Water Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of states, civil societies and private sector gathered to discuss the present and future of mankind’s most valuable resource. This year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the government authorities expectedly put forth a political declaration, aimed at raising awareness about threats and opportunities associated with water resources. Deliberations here would play a decisive role in the periodic assessment of the sustainable development goals of Agenda 2030.
Brazil has established a solid institutional and legal framework for water management, based on the principle of multi-stakeholder participation. Brazil has also been conducting one of the boldest river inter-linking projects in which 500 km of canals will transfer abundant waters from the San Francisco basin to small rivers and weirs in one of Brazil’s most arid areas, benefitting more than 12 million people in almost 400 municipalities.
India, too, has a large variety of water resources. An institutional framework consisting of regional river boards and river cleansing missions has been set up, while successive Central Governments have made efforts to address the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation of ground water depletion. As in the case of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in India.
Adequate treatment of industrial waste-water, the fight against contamination of riverbeds and assistance to drought affected areas are high priority topics for both New Delhi and Brasilia. Due to these commonalities, there is ample room for bilateral co-operation. Water is a local, regional and global common and as such, collaboration is key to address most of its associated threats.
Today, mankind is faced with two facts: water is too powerful a force to be fought over, and too valuable a resource to be lost. To harmonise these two conflicting aspects, sharing water is perhaps the only meaningful motto for the ages to come.
11. As per the text of the passage, the eighth edition of the World Water Forum was concerned with
(1) Present and future of mankind
(2) The issue of high tidal waves
(3) The power of water
(4) The role of civil society in solving water-related problems
Ans: C
12. Deliberations on the theme ‘Sharing Water’ should facilitate
(1) Regular evaluation of sustainable development goals
(2) The role of private sector in preserving water resources
(3) The establishment of institutional framework
(4) Sensitisation of government authorities
Ans: A
13. The institutional framework of Brazil for water management
(1) Promotes bilateral collaboration
(2) Provides for multi-stakeholder participation
(3) Consists of regional river boards
(4) Addresses legal dimensions of water sharing
Ans: B
14. What would be of high priority to both New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river water ?
(1) Proposing water as a global common
(2) Sharing water
(3) Development of large water resources
(4) Fight against contamination of riverbeds
Ans: D
15. The main focus of the passage is on
(1) Resolution of water conflicts
(2) Encouraging bilateral co-operation
(3) Management of water as a valuable resource
(4) River inter-linking
Ans: C
16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Meanings of messages used in the classroom are arbitrary in nature.
Reason (R): Meanings are learnt as a result of one’s prior experiences.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Classroom communication has a cultural dimension.
Reason (R): Beliefs, habits, customs and languages are the cultural characteristics of communication.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
18. In a classroom, teachers and students use self-interest issues to judge
(1) Their acceptability
(2) Uncritical dispositions
(3) Negative re-inforcement of ideas
(4) External non-verbal cues
Ans: A
19. Variables that affect the information processing in a classroom are
(i) Perception levels
(ii) Learned habits
(iii) Attitudes, beliefs and values
(iv) Selectivity factor
(v) Market expectation
(vi) Institutional intervention
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Selective exposure in the classroom is dependent upon students’
perceptions and knowledge about the source of information.
Reason (R): The effectiveness of the communication source determines the selective exposure of students to information.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
21. The next term in the series 5, 11, 21, 35, 53, ?, ... is
(1) 75
(2) 90
(3) 115
(4) 125
Ans: A
22. The next term in the series XY, ABC, FGHI, ? , ... is
(1) MNPQO
(2) MNOPQ
(3) PQOMN
(4) NMPOQ
Ans: B
23. If the code of ALLAHABAD is DPQGOIKKO, then the code of BENGULURU will be
(1) ESBTBDIMF
(2) MBDBFEIST
(3) EISMBTDBF
(4) ESBDFBTMI
Ans: C
24. A man paid Rs. 160 while travelling 10 km in a taxi which has some initial fixed charges. Another man paid Rs. 276 for travelling 16 km and the taxi driver charged double of the initial fixed charges from him. The charges of the taxi per km is
(1) Rs. 10
(2) Rs. 13
(3) Rs. 11
(4) Rs. 17
Ans: C
25. Gopal walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Again he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left and walks 15 m. The shortest distance between his original position and final one is
(1) 65 m
(2) 55 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 45 m
Ans: D
26. Choose the proper alternative given in the code to replace the question mark.
Cow – Milk
Bee – Honey
Teacher – ?
Code:
(1) Marks
(2) Discipline
(3) Wisdom
(4) Lesson
Ans: C
27. Among the following, two statements are related in such a way that if one becomes undetermined, the other will also be undetermined. Select the code that refers to these two statements.
Statements:
(i) Every fruit is nutritious.
(ii) Fruits are hardly nutritious.
(iii) Fruits are mostly nutritious.
(iv) Some food items are nutritious.
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)
Ans: A
28. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them.
Select the code that embodies validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All saints are noble.
(b) Some religious men are saints.
Conclusions:
(i) Some religious men are noble.
(ii) All religious men are noble.
(iii) Some saints are religious men.
(iv) All noble persons are saints.
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)
Ans: C
29. Which one is not correct in the context of deductive and inductive reasoning?
(1) A deductive argument makes the claim that its conclusion is supported by its premises conclusively.
(2) A valid deductive argument may have all false premises and true conclusion.
(3) An inductive argument claims the probability of its conclusion.
(4) An inductive argument cannot provide us any new information about matters of fact.
Ans: D
30. When the purpose of the definition is to explain some established use of a term, the definition is called
(1) Stipulative
(2) Lexical
(3) Persuasive
(4) Theoretical
Ans: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 36 :
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing disillusionment with the 'humane pretensions' of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore's later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England's dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies' victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was son submerged in the geat agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along with Pakistan's invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past. Based on the passage answer the following questions from 31 to 36:
31. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?
(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.
(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.
(3) Expressed loyalty to England.
(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.
Ans: B
32. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
(1) Indifference to Russia's plight.
(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.
(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.
(4) They expressed sympathy for England's dogged courage.
Ans: D
33. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
(1) Military occupation of one's own soil.
(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.
(3) Great agony of partition.
(4) Victory of Allies.
Ans: C
34. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?
(1) Suspicion of other countries
(2) Continuance of rivalry
(3) Menace of war
(4) National reconstruction
Ans: D
35. The passage has the message that
(1) Disasters are inevitable.
(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.
(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.
(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.
Ans: B
36. What was the impact of the last Great War on Indian literature?
(1) It had no impact.
(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.
(3) It shook the foundations of literature.
(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.
Ans: B
37. A confidential file needs to be deleted from a workstation. Which is the most effective way to ensure this?
(1) Rename the file
(2) Compress the file and back-up to tape
(3) Copy and paste the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
(4) Drag the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
Ans: D
38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regard to websites?
P: A blog is a website that consists of posts in reverse chronological order.
Q: A wiki is a website that is designed to allow people to collaborate easily.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Ans: C
39. In the context of e-mail, what is ‘spam’?
(1) The act of overloading an e-mail server by using denial-of-service attacks
(2) E-mail messages that are infected with viruses
(3) A large quantity of messages that do not reach the recipient
(4) Unsolicited advertising sent to a large number of recipients
Ans: D
40. A virus type that is capable of shifting from one computer to another without user interaction is known as a
(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
(3) Logic bomb
(4) Boot sector
Ans: A
41. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are formally known as
(1) Transforming Our World: 2030 Agenda
(2) Sustainable Living For All: 2022 Agenda
(3) Life Of Dignity For All: 2022 Agenda
(4) One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda
Ans: A
42. An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is considered
(1) Moderate
(2) Strong
(3) Major
(4) Great
Ans: B
43. Frequent episodes of dense smog in winter season in the National Capital Region (NCR) can be attributed to
(i) Stubble burning
(ii) Biomass burning in rural households
(iii) Transport
(iv) Transboundary movement of pollutants
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
44. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) comprises of
(i) Household waste
(ii) Sanitation residue
(iii) Waste from streets
(iv) Construction and demolition debris
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
45. As per the Indian Government’s target for exploiting renewable energy sources, the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total power generation from renewable energy sources by the year 2022 will be about
(1) ~ 91·43%
(2) ~ 57·14%
(3) ~ 50%
(4) ~ 60%
Ans: A
46. The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes
(i) Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges
(ii) Recognising and monitoring technical institutions
(iii) Funding research centres in Universities
(iv) Managing various scholarship programmes
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
47. Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail and Transportation University?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Bihar
(4) Gujarat
Ans: D
48. The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i) Transparent
(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal
(iv) Accessible
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
49. The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if
(1) he/she himself/herself is a candidate
(2) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
(3) he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her
(4) he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly
Ans: D
50. In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i) University of Delhi
(ii) University of Hyderabad
(iii) Banaras Hindu University
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
51. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a________
(A) Worm
(B) Virus
(C) Threat
(D) Spam
Ans: D
52. The statement “the study, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer hardware” refers to
(A) Information Technology (IT)
(B) Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)
(C) Information and data Technology (IDT)
(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Ans: A
53. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
(A) 110011
(B) 110010
(C) 110001
(D) 110100
Ans: A
54. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________
(A) Burning
(B) Zipping
(C) Digitizing
(D) Ripping
Ans: A
55. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:
(A) Family
(B) Society
(C) Teacher
(D) State
Ans: C
56. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: D
57. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 58 to 62.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write “Good luck, best, Joel”.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter has never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”
Answer the following questions 58 to 62.
58. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?
(A) A state of confusion
(B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety
(D) A state of pain
Ans: A
59. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting
(B) Photography
(C) Sketching
(D) Reading
Ans: D
60. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b) and (c) only
Ans: B
61. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800
(B) 560
(C) 500
(D) 100
Ans: D
62. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
Ans: D
63. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only
(D) (a) only
Ans: B
64. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol
(D) Mind mapping
Ans: D
65. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language
(B) Personal language
(C) Para language
(D) Delivery language
Ans: C
66. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(A) Reception
(B) Transmission
(C) Non-regulation
(D) Context
Ans: D
67. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:
(A) Verbal
(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal
(D) Irrational
Ans: B
68. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:
(A) Spurious
(B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian
(D) Confrontational
Ans: C
69. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:
(A) The use of hyperbole
(B) The change of voice level
(C) The use of abstract concepts
(D) Eye contact
Ans: D
70. The next term in the series
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? is:
(A) 50
(B) 57
(C) 62
(D) 72
Ans: A
71. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term is
(A) JKLMN
(B) JMKNL
(C) NMLKJ
(D) NMKLJ
Ans: C
72. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans: D
73. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be
(A) YKCPGAYLQ
(B) BNFSJDBMR
(C) QLYAGPCKY
(D) YQKLCYPAG
Ans: A
74. In the series
3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________
The next term will be
(A) 63
(B) 73
(C) 83
(D) 93
Ans: C
75. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs. 177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs. 173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 30
(D) 33
Ans: D
76. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:
(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Ans: B
77. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusion: (a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a) only
(C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
Ans: C
78. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) Some thieves are poor.
(B) Some thieves are not poor.
(C) No thief is poor.
(D) No poor person is a thief.
Ans: B
79. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(A) Astronomical
(B) Anthropological
(C) Deductive
(D) Analogical
Ans: D
80. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(B) It can provide clear method of notation.
(C) It can be either valid or invalid.
(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Ans: C
81. Consider the argument given below:
‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive
(B) Analogical
(C) Psychological
(D) Biological
Ans: B
82. Among the following propositions two arc related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a) and (c)
(D) (a) and (d)
Ans: D
83. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference
(B) An argument
(C) An explanation
(D) A valid argument
Ans: B
84. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:
(A): No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
85. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical
(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative
(D) Persuasive
Ans: C
86. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) All men are honest
(B) Some men are honest
(C) Some men are not honest
(D) No honest person is man
Ans: B
87. NMEICT stands for:
(A) National Mission on Education through ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
Ans: A
88. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: D
89. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:
(A) 4 bits
(B) 8 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 10 bits
Ans: B
90. Which of the following is not an input device?
(A) Microphone
(B) Keyboard
(C) Joystick
(D) Monitor
Ans: D
91. Which of the following is an open source software?
(A) MS Word
(B) Windows
(C) Mozilla Firefox
(D) Acrobat Reader
Ans: C
92. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?
(A) Mail join
(B) Mail copy
(C) Mail insert
(D) Mail merge
Ans: D
93. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
Choose the correct code:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (b) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: D
94. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
(A) Pesticides
(B) Mercury
(C) Lead
(D) Ozone
Ans: A
95. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(A) Population, forest cover and land available per person
(B) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(C) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(D) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
Ans: C
96. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25?
(A) 11011
(B) 10101
(C) 01101
(D) 11001
Ans: D
97. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
98. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) The President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: B
99. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(A) ~15%
(B) ~3%
(C) ~6%
(D) ~10%
Ans: C
100. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) European Union
(D) China
Ans: C
(A) Worm
(B) Virus
(C) Threat
(D) Spam
Ans: D
52. The statement “the study, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer hardware” refers to
(A) Information Technology (IT)
(B) Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)
(C) Information and data Technology (IDT)
(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Ans: A
53. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
(A) 110011
(B) 110010
(C) 110001
(D) 110100
Ans: A
54. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________
(A) Burning
(B) Zipping
(C) Digitizing
(D) Ripping
Ans: A
55. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:
(A) Family
(B) Society
(C) Teacher
(D) State
Ans: C
56. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: D
57. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 58 to 62.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write “Good luck, best, Joel”.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter has never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”
Answer the following questions 58 to 62.
58. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?
(A) A state of confusion
(B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety
(D) A state of pain
Ans: A
59. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting
(B) Photography
(C) Sketching
(D) Reading
Ans: D
60. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b) and (c) only
Ans: B
61. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800
(B) 560
(C) 500
(D) 100
Ans: D
62. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
Ans: D
63. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only
(D) (a) only
Ans: B
64. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol
(D) Mind mapping
Ans: D
65. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language
(B) Personal language
(C) Para language
(D) Delivery language
Ans: C
66. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(A) Reception
(B) Transmission
(C) Non-regulation
(D) Context
Ans: D
67. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:
(A) Verbal
(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal
(D) Irrational
Ans: B
68. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:
(A) Spurious
(B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian
(D) Confrontational
Ans: C
69. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:
(A) The use of hyperbole
(B) The change of voice level
(C) The use of abstract concepts
(D) Eye contact
Ans: D
70. The next term in the series
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? is:
(A) 50
(B) 57
(C) 62
(D) 72
Ans: A
71. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term is
(A) JKLMN
(B) JMKNL
(C) NMLKJ
(D) NMKLJ
Ans: C
72. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans: D
73. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be
(A) YKCPGAYLQ
(B) BNFSJDBMR
(C) QLYAGPCKY
(D) YQKLCYPAG
Ans: A
74. In the series
3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________
The next term will be
(A) 63
(B) 73
(C) 83
(D) 93
Ans: C
75. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs. 177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs. 173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 30
(D) 33
Ans: D
76. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:
(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.
(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Ans: B
77. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusion: (a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a) only
(C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
Ans: C
78. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) Some thieves are poor.
(B) Some thieves are not poor.
(C) No thief is poor.
(D) No poor person is a thief.
Ans: B
79. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(A) Astronomical
(B) Anthropological
(C) Deductive
(D) Analogical
Ans: D
80. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(B) It can provide clear method of notation.
(C) It can be either valid or invalid.
(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Ans: C
81. Consider the argument given below:
‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive
(B) Analogical
(C) Psychological
(D) Biological
Ans: B
82. Among the following propositions two arc related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a) and (c)
(D) (a) and (d)
Ans: D
83. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference
(B) An argument
(C) An explanation
(D) A valid argument
Ans: B
84. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:
(A): No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
85. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical
(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative
(D) Persuasive
Ans: C
86. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) All men are honest
(B) Some men are honest
(C) Some men are not honest
(D) No honest person is man
Ans: B
87. NMEICT stands for:
(A) National Mission on Education through ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
Ans: A
88. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: D
89. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:
(A) 4 bits
(B) 8 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 10 bits
Ans: B
90. Which of the following is not an input device?
(A) Microphone
(B) Keyboard
(C) Joystick
(D) Monitor
Ans: D
91. Which of the following is an open source software?
(A) MS Word
(B) Windows
(C) Mozilla Firefox
(D) Acrobat Reader
Ans: C
92. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?
(A) Mail join
(B) Mail copy
(C) Mail insert
(D) Mail merge
Ans: D
93. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
Choose the correct code:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (b) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: D
94. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
(A) Pesticides
(B) Mercury
(C) Lead
(D) Ozone
Ans: A
95. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(A) Population, forest cover and land available per person
(B) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(C) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(D) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
Ans: C
96. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25?
(A) 11011
(B) 10101
(C) 01101
(D) 11001
Ans: D
97. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans: C
98. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) The President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: B
99. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(A) ~15%
(B) ~3%
(C) ~6%
(D) ~10%
Ans: C
100. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) European Union
(D) China
Ans: C
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